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  • Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Physical assessment
     is an inevitable procedure not just for nurses but also for doctors. Establishing a good assessment would later-on provide a more accurate diagnosis, planning, and better interventions and evaluation, that’s why it’s important to have a good and strong assessment.

    Below is your ultimate guide in performing a head-to-toe physical assessment. You might want to print a copy and bring it during your hospital duty, making your physical assessment better and more accurate!

    Skull, Scalp & Hair

    Observe the size, shape, and contour of the skull.

    Observe scalp in several areas by separating the hair at various locations; inquire about any injuries. Note presence of lice, nits, dandruff or lesions.

    Palpate the head by running the pads of the fingers over the entire surface of the skull; inquire about tenderness upon doing so. (wear gloves if necessary)

    Observe and feel the hair condition. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Normal Findings:

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    Skull

    Generally round, with prominences in the frontal and occipital area. (Normocephalic).

    No tenderness noted upon palpation.

    Scalp

    Lighter in color than the complexion.

    Can be moist or oily.

    No scars noted.

    Free from lice, nits, and dandruff.

    No lesions should be noted.

    No tenderness or masses on palpation.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Hair

    Can be black, brown or burgundy depending on the race.

    Evenly distributed covers the whole scalp

    No evidence of Alopecia

    Maybe thick or thin, coarse or smooth.

    Neither brittle nor dry.

    Face

    Observe the face for shape.

    Inspect for Symmetry.

    Inspect for the palpebral fissure (distance between the eyelids); should be equal in both eyes.

    Ask the patient to smile, There should be bilateral Nasolabial fold (creases extending from the angle of the corner of the mouth) Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide. Slight asymmetry in the fold is normal.

    If both are met, then the Face is symmetrical

    Test the functioning of Cranial Nerves that innervates the facial structures

    CN V (Trigeminal)

    1. Sensory Function

    Ask the client to close the eyes.

    Run cotton wisp over the forehead, cheek, and jaw on both sides of the face.

    Ask the client if he/she feels it, and where she feels it.

    Check for corneal reflex using cotton wisp.

    The normal response in blinking.

    2. Motor function

    Ask the client to chew or clench the jaw.

    The client should be able to clench or chew with strength and force.

    CN VII (Facial)

    1. Sensory function (This nerve innervate the anterior 2/3 of the tongue).

    Place a sweet, sour, salty, or bitter substance near the tip of the tongue.

    Normally, the client can identify the taste. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    2. Motor function

    Ask the client to smile, frown, raise eyebrow, close eyelids, whistle, or puff the cheeks.

    Normal Findings

    Shape may be oval or rounded.

    Face is symmetrical.

    No involuntary muscle movements.

    Can move facial muscles at will.

    Intact cranial nerve V and VII.

    Eyebrows, Eyes, and Eyelashes

    All three structures are assessed using the modality of inspection.

    Normal findings

    Eyebrows

    Symmetrical and in line with each other.

    Maybe black, brown or blond depending on race.

    Evenly distributed.

    Severe exophthalmos

    Eyes

    Evenly placed and inline with each other.

    None protruding.

    Equal palpebral fissure.

    Eyelashes

    Color dependent on race.

    Evenly distributed.

    Turned outward.

    Eyelids and Lacrimal Apparatus

    Inspect the eyelids for position and symmetry.

    Palpate the eyelids for the lacrimal glands.

    To examine the lacrimal gland, the examiner, lightly slide the pad of the index finger against the client’s upper orbital rim.

    Inquire for any pain or tenderness.

    Palpate for the nasolacrimal duct to check for obstruction. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    To assess the nasolacrimal duct, the examiner presses with the index finger against the client’s lower inner orbital rim, at the lacrimal sac, 
    NOT AGAINST THE NOSE.

    In the presence of blockage, this will cause regurgitation of fluid in the puncta

    Normal Findings

    Eyelids

    Upper eyelids cover the small portion of the iris, cornea, and sclera when eyes are open.

    No PTOSIS noted. (Drooping of upper eyelids).

    Meets completely when eyes are closed.

    Symmetrical.

    Lacrimal Apparatus

    Lacrimal gland is normally non palpable.

    No tenderness on palpation.

    No regurgitation from the nasolacrimal duct.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Conjunctivae

    The bulbar and palpebral conjunctivae are examined by separating the eyelids widely and having the client look up, down and to each side. When separating the lids, the examiner should exert NO PRESSURE against the eyeball; rather, the examiner should hold the lids against the ridges of the bony orbit surrounding the eye.

    In examining the palpebral conjunctiva, everting the upper eyelid in necessary and is done as follow:

    Ask the client to look down but keep his eyes slightly open. This relaxes the levator muscles, whereas closing the eyes contracts the orbicularis muscle, preventing lid eversion.

    Gently grasp the upper eyelashes and pull gently downward. Do not pull the lashes outward or upward; this, too, causes muscles contraction.

    Place a cotton tip application about I can above the lid margin and push gently downward with the applicator while still holding the lashes. This everts the lid.

    Hold the lashes of the everted lid against the upper ridge of the bony orbit, just beneath the eyebrow, never pushing against the eyebrow.

    Examine the lid for swelling, infection, and presence of foreign objects.

    To return the lid to its normal position, move the lid slightly forward and ask the client to look up and to blink. The lid returns easily to its normal position.

    Normal Findings

    Both conjunctivae are pinkish or red in color.

    With presence of many minutes capillaries.

    Moist

    No ulcers

    No foreign objects

    Sclerae

    The sclerae are easily inspected during the assessment of the conjunctivae.

    Normal Findings

    Sclerae is white in color (anicteric sclera)

    No yellowish discoloration (icteric sclera).

    Some capillaries may be visible.

    Some people may have pigmented positions.

    Cornea

    The cornea is best inspected by directing penlight obliquely from several positions.

    Normal findings

    There should be no irregularities on the surface.

    Looks smooth.

    The cornea is clear or transparent. The features of the iris should be fully visible through the cornea.

    There is a positive corneal reflex.

    Anterior Chamber and Iris

    The anterior chamber and the iris are easily inspected in conjunction with the cornea. The technique of oblique illumination is also useful in assessing the anterior chamber.

    Normal Findings

    The anterior chamber is transparent.

    No noted any visible materials.

    Color of the iris depends on the person’s race (black, blue, brown or green).

    From the side view, the iris should appear flat and should not be bulging forward. There should be NO crescent shadow casted on the other side when illuminated from one side.

    Pupils

    Examination of the pupils involves several inspections, including assessment of the size, shape reaction to light is directed is observed for direct response of constriction. Simultaneously, the other eye is observed for consensual response of constriction.

    The test for papillary accommodation is the examination for the change in papillary size as it is switched from a distant to a near object.

    Ask the client to stare at the objects across the room.

    Then ask the client to fix his gaze on the examiner’s index fingers, which is placed 5 – 5 inches from the client’s nose.

    Visualization of distant objects normally causes papillary dilation and visualization of nearer objects causes papillary constriction and convergence of the eye.

    Normal Findings

    Pupillary size ranges from 3 – 7 mm, and are equal in size.

    Equally round.

    Constrict briskly/sluggishly when light is directed to the eye, both directly and consensual.

    Pupils dilate when looking at distant objects, and constrict when looking at nearer objects.

    If all of which are met, we document the findings using the notation PERRLA, pupils equally round, reactive to light and accommodation.

    A Snellen chart

    Cranial Nerve II (optic nerve)

    The optic nerve is assessed by testing for visual acuity and peripheral vision.

    Visual acuity is tested using a Snellen chart, for those who are illiterate and unfamiliar with the western alphabet, the illiterate E chart, in which the letter E faces in different directions, may be used.

    The chart has a standardized number at the end of each line of letters; these numbers indicate the degree of visual acuity when measured at a distance of 20 feet.

    The numerator 20 is the distance in feet between the chart and the client, or the standard testing distance. The denominator 20 is the distance from which the normal eye can read the lettering, which corresponds to the number at the end of each letter line; therefore the larger the denominator the poorer the version.

    Measurement of 20/20 vision is an indication of either refractive error or some other optic disorder.

    In testing for visual acuity you may refer to the following:

    The room used for this test should be well lighted.

    A person who wears corrective lenses should be tested with and without them to check for the adequacy of correction.

    Only one eye should be tested at a time; the other eye should be covered by an opaque card or eye cover, not with client’s finger.

    Make the client read the chart by pointing at a letter randomly at each line; maybe started from largest to smallest or vice versa.

    A person who can read the largest letter on the chart (20/200) should be checked if they can perceive hand movement about 12 inches from their eyes, or if they can perceive the light of the penlight directed to their yes.

    Peripheral vision or visual fields

    The assessment of visual acuity is indicative of the functioning of the macular area, the area of central vision. However, it does not test the sensitivity of the other areas of the retina which perceive the more peripheral stimuli. The Visual field confrontation test, provide a rather gross measurement of peripheral vision.

    The performance of this test assumes that the examiner has normal visual fields, since that client’s visual fields are to be compared with the examiners.

    Follow the steps on conducting the test:

    The examiner and the client sit or stand opposite each other, with the eyes at the same, horizontal level with the distance of 1.5 – 2 feet apart.

    The client covers the eye with an opaque card, and the examiner covers the eye that is opposite to the client covered eye.

    Instruct the client to stare directly at the examiner’s eye, while the examiner stares at the client’s open eye. Neither looks out at the object approaching from the periphery.

    The examiner holds an object such as pencil or penlight, in his hand and gradually moves it in from the periphery of both directions horizontally and from above and below.

    Normally the client should see the same time the examiners see it. The normal visual field is 180 degrees.

    Cranial Nerve III, IV & VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)

    All the 3 Cranial nerves are tested at the same time by assessing the Extra Ocular Movement (EOM) or the six cardinal position of gaze.

    Follow the given steps:

    Stand directly in front of the client and hold a finger or a penlight about 1 ft from the client’s eyes.

    Instruct the client to follow the direction the object held by the examiner by eye movements only; that is without moving the neck.

    The nurse moves the object in a clockwise direction hexagonally.

    Instruct the client to fix his gaze momentarily on the extreme position in each of the six cardinal gazes.

    The examiner should watch for any jerky movements of the eye (nystagmus).

    Normally the client can hold the position and there should be no nystagmus.

    Ears

    Inspect the auricles of the ears for parallelism, size position, appearance and skin color.

    Palpate the auricles and the mastoid process for firmness of the cartilage of the auricles, tenderness when manipulating the auricles and the mastoid process.

    Inspect the auditory meatus or the ear canal for color, presence of cerumen, discharges, and foreign bodies.

    For adult pull the pinna upward and backward to straighten the canal.

    For children pull the pinna downward and backward to straighten the canal

    Perform otoscopic examination of the tympanic membrane, noting the color and landmarks.

    Normal Findings

    The earlobes are bean-shaped, parallel, and symmetrical.

    The upper connection of the ear lobe is parallel with the outer canthus of the eye.

    Skin is the same in color as in the complexion.

    No lesions noted on inspection.

    The auricles have firm cartilage on palpation.

    The pinna recoils when folded.

    There is no pain or tenderness on the palpation of the auricles and mastoid process.

    The ear canal has normally some cerumen of inspection.

    No discharges or lesions noted at the ear canal.

    On otoscopic examination, the tympanic membrane appears flat, translucent and pearly gray in color.

    Nose and Paranasal Sinuses

    The external portion of the nose is inspected for the following:

    Placement and symmetry.

    Patency of nares (done by occluding nostril one at a time, and noting for difficulty in breathing)

    Flaring of alae nasi

    Discharge

    The external nares are palpated for:

    Displacement of bone and cartilage.

    For tenderness and masses

    The internal nares are inspected by hyperextending the neck of the client, the ulnar aspect of the examiners hard over the forehead of the client, and using the thumb to push the tip of the nose upward while shining a light into the nares.

    Inspect for the following:

    Position of the septum.

    Check septum for perforation. (Can also be checked by directing the lighted penlight on the side of the nose, illumination at the other side suggests perforation).

    The nasal mucosa (turbinates) for swelling, exudates, and change in color.

    Paranasal Sinuses

    Examination of the paranasal sinuses is indirect. Information about their condition is gained by inspection and palpation of the overlying tissues. Only frontal and maxillary sinuses are accessible for examination.

    By palpating both cheeks simultaneously, one can determine tenderness of the maxillary sinusitis, and pressing the thumb just below the eyebrows, we can determine tenderness of the frontal sinuses.

    Normal Findings

    Nose in the midline

    No Discharges.

    No flaring alae nasi.

    Both nares are patent.

    No bone and cartilage deviation noted on palpation.

    No tenderness noted on palpation.

    Nasal septum in the midline and not perforated.

    The nasal mucosa is pinkish to red in color. (Increased redness turbinates are typical of allergy).

    No tenderness noted on palpation of the paranasal sinuses.

    Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory Nerve)

    To test the adequacy of function of the olfactory nerve:

    The client is asked to close his eyes and occlude.

    The examiner places aromatic and easily distinguish nose. (E.g. alcohol, vinegar, coffee).

    Ask the client to identify the odor.

    Each side is tested separately, ideally with two different substances.

    Mouth and Oropharynx Lips

    Inspected for:

    Symmetry and surface abnormalities.

    Color

    Edema

    Normal Findings:

    With visible margin

    Symmetrical in appearance and movement

    Pinkish in color

    No edema

    Temporomandibular

    Palpate while the mouth is opened wide and then closed for:

    Crepitus

    Deviations

    Tenderness

    Normal Findings:

    Moves smoothly no crepitous.

    No deviations noted

    No pain or tenderness on palpation and jaw movement.

    Gums

    Inspected for:

    Color

    Bleeding

    Retraction of gums.

    Normal Findings:

    Pinkish in color

    No gum bleeding

    No receding gums

    Teeth

    Inspected for:

    Number

    Color

    Dental caries

    Dental fillings

    Alignment and malocclusions (2 teeth in the space for 1, or overlapping teeth).

    Tooth loss

    Breath should also be assessed during the process.

    Normal Findings

    28 for children and 32 for adults.

    White to yellowish in color

    With or without dental caries and/or dental fillings.

    With or without malocclusions.

    No halitosis.

    Tongue

    Palpated for:

    Texture

    Normal Findings:

    Pinkish with white taste buds on the surface.

    No lesions noted.

    No varicosities on ventral surface.

    Frenulum is thin attaches to the posterior 1/3 of the ventral aspect of the tongue.

    Gag reflex is present.

    Able to move the tongue freely and with strength.

    Surface of the tongue is rough.

    Uvula

    Inspected for:

    Position

    Color

    Cranial Nerve X (Vagus nerve) – Tested by asking the client to say “Ah” note that the uvula will move upward and forward.

    Normal Findings:

    Positioned in the midline.

    Pinkish to red in color.

    No swelling or lesion noted.

    Moves upward and backward when asked to say “ah”

    Tonsils

    Inspected for:

    Inflammation

    Size

    A Grading system used to describe the size of the tonsils can be used.

    Grade 1 – Tonsils behind the pillar.

    Grade 2 – Between pillar and uvula.

    Grade 3 – Touching the uvula

    Grade 4 – In the midline.

    Neck

    The neck is inspected for position symmetry and obvious lumps visibility of the thyroid gland and Jugular Venous Distension

    Check the Range of Movement of the neck.

    Normal Findings:

    The neck is straight.

    No visible mass or lumps.

    Symmetrical

    No jugular venous distension (suggestive of cardiac congestion).

    The neck is palpated just above the suprasternal note using the thumb and the index finger.

    Normal Findings:

    The trachea is palpable.

    It is positioned in the line and straight.

    Lymph nodes are palpated using palmar tips of the fingers via systemic circular movements. Describe lymph nodes in terms of size, regularity, consistency, tenderness, and fixation to surrounding tissues. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Normal Findings:

    May not be palpable. Maybe normally palpable in thin clients.

    Non-tender if palpable.

    Firm with smooth rounded surface.

    Slightly movable.

    About less than 1 cm in size.

    The thyroid is initially observed by standing in front of the client and asking the client to swallow. Palpation of the thyroid can be done either by posterior or anterior approach.

    Posterior Approach:

    Let the client sit on a chair while the examiner stands behind him.

    In examining the isthmus of the thyroid, locate the cricoid cartilage and directly below that is the isthmus.

    Ask the client to swallow while feeling for any enlargement of the thyroid isthmus.

    To facilitate examination of each lobe, the client is asked to turn his head slightly toward the side to be examined to displace the sternocleidomastoid, while the other hand of the examiner pushes the thyroid cartilage towards the side of the thyroid lobe to be examined.

    Ask the patient to swallow as the procedure is being done.

    The examiner may also palate for thyroid enlargement by placing the thumb deep to and behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, while the index and middle fingers are placed deep to and in front of the muscle.

    Then the procedure is repeated on the other side.

    Anterior approach:

    The examiner stands in front of the client and with the palmar surface of the middle and index fingers palpate below the cricoid cartilage.

    Ask the client to swallow while palpation is being done.

    In palpating the lobes of the thyroid, similar procedure is done as in posterior approach. The client is asked to turn his head slightly to one side and then the other of the lobe to be examined.

    Again the examiner displaces the thyroid cartilage towards the side of the lobe to be examined.

    Again, the examiner palpates the area and hooks thumb and fingers around the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

    Normal Findings:

    Normally the thyroid is non-palpable.

    Isthmus may be visible in a thin neck.

    No nodules are palpable.

    Auscultation of the Thyroid is necessary when there is thyroid enlargement. The examiner may hear bruits, as a result of increased and turbulence in blood flow in an enlarged thyroid. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Thorax (Cardiovascular System)

    Inspection of the Heart

    The chest wall and epigastrium is inspected while the client is in supine position. Observe for pulsation and heaves or lifts

    Normal Findings:

    Pulsation of the apical impulse may be visible. (this can give us some indication of the cardiac size).

    There should be no lift or heaves.

    Palpation of the Heart

    The entire precordium is palpated methodically using the palms and the fingers, beginning at the apex, moving to the left sternal border, and then to the base of the heart.

    Normal Findings:

    No, palpable pulsation over the aortic, pulmonic, and mitral valves.

    Apical pulsation can be felt on palpation.

    There should be no noted abnormal heaves, and thrills felt over the apex.

    Percussion of the Heart

    The technique of percussion is of limited value in cardiac assessment. It can be used to determine borders of cardiac dullness.

    Auscultation of the Heart

    Anatomic areas for auscultation of the heart:

    Aortic valve – Right 2nd ICS sternal border.

    Pulmonic Valve – Left 2nd ICS sternal border.

    Tricuspid Valve – – Left 5th ICS sternal border.

    Mitral Valve – Left 5th ICS midclavicular line

    Positioning the client for auscultation:

    If the heart sounds are faint or undetectable, try listening to them with the patient seated and leaning forward, or lying on his left side, which brings the heart closer to the surface of the chest.

    Having the client seated and leaning forward is best suited for hearing high-pitched sounds related to semilunar valves problem.

    The left lateral recumbent position is best suited low-pitched sounds, such as mitral valve problems and extra heart sounds.

    Auscultating the heart:

    Auscultate the heart in all anatomic areas aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid and mitral

    Listen for the S1 and S2 sounds (S1 closure of AV valves; S2 closure of semilunar valve). S1 sound is best heard over the mitral valve; S2 is best heard over the aortic valve.

    Listen for abnormal heart sounds e.g. S3, S4, and Murmurs.

    Count heart rate at the apical pulse for one full minute.

    Auscultation of Heart Sounds

    Normal Findings:

    S1 & S2 can be heard at all anatomic site.

    No abnormal heart sounds are heard (e.g. Murmurs, S3 & S4).

    Cardiac rate ranges from 60 – 100 bpm.

    Breast

    Inspection of the Breast

    There are 4 major sitting position of the client used for clinical breast examination. Every client should be examined in each position.

    The client is seated with her arms on her side.

    The client is seated with her arms abducted over the head.

    The client is seated and is pushing her hands into her hips, simultaneously eliciting contraction of the pectoral muscles.

    The client is seated and is learning over while the examiner assists in supporting and balancing her.

    While the client is performing these maneuvers, the breasts are carefully observed for symmetry, bulging, retraction, and fixation.

    An abnormality may not be apparent in the breasts at rest a mass may cause the breasts, through invasion of the suspensory ligaments, to fix, preventing them from upward movement in position 2 and 4.

    Position 3 specifically assists in eliciting dimpling if a mass has infiltrated and shortened suspensory ligaments.

    Normal Findings:

    The overlying the breast should be even.

    May or may not be completely symmetrical at rest.

    The areola is rounded or oval, with same color, (Color varies from light pink to dark brown depending on race).

    Nipples are rounded, everted, same size and equal in color.

    No “orange peel” skin is noted which is present in edema.

    The veins may be visible but not engorge and prominent.

    No obvious mass noted. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Not fixated and moves bilaterally when hands are abducted over the head, or is leaning forward.

    No retractions or dimpling.

    Palpation of the Breast

    Palpate the breast along imaginary concentric circles, following a clockwise rotary motion, from the periphery to the center going to the nipples. Be sure that the breast is adequately surveyed. Breast examination is best done 1-week post menses.

    Each areolar areas are carefully palpated to determine the presence of underlying masses.

    Each nipple is gently compressed to assess for the presence of masses or discharge.

    Normal Findings:

    No lumps or masses are palpable.

    No tenderness upon palpation.

    No discharges from the nipples.

    NOTE: The male breasts are observed by adapting the techniques used for female clients. However, the various sitting position used for woman is unnecessary.

    Abdomen

    In abdominal assessment, be sure that the client has emptied the bladder for comfort. Place the client in a supine position with the knees slightly flexed to relax abdominal muscles.

    Inspection of the abdomen

    Inspect for skin integrity (Pigmentation, lesions, striae, scars, veins, and umbilicus).

    Contour (flat, rounded, scaphoid) Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Distension

    Respiratory movement.

    Visible peristalsis.

    Pulsations

    Normal Findings:

    Skin color is uniform, no lesions.

    Some clients may have striae or scar.

    No venous engorgement.

    Contour may be flat, rounded or scaphoid

    Thin clients may have visible peristalsis.

    Aortic pulsation may be visible on thin clients.

    Auscultation of the Abdomen

    This method precedes percussion because bowel motility, and thus bowel sounds, may be increased by palpation or percussion.

    The stethoscope and the hands should be warmed; if they are cold, they may initiate contraction of the abdominal muscles.

    Light pressure on the stethoscope is sufficient to detect bowel sounds and bruits. Intestinal sounds are relatively high-pitched, the bell may be used in exploring arterial murmurs and venous hum.

    Peristaltic sounds

    These sounds are produced by the movements of air and fluids through the gastrointestinal tract. Peristalsis can provide diagnostic clues relevant to the motility of bowel.

    Listening to the bowel sounds (borborygmi) can be facilitated by following these steps:

    Divide the abdomen into four quadrants.

    Listen over all auscultation sites, starting at the right lower quadrants, following the cross pattern of the imaginary lines in creating the abdominal quadrants Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide. This direction ensures that we follow the direction of bowel movement.

    Peristaltic sounds are quite irregular. Thus it is recommended that the examiner listen for at least 5 minutes, especially at the periumbilical area, before concluding that no bowel sounds are present.

    The normal bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling noises that occur approximately every 5 – 15 seconds. It is suggested that the number of bowel sound may be as low as 3 to as high as 20 per minute, or roughly, one bowel sound for each breath sound.

    Some factors that affect bowel sound:

    Presence of food in the GI tract.

    State of digestion.

    Pathologic conditions of the bowel (inflammation, Gangrene, paralytic ileus, peritonitis).

    Bowel surgery

    Constipation or Diarrhea.

    Electrolyte imbalances.

    Bowel obstruction.

    Percussion of the abdomen

    Abdominal percussion is aimed at detecting fluid in the peritoneum (ascites), gaseous distension, and masses, and in assessing solid structures within the abdomen.

    The direction of abdominal percussion follows the auscultation site at each abdominal guardant. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    The entire abdomen should be percussed lightly or a general picture of the areas of tympany and dullness.

    Tympany will predominate because of the presence of gas in the small and large bowel. Solid masses will percuss as dull, such as liver in the RUQ, spleen at the 6th or 9th rib just posterior to or at the midaxillary line on the left side.

    Percussion in the abdomen can also be used in assessing the liver span and size of the spleen.

    Percussion of the liver

    The palms of the left hand are placed over the region of liver dullness.

    The area is strucked lightly with a fisted right hand.

    Normally tenderness should not be elicited by this method.

    Tenderness elicited by this method is usually a result of hepatitis or cholecystitis.

    Renal Percussion

    Can be done by either indirect or direct method.

    Percussion is done over the costovertebral junction.

    Tenderness elicited by such method suggests renal inflammation.

    Palpation of the Abdomen

    Light palpation

    It is a gentle exploration performed while the client is in supine position. With the examiner’s hands parallel to the floor.

    The fingers depress the abdominal wall, at each quadrant, by approximately 1 cm without digging, but gently palpating with slow circular motion.

    This method is used for eliciting slight tenderness, large masses, and muscles, and muscle guarding.

    Tensing of abdominal musculature may occur because of:

    The examiner’s hands are too cold or are pressed to vigorously or deep into the abdomen. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    The client is ticklish or guards involuntarily.

    Presence of subjacent pathologic condition.

    Normal Findings:

    No tenderness noted.

    With smooth and consistent tension.

    No muscles guarding.

    Deep Palpation

    It is the indentation of the abdomen performed by pressing the distal half of the palmar surfaces of the fingers into the abdominal wall.

    The abdominal wall may slide back and forth while the fingers move back and forth over the organ being examined.

    Deeper structures, like the liver, and retroperitoneal organs, like the kidneys, or masses may be felt with this method.

    In the absence of disease, pressure produced by deep palpation may produce tenderness over the cecum, the sigmoid colon, and the aorta.

    Liver palpation

    There are two types of bimanual palpation recommended for palpation of the liver. The first one is the superimposition of the right hand over the left hand.

    Ask the patient to take 3 normal breaths.

    Then ask the client to breathe deeply and hold. This would push the liver down to facilitate palpation.

    Press hand deeply over the RUQ

    The second methods:

    The examiner’s left hand is placed beneath the client at the level of the right 11th and 12th ribs. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Place the examiner’s right hands parallel to the costal margin or the RUQ.

    An upward pressure is placed beneath the client to push the liver towards the examining right hand, while the right hand is pressing into the abdominal wall.

    Ask the client to breathe deeply.

    As the client inspires, the liver maybe felt to slip beneath the examining fingers.

    Normal Findings:

    The liver usually cannot be palpated in a normal adult. However, in extremely thin but otherwise well individuals, it may be felt the coastal margins.

    When the normal liver margin is palpated, it must be smooth, regular in contour, firm and non-tender.

    Extremities

    Inspection

    Observe for size, contour, bilateral symmetry, and involuntary movement.

    Look for gross deformities, edema, presence of trauma such as ecchymosis or other discoloration.

    Always compare both extremities.

    Palpation

    Feel for evenness of temperature. Normally it should be even for all the extremities.

    Tonicity of muscle. (Can be measured by asking client to squeeze examiner’s fingers and noting for equality of contraction).

    Perform range of motion.

    Test for muscle strength. (performed against gravity and against resistance)

    Table showing the Lovett scale for grading for muscle strength and functional level

    Functional level

    Lovett Scale

    Grade

    Percentage of normal

    No evidence of contractility

    Zero (Z)

    0

    0

    Evidence of slight contractility

    Trace (T)

    1

    10

    Complete ROM without gravity

    Poor (P)

    2

    25

    Complete ROM with gravity

    Fair (F)

    3

    50

    Complete range of motion against gravity with some resistance

    Good (G)

    4

    75

    Complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance

    Normal (N)

    5

    100

    Normal Findings

    Both extremities are equal in size.

    Have the same contour with prominences of joints.

    No involuntary movements.

    No edema

    Color is even.

    Temperature is warm and even.

    Has equal contraction and even.

    Can perform complete range of motion.

    No crepitus must be noted on joints.

    Can counteract gravity and resistance on ROM.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

  • NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment

    NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment

    Pre Brief

    Tina had an asthma episode 2 days ago. At that time she used her albuterol inhaler and her symptoms decreased although they did not completely resolve. Since that incident she notes that she has had ten episodes of wheezing and has shortness of breath approximately every four hours. Tina presents with continued shortness of breath and wheezing. Be sure to ask pertinent questions during the interview about related body systems NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment. This case study will provide the opportunity to carefully assess lung sounds during the physical examination. Be sure to appropriately document your findings using correct medical terminology.

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    Reason for visit:
     Patient presents complaining of a recent asthma episode that is not fully resolved.

    | 
    Overview

    | 
    Transcript

    | 
    Subjective Data Collection

    | 
    Objective Data Collection

    | 
    Education & Empathy

    | 
    Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | 
    Student Pre-Survey

    | 
    Lifespan Activity

    | 
    Review Questions

    | 
    Self-Reflection Activity

    Pre Brief

    Tina had an asthma episode 2 days ago. At that time she used her albuterol inhaler and her symptoms decreased although they did not completely resolve. Since that incident she notes that she has had ten episodes of wheezing and has shortness of breath approximately every four hours. Tina presents with continued shortness of breath and wheezing. Be sure to ask pertinent questions during the interview about related body systems. NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment. This case study will provide the opportunity to carefully assess lung sounds during the physical examination. Be sure to appropriately document your findings using correct medical terminology.

    Reason for visit:
     Patient presents complaining of a recent asthma episode that is not fully resolved.

    | 
    Overview

    | 
    Transcript

    | 
    Subjective Data Collection

    | 
    Objective Data Collection

    | 
    Education & Empathy

    | 
    Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | 
    Student Pre-Survey

    | 
    Lifespan Activity

    | 
    Review Questions

    | 
    Self-Reflection Activity

    NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment

  • NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    1.     A patient tells the FNP that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot”. This type of data would be:

    2.     The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

    3.     The FNP is reviewing information about evidence-based practice. Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?

    4.     A 59-year-old patient tells the FNP that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having black stools for the last 24 hours. How would the FNP best document his reason for seeking care?

    5.     A 29-year-old woman tells the FNP that she has excruciating pain in her back. Which would be an appropriate response by the FNP to the woman statement?

    6.     In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient who denies having had any, which note by the FNP would be most accurate?

    7.      If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    8.     If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

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    9.     Which of these statements represents subjective data the FNP obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin?

    10.  The FNP is obtaining a history for a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient?

    11.  Which statement indicates that the FNP understands the pain experienced by an elderly person?

    12.  The FNP is performing a vision examination. Which of these charts is most widely used for visual examination?

    13.  During a complete health assessment, how would the FNP test the patients hearing?

    14.  The FNP has just completed an examination of a patient’s extra-ocular muscles. When documenting the findings, the FNP should document the assessment of which cranial nerves?

    15.  A patient’s uvula rises midline when she says “ahh” and she has a positive gag reflex. The FNP has just tested which cranial nerve?

    16.  During an examination the FNP notices that a patient is unable to stick out his tongue. Which cranial nerve is involved with successful performance of this action?

    17.  A patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the FNP‘s resistant hands. What cranial nerve is involved with successful shoulder shrugging?

    18.  During an examination, the patient has just successfully completed the finger to nose and rapid alternating movements test and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin. The FNP would conclude that the patient’s___ function is intact. NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    19.  A five-year-old child is in the clinic for checkup. The FNP would expect him to:

    20.  When the FNP performs the confrontation test the FNP has assessed:

    21.  Which of these statements is true regarding the complete physical assessment?

    22.  Which of these statements is true regarding recording of data from the history and physical examination?

    23.  Which of these is included in assessment of general appearance?

    24.  The FNP is performing a review of symptoms. Which of these questions are appropriate as Health promotion questions to ask during this time?

    25.  The FNP is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the community portion of the FICA questions?

    26.  The FNP is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz

    A mother brings her two month old daughter in for an examination says “my daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has the spot soft on the top of her head, is there something terribly wrong?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    During percussion the FNP knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. This most likely results from:

    The patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The FNP suspects Damage to:

    When examining the face, the FNP is aware that the two pairs of salivary gland‘s that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands

    A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The FNP suspects damage to cranial nerve ____ and proceeds with the examination by____

    When examining a patient’s cranial nerve function, the FNP remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the: NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    The patient’s laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The FNP would proceed with an examination of the _____ gland

    A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adams apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that leaves the FNP to suspect that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump:

    The FNP notices that the patient’s submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the FNP would assess the patient’s:

    The FNP is aware that the four areas in the body were lymph nodes accessible are the:

    A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his eyes. The FNP should know that floaters are usually not significant and are caused by:

    The FNP is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How should the FNP proceed?

    A patient’s vision is recorded as 20/30 when the Snellen eye chart is used. The FNP interprets these results to indicate that:

    A patient is unable to read even the largest letters on the Snellen chart. The FNP should take which action next:

    A patient’s vision is reported as 20/80 in each eye. The FNP interprets this finding to mean that NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the FNP notes that the light is reflected at 2 o’clock in each eye. The FNP should

    The FNP is performing the diagnostic positions test. Normal findings would be which of these results?

    During an assessment of the sclera of an African-American patient, the FNP would consider which of these an expected finding?

    A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an examination. The FNP suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. How should the FNP check for this?

    The FNP is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale gray and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

    The FNP is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old African-American patient, the FNP notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the FNP do in response to these findings

    During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a three day history of nausea and vomiting the FNP notices dry mucous and deep vertical fissures on the tongue. These findings are reflective of:

    The FNP is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?

    The FNP student is reviewing physical assessment findings of the HEENT system associated with pregnancy. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of expected HEENT changes associated with pregnancy? During pregnancy: NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz Review – (Jarvis 8,9,13,14,15,16,18), (Swartz 4,6,7,8,9,10)

    What does dullness when percussing lung fields: Jarvis pg 427

    Facial sensation controlled by which CN: Jarvis 283,

    Know what two salivary glands are accessible during exam

    What CN is being … when pt shrugs shoulders Jarvis 646

    What muscles are being …. when …. CN 11 (spinal accessory nerve)

    Concern for malignant nodules versus benign lymph nodule

    Know what you’d do next if you palpated a submental lymph node: Jarvis pg 253

    Define visual acuity

    Know what to do if your patient can’t read the largest number on the Snellen chart: Jarvis 289

    Example of good visual acuity : Jarvis 289

    Example of poor visual acuity: Jarvis 289

    What is …. with corneal light reflex-

    Know normal variances of sclera : Jarvis 283

    Know how to check for Ptosis: Jarvis 292

    What does ptosis indicate: Jarvis 292

    NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Nasal fissure of pt with chronic allergies : Jarvis 271

    Acute allergies : Jarvis p 363 .

    What is an abnormal palpation of sinuses: Jarvis 362

    Normal palpation of sinuses

    Know normal variations in gingival margin

    Know what a dehydrated oral cavity will look like: Jarvis 387

    What is tactile fremitus, how do you test for it and what does it indicate. Jarvis 425

    A teenage girl has arrived complaining of pain in her left wrist. She was playing basketball when she fell and landed on her left hand. The FNP examined her hand and will expect a fracture if the girl complains: NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asked the FNP “what is osteoporosis?” The FNP explains to the patient that osteoporosis is defined as:

    Patient states, “I can hear a crunching or grating sound when I kneel”. She also states “that it is very difficult to get out of bed in the morning because of stiffness and pain in my joints”. The FNP should assess for signs of what problem?

    When taking the history on a patient with a seizure disorder the FNP assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of these would be the best question for obtaining this information?

    The FNP is teaching a class on osteoporosis prevention to a group of post menopausal women. A participant shows that she needs more instruction when she states I will:

    The FNP is performing a neurological assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork the FNP notices that the patient is unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally, but she is able to feel vibrations on both patella. Given this information what would the FNP suspect?

    And 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a check up. She states “I can’t walk as much as I used to”. The FNP is observing from motor dysfunction in her hip and should have her:

    The FNP is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the FNP should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient:

    A 50-year-old woman is in a clinic for weakness in her left arm and leg that she noticed for the past week. The FNP should perform which type of neurologic examination?

    During the neurological assessment of a healthy 35-year-old patient the FNP asks him to relax his muscles completely. The FNP then moves each extremity through full range of motion. Which of these results would the FNP expect to find?

    A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain. The FNP tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment This shift and posture is known as:

    A patient is able to flex his right arm forward without difficulty or pain but is unable to abduct his arm because of pain and muscle spasm’s. The FNP should suspect:

    A professional tennis player comes into the clinic complaining of a sore elbow. The FNP will assess for tenderness at the:

    The FNP suspect that a patient has carpal tunnel syndrome and wants to perform the Phalens test. To perform this task the FNP should instruct the patient to:

    During the history a patient tells the FNP that “it feels like the room is spinning around me”. The FNP would document this as:

    The assessment of a 60-year-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. In testing his pain perception the FNP decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When the FNP applies the sharp point of a pin on his arm several times he is only able to identify these as one very sharp prick. What would be the most accurate explanation for this?

    An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical that “he seems to be getting shorter as he ages”. The FNP should explain that decrease height occurs with aging because:

    A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, is better after he has moved around for a while, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods of time. The FNP should assess for other signs of what problem?

    When the FNP asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed he starts to sway and moves his feet farther apart. The FNP would document this finding as: NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    During an assessment of the cranial nerves the FNP finds the following asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of eyebrows, sagging of lower eyelids, and escape of air when the FNP presses against the right path cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these cranial nerves?

    The FNP is teaching a class on osteoporosis prevention to a group of postmenopausal women which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group?

    In obtaining a history on a 74 year old patient the FNP notes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed a tremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold thing. With this information what should the FNP‘s response be?

    During a history of a 78-year-old man his wife states that “he occasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion. He can’t even remember how to button his shirt”. In doing the assessment of his sensory system which action of the FNP‘s is most appropriate?

    While obtaining a history of a 3 month old infant from the mother the FNP asks about the infants ability to suck and grass the mothers finger. What is the FNP assessing?

    The FNP is doing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of always dropping things and falling down. While testing rapid alternating movements the FNP notices that the woman is unable to pat both her knees. Her response is very slow and she misses frequently. What should the FNP suspect? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

    NR 509 Week 3 Quiz (Version 2)

    What piece of equipment can be used to test for peripheral neuropathy

    How would you test for Romberg sign

    Diagnosis for patient with complaint of room spinning

    Know expected postural changes in pregnancy

    Know what the phalen’s test is and how to conduct it

    Hands back to back for 60 secs looking for development of

    Positive Phalen’s test

    Older pt that can’t remember to tie shoes in order to assess this you first want to?

    What is loss of bone density

    Disease that is accompanied by joint pain in the morning that improves with movement and worsens with sitting

    What is summation effect and what does it mean

    Know what is normal findings in passive ROM

    … evaluate a pt with migraines in regard to if they have an aura

    Know abnormal finding of rotator cuff

    Know the type of neuro exam to complete on a pt presenting with one sided weakness

    Understand tennis elbow

    Know common reflexes at various ages

    What tremors improve with ETOH

    Understand CN 11

    What concerns exist when pt is slow with RAM

    R/O MS NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Know education for pts on exercises that help to prevent osteoporosis

    What does hip abduction reveal

    A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the FNP expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

    The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these

    In assessing the carotid artery’s of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the FNP would

    When listening to heart sounds the FNP knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are

    The sack that surrounds and protects the heart is called the

    When assessing a newborn infant who is five minutes old the FNP knows that which of these statements would be true?

    The FNP is performing an assessment on an adult. The adults vital signs are normal and capillary refill is five seconds. What should the FNP do next?

    During an assessment of an older adult the FNP should expect to notice which finding as normal physiologic change associated with aging process NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment?

    The mother of a three month old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning the FNP finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short amount of time hungry again. What other information with the FNP want to have?

    In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease which would the FNP want to include when taking a history?

    The FNP is … the pulses of a patient who has been admitted for untreated hyperthyroidism. The FNP should expect to find a____pulse

    A patient complains of leg pain that wakes him at night. He states that he has been having problems with his legs. ….. his legs when they are … and disappears when he dangles them. He recently noticed a sore on the inner aspect of his right ankle. On the basis of this history information the FNP interprets that the patient is most likely experiencing

    During an assessment the FNP uses the profile sign to detect

    Which of these statements describes the closure of the valves in a normal cardiac cycle?

    When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient the FNP is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient skin is warm and capillary refill is normal. The FNP should next

    A 67-year-old patient states that he “recently began have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment”. This pain is relieved by sitting for about two minutes then he’s able to resume activities. The FNP interprets this patient is most likely experiencing

    In assessing a 70-year-old man the FNP finds the following blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, heart rate 104 and slightly irregular, split S2. Which of these findings can… by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?

    The FNP is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy three year old child. Which finding should the FNP expect?

    The FNP is preparing to perform modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test?

    A 25-year-old woman is in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. In reviewing her previous exam the FNP notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mmHg. When evaluating this change what does the FNP know to be true?

    Findings from an … of a 70-year-old patient with swelling in his ankles include jugular venous pusations, 5 cm above the sternal angle when the head of his bed is …. 45°. The FNP knows that this finding indicate:

    The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the

    The FNP is reviewing anatomy and physiology of the heart. Which statement best … by atrial kick?

    A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. I’ll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can’t catch my breath. The FNP‘s best response to this would be

    When assessing a patient the FNP notes that the left femoral pulse as diminished 1+/4+. What should the FNP do next?

    An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The FNP knows that this condition could be related to NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    ….. examining a patient who tells the FNP “I sure sweat a lot especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor”. The FNP knows that this could … related to

    During an abdominal assessment the FNP elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The FNP interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder which of these structures?

    An Inuit visiting Nevada from anchorage has come to the clinic in July during the hottest part of the day. It so happens that the clinics air conditioning is broken and the temperature is very hot. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true about the Inuit sweating tendencies?

    The FNP notices that a patient has black, tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would …

    ….. an abdominal …. deep palpation is used to determine

    The FNP is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding an aging adult and abdominal assessment is true?

    During examination the FNP finds that a patient has excessive dryness of the skin. The best term to describe this condition is

    A FNP notices that a patient has ascites, which indicates the presence of

    The FNP is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes during the abdominal assessment may include

    The FNP is caring for a black child who has … with marasmus. The FNP would expect to find the

    … patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination the FNP would expect to find

    The FNP is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having acid indigestion all the time. The FNP knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause

    The patient has abdominal borborygmi. The FNP knows that this term refers to

    A patient has a terrible itch for several months that he … scratching continuously. On examination the FNP might expect to find

    During aging process, the hair can look gray or white and begin to feel thin and fine. The FNP knows that this occurs because of a decrease in number of functioning

    The FNP notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding the FNP would report this as a

    During an abdominal assessment the FNP would consider which of these findings as normal?

    A 52 -year-old Woman has a papule on her nose that has a rounded pearly border and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it is slowly growing larger. The FNP suspects which condition? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    The FNP is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true about bowel sounds?

    The FNP is watching a new graduate FNP perform auscultation of a patient abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation proceeds percussion and palpitation of the abdomen?

    A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The FNP knows that this symptom is most often indicative of

    The patient is … of having inflammation of the gallbladder or cholecystitis. The FNP should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition?

    A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well baby check. The FNP observes the infant for possibility of fluid loss because of which these factors?

    During an assessment of a newborn infant, the FNP recalls that pyloric stenosis would … manifested by

    NR 509 Week 5 Quiz: Skin, Hair, Abdomen

    Question: The FNP is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding the agind adult and abdominal assessment is true?

    Question: The FNP notices that a patient has had a black tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would be

    Question: The FNP knows that during an abdominal assessment deep palpitation is used to determine

    Question: A patient has abdominal borboygmi. The FNP knows that this term refers to

    Question: During an abdominal assessment, the FNP would consider which of these findings as normal? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Question: The FNP is caring for a black child who has been diagnosed with marasmus. The FNP would expect to find the

    Question: An Inuit visiting Nevada from Anchorage has come to the clinic in July during the hottest part of the day. It so happens that the clinic’s air conditioning is broken and the temperature is very hot. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true about the Inuit sweating tendencies?

    Question: The FNP is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

    Question: During an abdominal assessment, the FNP elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The FNP interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment?

    Question: A patient has a terrible itch for several months that he has been scratching continuously. On examination, the FNP might expect to find

    Question: The FNP is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true of bowel sounds?

    Question: A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The FNP knows that this symptom is most often indicative of

    Question: The FNP notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding, the FNP would report this as a

    Question: A patient is suspected of having inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis. The FNP should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition?

    Question: The FNP just noted from a patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the FNP would expect to find

    Question: During an examination, the FNP finds that a patient has excessive dryness of skin. The best term to describe this condition is

    Question: An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The FNP knows that this condition could be related to NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Question: A 52 year old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it has slowly grown larger. The FNP suspects which condition?

    Question: The FNP is watching a new graduate FNP perform auscultation of a patient’s abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen?

    Question: A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby check. The FNP observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of which of these factors?

    NR 509 Week 5 Quiz Review

    Tenderness in RLQ is concerning for

    Inuit people tend to sweat more on face than trunk and extremities when exposed to heat

    spot on face with round pearly boarder with central red lesion concerning for

    Murphy sign= positive with deep palpation causes pain on inspiration

    NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Why do you auscultate first in abd assessment

    Tympany in the umbilical area

    Pt with decreased gastric secretions is at increase

    Another name for hyperactive bowels

    Black tarry stool concerning

    Lichenification caused by

    A papule is

    Older adults have

    CVA tenderness

    Confluent lesions

    Dryness of the skin

    Newborns are at greater risk of fluid loss

    High pitched irregular bowel sounds

    Changes in hair texture and color of an AA child with Marasmus

    Know how to assess for enlarged organs in the abd region

    Know three sounds heard in percussion

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    A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance-abuse problem. She admits to using cocaine just before arrival. Which of these assessment findings would the FNP expect to find when examining the woman?

    A 63-year-old Chinese American man enters the office with complaints of chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Which statement most accurately reflect the FNPs best course of action?

    The FNP is planning to assess new memory with the patient. The best way for the FNP to do this would be NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    During the health history the FNP asks a female patient “how many alcoholic drinks do you have a week?” Which answer by the patient would indicate at risk drinking?

    Symptoms such as pain are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain?

    The FNP suspect abuse when a 10-year-old child is taken to the urgent care center for leg injury. The best way to document the history and physical findings is to

    During a mental status assessment, which question by the FNP would best assess a persons judgment?

    The FNP is performing a mental status assessment on a five-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might leave FNP to be concerned about the girls mental status?

    During mental status examination, the FNP wants to assess a patient’s affect. The FNP should ask the patient which question?

    During an examination FNP notices a patterned injury on a patients back. Which of these would cause such an injury? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    The FNP is aware that intimate partner violence screening should occur with which situation?

    Which statement is best for the FNP to use when preparing to administer the abuse assessment screen?

    The FNP is conducting a class on alcohol and the effects of alcohol on the body. How many standard drinks (each containing 12 g alcohol) Per day are associated with increased deaths from cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus and injuries in men?

    A woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant is in the clinic for her first obstetric visit. She asked the FNP how many drinks a day safe for my baby? The FNP‘s best response is

    The FNP is performing the Denver II screen test on a 12 month old infant during a routine well child visit. The FNP should tell the infants parents that the Denver II

    Which term refers to a one produced by tearing or splitting of body tissue usually from blunt impact of a bony surface

    When reviewing the use of alcohol by older adults the FNP notes that the older adults have several characteristics that can increase the risk of alcohol use which would increase the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods of time in the older adult?

    The FNP is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain. Which statement is

    true regarding pain?

    The FNP is planning to assess a child using behavioral checklist. This tool is most appropriate for a(an)

    The FNP is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses … leave the FNP to … that the patient is … ?

    As a mandatory reporter of elder abuse, which of these must be present before an FNP notifies the authorities?

    A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of prior suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the FNP‘s best response in this situation?

    For persons age 12 years and older which of these illicit substances was one of the most commonly used? NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    Which of these individuals would the FNP consider at highest risk for suicide attempt?

    The FNP is …. a patient who has … for cirrhosis of the liver secondary to chronic alcohol use. During the physical … the FNP looks for cardiac problems that are … with chronic heavy use of alcohol such as

    During an examination of an aging male the FNP recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:

    During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks “can I get that vaccine for HPV? I have gentle warts and I’d like them to go away!” What is the FNP‘s best response?

    During a speculum inspection of the vagina the FNP would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?

    A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. The symptoms are most consistent with which of the following?

    When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man the FNP notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information the FNP would:

    The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the FNP to discuss the recognition of puberty. The FNP should reply by saying:

    The uterus is usually … tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as

    A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the FNP where sperm is produced. The FNP knows that sperm production occurs in NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment

    A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of dull pain and pulling in the scrotal area. On examination the FNP palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testes on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine in refills when he is up right. This description is consistent with:

    In performing an assessment of a woman’s axillary lymph system the FNP should assess which of these nodes?

    A patient contacts the office and tells the FNP that she is worried about her 10-year-old daughter having breast cancer. She describes a unilateral enlargement of the right breast with associated tenderness. She is worried because the left breast is not enlarged. What would be the FNP‘s best response?

    An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The FNP notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. …. which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The FNP should:

    A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the FNP include in patient education? A post menopausal woman:

    A 62-year-old man states that his doctor told him that he has an inguinal hernia. He asks the FNP to explain what a hernia is……:

    NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment When performing a genital assessment on a middle-age man, the FNP notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristics of:

    If a patient reports a recent breast infection, then the FNP should expect to find_____node enlargement

    A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. After some initial shyness she finally asked “am I normal? I don’t seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never get breasts?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    Which of these statements about the testes this true?

    During an examination FNP observes a female patients vestibule and expect to see the

    A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking history, the FNP should ascertain which of the following? The age:

    A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the FNP that she is afraid that the infection will hurt the fetus. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true?

    In performing a breast examination the FNP knows that it is especially important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant

    An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the

    Which of these statements is true regarding the penis?

    A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a check up. The FNP reads on her chart that her cervix is … cyanotic. The FNP knows that the woman is exhibiting____sign and _____sign

    Reflect back over the past eight weeks and describe how the achievement of the course outcomes in this course have prepared you to meet the MSN program outcome #1 and the MSN Essential I. NR 509 Advanced Physical Assessment.

  • NR 509 Week 7 Shadow Health Comprehensive Health History and Physical Assessment Assignment

    NR 509 Week 7 Shadow Health Comprehensive Health History and Physical Assessment Assignment

    Digital Clinical Experience Score: Score 98.4%

    Student Performance Index: 121 out of 123

    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Transcript (FNP Student Conducting Interview)

    NR-509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Subjective Data Collection: 50 of 50 (100%)

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    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Objective Data Collection: 71.0 of 73 (97.3%)

    NR-509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    NR 509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Plan My Exam

    Your Final Plan

    Head and neck,

    Anterior chest,

    Posterior chest,

    Abdomen,

    Upper extremities,

    Lower extremities,

    Full body

    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Self-Reflection

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons

    learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

    NR 509 Week 7 Shadow Health Comprehensive Health History and Physical Assessment Assignment

  • NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Neurological Physical Assignment Completed

    NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Neurological Physical Assignment Completed

    Pre Brief

    Two days after a minor, low-speed car accident in which Tina was a passenger, she noticed daily bilateral headaches along with neck stiffness. She reports that it hurts to move her neck, and she believes her neck might … swollen. She did not lose consciousness in the accident and denies changes in level of consciousness since that time. … that she gets a headache every day that lasts approximately 1-2 hours. … occasionally takes 650 mg of over the counter Tylenol with relief of the pain. This case study will allow you the opportunity to examine the patient’s optic nerve via use of the ophthalmoscope as well as assess her visual acuity. You will need to document your findings using appropriate medical terminology. Be sure to assess for foot neuropathy using the monofilament test. Reason for visit: Patient presents complaining of headache.NR 509 Neurological Results | Transcript

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    Interview Questions (113)

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Subjective Data Collection: 18 of 20 (90.0%)

    NR-509 Neurological Results | Objective Data Collection: 36.75 of 37 (99.32%)

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Education & Empathy: 4 of 4 (100.0%)

    Symptoms

    Cause of Injury

    Medications

    Vision

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Pre-Survey Lifespan

    Tina’s three-year-old neighbor presents to the clinic with fever, neck pain, headache, and confusion. He has no symptoms of an upper respiratory infection. The parents mention that they do not believe in immunizations. Based on the information given, what diagnosis is of the greatest concern? What is your next action?

    Tina’s 83-year-old great uncle forgets where he is during his yearly check-up. He doesn’t remember if he’s had memory problems before and no family members came to your office with him. List your differential diagnosis. What assessments would you perform?

    NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Neurological Physical Assignment Completed

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Review Questions

    To assess spinal levels L2, L3 and L4 in Tina, which deep tendon reflexes would have to be tested?

    Imagine that you were preparing to irrigate a Foley catheter of a patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 in a urology clinic. Upon moving the leg bag, the patient became suddenly flushed and diaphoretic above the nipple line. What would you suspect was happening?

    Which of the following is not a common symptom of Parkinson’s disease?

    Name at least three ways to assess cerebellar function during a physical exam.

    If Tina had a fever and photophobia, you would have had to test for meningitis. Describe how you would have tested for the Kernig’s sign

    Suppose you assessed pain sensation over Tina’s left foot, and noticed that she had decreased sensation. How would you have proceeded with your exam?

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Self-Reflection

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional practice

    NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Neurological Physical Assignment Completed

  • NR 509 Week 7 Assignment Immersion Completion

    NR 509 Week 7 Assignment Immersion Completion

    ___________, my name is ____________, I will be doing your exam today. I’ll begin with inspecting your face. I’ll note that I don’t see any discolorations or lesions & the head is midline & symmetrical.

    LYMPH NODES: Next, I’ll palpate the lymph nodes. I’ll begin with the preauricular lymph nodes & postauricular lymph nodes. Next the occipital lymph nodes. I’ll move forward to palpate the tonsillar lymph nodes, submandibular & submental. I’m palpating the anterior cervical lymph nodes & posterior cervical lymph nodes & lastly the supraclavicular lymph nodes. I don’t feel any enlargement & they’re equal bilaterally.

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    FACE : I’m testing trigeminal nerve, which is cranial nerve # 5. Palpating over the masseter muscle as the pt clenches the jaw. I don’t feel any distortions & my pt has great strength. Now, I’m testing the sensory portion of the trigeminal nerve. I’ll ask my pt to close your eyes & let me know where you feel my touch. (>> Forehead, right cheek, left cheek, chin, nose)………. which is cranial nerve # 7. I’m going to ask you to do some facial expressions. I’m going to have you smile, next, frown for me. Now raise your eyebrows & puff up your cheeks, pucker your lips. I notice all expressions have bilateral symmetry.

    EARS

    EYES

    NOSE

    MOUTH

    NECK & THROAT

    HEART/CHEST
     ((pt sitting))

    UPPER EXTREMITIES

    ABDOMEN
     ((have pt lie down))

    LOWER EXTREMITIES

    NR 509 Week 7 Assignment Immersion Completion

  • Katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper

    Katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper

    Katharine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory

    Nursing and care education entails numerous theories that can be learned and applied in the line of duty of nurse practitioners. Therefore, among the many theories, it is ideal to settle on Kolcaba’s theory of comfort for effective understanding of how the theory was developed, its concepts, and its effectiveness. The theory restored the potential of placing comfort in the frontline of nursing and healthcare operations and positive outcomes in patient care activities. This paper, therefore, aims at expounding into detail the Kolcaba’s Comfort theory through description, analysis, and evaluation of the theory in relation to nursing and healthcare services.

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    Theory Description

    Purpose of the Theory

    Kolcaba’s Comfort theory is a mid-range Theory in nursing and conceptual context that was first generated about three decades ago. The Theory has however been regenerated and polished as per the current society, and it thus challenges nurse practitioners to always consider the comfort of patients while handling them (Kolcaba 2015). Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory entails various aspects that are relevant and applicable to the operations of nurses in their line of duty of restoring harmony to the issues affecting them health wise.

    Concepts and Definitions

    The main concept of this theory is comfort. The concept of comfort can be distinguished into three forms, i.e. ease, relief and transcendence and all these forms of comfort can be viewed in terms of physical, environmental, psychospiritual, and social-cultural (Kolcaba 2015). Comfort is vital to the operations of nursing since through relieving the pain, laying the body at ease and total relaxation, the patient is able to recover and feel okay. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper. When the patient’s body is under stress, this may delay the process of recovering, and therefore, comfort is very crucial in healing and enhancing the condition of the patient thereby improving the quality of life.

    Apart from the concept of comfort, there are other important concepts that have been incorporated in Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory. These concepts include measures of comfort, healthcare needs, health-seeking behaviors, variables for intervention, and institutional integrity (McEwen & Wills, 2017). Measures of comfort requirements are the nursing interventions that aim at restoring harmony and stability for the well being of the patient. Healthcare needs are the needs of the patient that will restore comfort under a stressing health period. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper. Variables for intervention are the previous encounters of the patient in liaison to healthcare and thoughts about healthcare. The idea of the behaviors of health-seeking was developed by Schlotfedt Rozella in the year 1975 and implies that outcomes of the patient that can be external, internal or a calm death. The integrity of an institution is explained by the actual situations that entail emphasis or qualities for holistic interventions.

    According to Kolcaba, there are three interventions that are vital in restoring comfort in a patient, and they include management of the pain; assessment of the vitals, medical administration, and helping of the patient to regain physically by preventing the negative issue from recurring again (McEwen & Wills, 2017). The second intervention is coaching which entails supporting the patient to develop attainable goals for anxiety reduction, fear or worry, recovery or death, and also encouraging the patient to listen and be flexible to ideas. The last intervention is ensuring a “comfort food” for an individual that recognizes the ancient nursing ideologies. This may be the actual food that the patient loves and upon consuming it restores comfort in him/her, massage or music therapy or environmental alterations that may promote peace and comfort in the patient (Saragopsill, 2013). Generally, a combination of all the concepts of the Comfort Theory of Kolcaba can lead to a significant change in the life of the patient and healthcare encounter. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper.

    Relationships

    All the Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory concepts are rooted and interconnected to one another. To ensure comfort, Kolcaba entails the important forms of assessment of the patient, diagnosis, drawing of intervention and a care plan and evaluation of the nursing process (Saragopsill, 2013). Assessment of the patient entails checking the patient needs that may derail comfort interventions and the objectives of seeking health behaviors and development of actions that will promote the well being of the patient through holistic and effective treatment. Statements in regard to the correlation of the concepts have been elaborated effectively throughout the entire theory thus making it ideal for someone to incorporate them. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper. Also, the concepts flow in a continuous form through a structured framework.

    Assumptions

    Assumptions of person, environment, health, and nursing have been described within the Comfort Theory by Kolcaba. According to the theory, a patient is the person, family, community or organization that requires the healthcare service. Health is elaborated as the “optimal operation” as understood by the person, family, or community surrounding that will seek the services of the nurse practitioner to acquire comfort (Smith & Parker, 2015). Nursing is referred as the assessment of the needs of the patient, offering intervention services to ensure restoration of comfort in the patient and then evaluating the patient to affirm whether the intervention plan worked out effectively as aimed or not. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper.

    Patient assessment can be either objective or subjective. It can be objective in a manner like measuring a healing wound or subjective like interrogating the patient if he/she is in pain or not. There are numerous concepts in the theory that give a lead and guidance on how it can be applied for practical nursing activities (Saragopsill, 2013). The theory elaborates comfort and an holistic activity and illustrates its three aspects which include ease, relief and transcendence.

    Therefore, when the patient requires ease, relief and transcendence, and they are effectively availed under the four backgrounds i.e. physical, environmental, social and psychospiritual so that the patient can acquire the strength directly (Smith & Parker, 2015). The patient acquires relief out of the pain after operation through administration of the appropriate analgesia which generates comfort in the patient through the sense of relief. Ease is acquired after anxiety or fear is overted through treatment. Similarly, transcendence may be obtained through an instance like the patient attaining a particular goal/objective in the process of healing. Indeed, the Kolcaba’s definitions are practical since many of them can be applied by nurses in their daily operations to restore comfort and well being of the patient. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper.

    Analysis of the Theory

    Origin of the Theory

    The theory was first written and developed in the 1990s but was not effected yet. By the early 2000, the theory began to be understood and now began to be fully implemented and adopted by healthcare and nurse practitioners.

    Unique Focus and Content of the Theory

    Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory has been generated in a manner that enables it to be applied under a practical environment and for all the populations. It has the concept of ensuring comfort to the patient which helps a patient to quickly heal and relax (Smith & Parker, 2015). Despite the situation or life stage of the patient, the theory is always effective and applicable in promoting quality life and well being of that patient. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper. It is indeed evident that the theory can be applicable in other areas apart from nursing and educational fields. The aspect of comfort to the patient is very vital in ensuring that he/she acquires ease and relaxation which are the main factors that steer healing.

    Evaluation of the Theory

    The theory is in agreement with the existing literature reviews and operates in a simple and direct manner and it can be easily applied into real-life situations in healthcare activities by nurses (McEwen & Wills, 2017). This is because it brings a direct solution to the basic issues of handling and treating patients. Also, the theory works hand in hand with nursing practices and operations in enhancing the well being of patients. Due to its relevance, it is thus vital for practice among all the nurse practitioners so that they can effectively assess and ensure quality interventions to patients.

    Conclusion

    Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort is entailed a lot of vital aspects and concepts that can be applied in the healthcare operations and medication services for patients. The theory offers guidance and knowledge for making decisions by in the nursing process by overting pain and discomfort in a patient and restoring ease and relaxation in a patient. Therefore, upon describing, analyzing and evaluating the theory, it can be affirmed that it is an effective theory and should be integrated into the operations of nurses to promote quality and well being of patients. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper.

    References

    Kolcaba, K. A. T. H. A. R. I. N. E. (2015). Katherine Kolcaba’s comfort theory. 
    Nursing theories and nursing practice
    , 381-392.

    McEwen, M., & Wills, E. M. (2017). 
    Theoretical basis for nursing
    . Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.

    Saragopsill. (2013, September 29). Analysis of Katherine Kolcaba’s Theory of Comfort. Retrieved from https://saragopsill.wordpress.com/2013/09/26/analysis-of-katherine-kolcabas-theory-of-comfort/

    Smith, M. C., & Parker, M. E. (2015). 
    Nursing theories and nursing practice
    . FA Davis. katharine kolcaba’s comfort theory sample essay paper

  • NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

    NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

    Question 1.
    1. 
    Steady state is: (Points : 2.5)

    The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion

    When the amount of drug in the body remains constant

    When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

    All of the above

     

    Question 2.
    2. 
    A patient’s nutritional intake and lab work reflect hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: (Points : 2.5)

    Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected

    The solubility of the drug will not match the site of absorption

    There will be less free drug available to generate an effect

    Drugs bound to albumin are readily excreted by the kidney

    NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

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    Question 3.
    3. 
    The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: (Points : 2.5)

    Minimum adverse effect level

    Peak of action

    Onset of action

    Therapeutic range

     

    Question 4.
    4. 
    Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including: (Points : 2.5)

    Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme

    Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele

    Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles

    All of the above NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

     

    Question 5.
    5. 
    Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to: (Points : 2.5)

    Toxic levels of warfarin building up

    Decreased response to warfarin

    Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

    Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

     

    Question 6.
    6. 
    The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: (Points : 2.5)

    Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution

    The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group

    The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect

    Age-related decrease in renal function

     

    Question 7.
    7. 
    The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: (Points : 2.5) NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

    Steady state

    Half-life

    Phase II metabolism

    Reduced bioavailability time

     

    Question 8.
    8. 
    Which one of the following statements about bioavailability is true? (Points : 2.5)

    Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms.

    All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability.

    Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily.

    Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability.

     

    Question 9.
    9. 
    A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids. (Points : 2.5)

    A

    C

    E

    G

     

    Question 10.
    10. 
    Drugs that use CYP3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: (Points : 2.5)

    Induce the metabolism of another drug

    Inhibit the metabolism of another drug

    Both A and B

    Neither A nor B

     

    Question 11.
    11. 
    The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: (Points : 2.5) NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

    Disintegration

    Toxicity

    Malabsorption

    Deterioration

     

    Question 12.
    12. 
    When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of: (Points : 2.5)

    His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications

    His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you

    A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

    A common misuse of OTC aspirin

     

    Question 13.
    13. 
    The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to: (Points : 2.5)

    Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies.

    Recommend common OTC herbs to patients.

    Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care.

    Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers.

     

    Question 14.
    14. 
    Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin. (Points : 2.5)

    True

    False

     

    Question 15.
    15. 
    Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen? (Points : 2.5)

    Complexity of the drug regimen

    Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs

    Both A and B

    Neither A nor B

     

    NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers Question 16.
    16. 
    Herbs and supplements are tested for safety by the FDA. (Points : 2.5)

    True

    False

     

    Question 17.
    17. 
    The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is: (Points : 2.5)

    Choosing the treatment

    Educating the patient about the medication

    Diagnosing the patient’s problem

    Starting the treatment

     

    Question 18.
    18. 
    The angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ ADR. (Points : 2.5)

    A

    B

    C

    D

    NSG 6005 week two quiz with answers

  • NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam
    .

    Question

    1. Question :

    The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

    Alendronate (Fosamax)

    Ibandronate (Boniva)

    Calcium carbonate

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    Raloxifene (Evista)

    Question 2. Question :

    Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

    Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

    Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses

    Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses

    Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam

    Question 3. Question :

    Some research supports that testosterone replacement therapy may be indicated in which of the following diagnoses in men?

    Age-related decrease in cognitive functioning

    Metabolic syndrome

    Decreased muscle mass in aging men

    All of the above

    Question 4. Question :

    The chemicals that promote the spread of pain locally include _________.

    serotonin

    norepinephrine

    enkephalin

    neurokinin A

    Question 5. Question :

    The DEA:

    Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

    Regulates NP prescribing at the state level

    Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label

    Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

    Question 6. Question : NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam

    The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

    forty-eight hours

    four to six days

    four weeks

    two months

    Question 7. Question :

    The route of excretion of a volatile drug will likely be:

    The kidneys

    The lungs

    The bile and feces

    The skin

    Question 8. Question :

    Compelling indications for an ACE inhibitor as treatment for hypertension based on clinical trials include:

    Pregnancy

    Renal parenchymal disease

    Stable angina

    Dyslipidemia

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 9. Question :

    The American Diabetic Association has recommended which of the following tests for ongoing management of diabetes?

    Fasting blood glucose

    Hemoglobin A1c

    Thyroid function tests

    Electrocardiograms

    Question 10. Question :

    The angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ ADR.

    A

    B

    C

    D

    Question 11. Question :

    The goals of therapy when prescribing HRT include reducing:

    Cardiovascular risk

    Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event

    Breast cancer risk

    Vasomotor symptoms

    Question 12. Question :

    Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

    Nitrates

    Beta blockers

    ACE inhibitors

    Calcium channel blockers

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 13. Question :

    The New York Heart Association and the Canadian Cardiovascular Society have described grading criteria for levels of angina. Angina that occurs with unusually strenuous activity or on walking or climbing stair after meals is:

    Class I

    Class II

    Class III

    Class IV

    Question 14. Question :

    Patients with allergic rhinitis may benefit from a prescription of:

    Fluticasone (Flonase)

    Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    OTC cromolyn nasal spray (Nasalcrom)

    Any of the above

    Question 15. Question :

    Kyle has Crohn’s disease and has a documented folate deficiency. Drug therapy for folate deficiency anemia is:

    Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg/day

    Oral folic acid 1 gm/day

    IM folate weekly for at least six months

    Oral folic acid 400 mcg daily

    Question 16. Question :

    The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

    1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

    2 gm/day of oral cobalamin

    100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM

    500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week

    Question 17. Question :

    Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

    Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect

    Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down

    Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

    Must be taken no more than twice a day

    Question 18. Question :

    Type II diabetes is a complex disorder involving:

    Absence of insulin production by the beta cells

    A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver

    Increased levels of GLP in the postprandial period

    Too much fat uptake in the intestine

    Question 19. Question :

    Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type II diabetes because it:

    Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas

    Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

    Increases the release of insulin from beta cells

    Decreases peripheral glucose utilization

    Question 20. Question :

    Gender differences between men and women in pharmacokinetics include:

    More rapid gastric emptying so that drugs absorbed in the stomach have less exposure to absorption sites

    Higher proportion of body fat so that lipophilic drugs have relatively greater volumes of distribution

    Increased levels of bile acids so that drugs metabolized in the intestine have higher concentrations

    Slower organ blood flow rates so that drugs tend to take longer to be excreted

    Question 21. Question :

    If not chosen as the first drug in hypertension treatment, which drug class should be added as the second step because it will enhance the effects of most other agents?

    ACE inhibitors

    Beta blockers

    Calcium channel blockers

    Diuretics

    Question 22. Question :

    A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

    Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

    Excessive weight gain

    Hypertension

    Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

    Question 23. Question :

    Levetiracetam has known drug interactions with:

    Oral contraceptives

    Carbamazepine

    Warfarin

    Few, if any, drugs

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 24. Question :

    When the total daily insulin dose is split and given twice daily, which of the following rules may be followed?

    Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening.

    Give 0.3 units/kg of premixed 70/30 insulin, with one-third in the morning and two-thirds in the evening.

    Give 50% of an insulin glargine dose in the morning and 50% in the evening.

    Give long-acting insulin in the morning and short-acting insulin at bedtime.

    Question 25. Question :

    Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

    Complexity of the drug regimen

    Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs

    Both A and B

    Neither A nor B

    Question 26. Question :

    The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called:

    Steady state

    Half-life

    Phase II metabolism

    Reduced bioavailability time

    Question 27. Question :

    Drugs that are absolutely contraindicated in lactating women include:

    Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

    Antiepileptic drugs such as carbamazepine

    Antineoplastic drugs such as methotrexate

    All of the above

    Question 28. Question :

    Tobie presents to clinic with moderate acne. He has been using OTC benzoyl peroxide at home with minimal improvement. A topical antibiotic (clindamycin) and a topical retinoid adapalene (Differin) are prescribed. Education of Tobie would include which one of the following instructions?

    He should see an improvement in his acne within the first two weeks of treatment.

    If there is no response in a week, he should double the daily application of adapalene (Differin).

    He may see an initial worsening of his acne that will improve in six to eight weeks.

    Adapalene may cause bleaching of clothing.

    Question 29. Question :

    Martin is a sixty-year-old with hypertension. The first-line decongestant to be prescribed would be:

    Oral pseudoephedrine

    Oral phenylephrine

    Nasal oxymetazoline

    Nasal azelastine

    Question 30. Question :

    A woman who is pregnant and has hyperthyroidism is best managed by a specialty team that will most likely treat her with:

    Methimazole.

    Propylthiouracil.

    Radioactive iodine.

    Nothing; treatment is best delayed until after her pregnancy ends.

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 31. Question :

    A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids.

    A

    C

    E

    G

    Question 32. Question :

    Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

    Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines

    Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

    Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance

    Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol

    Question 33. Question :

    Steady state is:

    The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion

    When the amount of drug in the body remains constant

    When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

    All of the above

    Question 34. Question :

    Jayla is a nine-year-old who has been diagnosed with migraines for almost two years. She is missing up to a week of school each month. Her headache diary confirms she averages four or five migraines per month. Which of the following would be appropriate?

    Prescribe amitriptyline (Elavil) daily, start at a low dose and increase the dose slowly every two weeks until effective in eliminating migraines.

    Encourage her mother to give her Excedrin Migraine (aspirin, acetaminophen, and caffeine) at the first sign of a headache to abort the headache.

    Prescribe propranolol (Inderal) to be taken daily for at least three months.

    Explain that it is rare for a nine-year-old to get migraines and that she needs an MRI to rule out a brain tumor.

    Question 35. Question :

    Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

    Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

    Meclizine (Antivert)

    Promethazine (Phenergan)

    Ondansetron (Zofran)

    Question 36. Question :

    Long-term use of PPIs may lead to:

    Hip fractures in at-risk persons

    Vitamin B6 deficiency

    Liver cancer

    All of the above

    Question 37. Question :

    Many patients self-medicate with antacids. Which patients should be counseled to not take calcium carbonate antacids without discussing with their providers or a pharmacist first?

    Patients with kidney stones

    Pregnant patients

    Patients with heartburn

    IN Postmenopausal women

    0 of 2.5

    Question 38. Question :

    Beta blockers treat hypertension because they:

    Reduce peripheral resistance.

    Vasoconstrict coronary arteries.

    Reduce norepinephrine.

    Reduce angiotensin II production.

    Question 39. Question :

    Precautions that should be taken when prescribing controlled substances include:

    Faxing the prescription for a Schedule II drug directly to the pharmacy

    Using tamper-proof papers for all prescriptions written for controlled drugs

    Keeping any presigned prescription pads in a locked drawer in the clinic

    Using only numbers to indicate the amount of drug to be prescribed

    Question 40. Question :

    The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with:

    Eczema

    Asthma

    Diabetes

    Heart disease

    Question 41. Question :

    An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

    Beta blockers

    Diuretics

    Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

    Angiotensin II receptor blockers

    Question 42. Question :

    Metoclopramide improves GERD symptoms by:

    Reducing acid secretion

    Increasing gastric pH

    Increasing lower esophageal tone

    Decreasing lower esophageal tone

    Question 43. Question :

    Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes:

    Instructions written at the high school reading level

    Discussion of expected ADRs

    How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics

    Verbal instructions always in English

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 44. Question :

    If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

    A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

    Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens

    A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days

    A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days

    Question 45. Question :

    A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

    Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose

    Systemic corticosteroid burst

    Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists

    Leukotriene therapy

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 46. Question :

    Angela is a black woman who has heard that women of African descent do not need to worry about osteoporosis. What education would you provide Angela about her risk?

    She is ; black women do not have much risk of developing osteoporosis due to their dark skin.

    Black women are at risk of developing osteoporosis due to their lower calcium intake as a group.

    If she doesn’t drink alcohol, her risk of developing osteoporosis is low.

    If she has not lost more than 10% of her weight lately, her risk is low.

    Question 47. Question :

    The role of the nurse practitioner in the use of herbal medication is to:

    Maintain competence in the prescribing of common herbal remedies.

    Recommend common OTC herbs to patients.

    Educate patients and guide them to appropriate sources of care.

    Encourage patients to not use herbal therapy due to the documented dangers.

    Question 48. Question :

    Ray has been diagnosed with hypertension, and an ACE inhibitor is determined to be needed. Prior to prescribing this drug, the nurse practitioner should assess for:

    Hypokalemia

    Impotence

    Decreased renal function

    Inability to concentrate

    Question 49. Question :

    Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

    Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions

    Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used

    Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

    Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes

    Question 50. Question :

    Off-Label prescribing is:

    Regulated by the FDA

    Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)

    Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

    Regulated by the DEA

    Question 51. Question :

    Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

    He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

    Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive.

    Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.

    If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.

    Question 52. Question :

    Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out:

    IN Hypothyroidism

    Anemia

    Diabetes mellitus

    Low estrogen levels

    0 of 2.5

    Question 53. Question :

    What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

    Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

    Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion

    Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing

    Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not

    Question 54. Question :

    All diabetic patients with hyperlipidemia should be treated with:

    3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitors

    Fibric acid derivatives

    Nicotinic acid

    Colestipol

    Question 55. Question :

    Treatment failure in patients with PUD associated with H. pylori may be due to:

    Antimicrobial resistance

    Ineffective antacid

    Overuse of PPIs

    All of the above

    Question 56. Question :

    To improve positive outcomes when prescribing for the elderly, the NP should:

    Assess cognitive functioning in the elder

    Encourage the patient to take a weekly “drug holiday” to keep drug costs down

    Encourage the patient to cut drugs in half with a knife to lower costs

    All of the above options are

    Question 57. Question :

    Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

    Mupirocin (Bactroban)

    Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)

    Retapamulin (Altabax)

    Oral cephalexin (Keflex)

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 58. Question :

    Nonselective beta blockers and alcohol create serious drug interactions with insulin because they:

    Increase blood glucose levels.

    Produce unexplained diaphoresis.

    Interfere with the ability of the body to metabolize glucose.

    Mask the signs and symptoms of altered glucose levels.

    Question 59. Question :

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to:

    Immature renal function in school-age children

    Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population

    Children’s skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication

    Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution

    Question 60. Question :

    Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

    Toxic levels of warfarin building up

    Decreased response to warfarin

    Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

    Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

    Question 61. Question :

    Jose is a twelve-year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol level of 180 mg/dL and LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include ____ with a reevaluation in six months.

    statins

    niacin

    sterols

    bile acid-binding resins

    Question 62. Question :

    A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

    Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

    It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.

    The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

    Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.

    Question 63. Question :

    Amber is a twenty-four-year-old who has had migraines for ten years. She reports a migraine on average of once a month. The migraines are effectively aborted with naratriptan (Amerge). When refilling Amber’s naratriptan education would include which of the following?

    Naratriptan will interact with antidepressants, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and St John’s Wort, and she should inform any providers she sees that she has migraines.

    Continue to monitor her headaches; if the migraine is consistently happening around her menses, then there is preventive therapy available.

    Pregnancy is contraindicated when taking a triptan.

    All the given options are correct.

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 64. Question :

    One of the main drug classes used to treat acute pain is NSAIDs. They are used due to which of the following reasons?

    They have less risk for liver damage than acetaminophen.

    Inflammation is a common cause of acute pain.

    They have minimal GI irritation.

    Regulation of blood flow to the kidney is not affected by these drugs.

    Question 65. Question :

    A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

    Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

    Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution

    A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use

    Hypercalcemia

    Question 66. Question :

    Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type II diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels. Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:

    Increase endogenous insulin secretion.

    Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia.

    Address the insulin resistance found in type II diabetics.

    Improve insulin binding to receptors.

    Question 67. Question :

    Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

    inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord

    attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

    blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain

    increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary

    Question 68. Question :

    Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

    serum glucose

    stool culture

    folate levels

    vitamin B12

    Question 69. Question :

    Henry presents to clinic with a significantly swollen, painful great toe and is diagnosed with gout. Of the following, which would be the best treatment for Henry?

    High-dose colchicines

    Low-dose colchicines

    High-dose aspirin

    Acetaminophen with codeine

    Question 70. Question :

    Jaycee has been on escitalopram (Lexapro) for a year and is willing to try tapering off of the selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors. What is the initial dosage adjustment when starting a taper off antidepressants?

    Change the dose to every other day dosing for a week.

    Reduce the dose by 50% for three to four days.

    Reduce the dose by 50% every other day.

    Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life.

    Question 71. Question :

    Christy has exercise and mild persistent asthma and is prescribed two puffs of albuterol fifteen minutes before exercise and as needed for wheezing. One puff per day of beclomethasone (Qvar) is also prescribed. Teaching regarding her inhalers includes which one of the following?

    She should use one to two puffs of albuterol per day to prevent an attack, with no more than eight puffs per day.

    Beclomethasone needs to be used every day to treat her asthma.

    She should report any systemic side effects she is experiencing, such as weight gain.

    She should use the albuterol MDI immediately after her corticosteroid MDI to facilitate bronchodilation.

    Question 72. Question :

    Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by:

    Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting his or her provider

    Doubling inhaled corticosteroid dose

    Increasing the frequency of beta 2 agonists

    Starting montelukast (Singulair)

    Question 73. Question :

    A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

    Estrogen/progesterone combination

    Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)

    Estrogen alone

    Androgens

    Question 74. Question :

    The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is:

    Alendronate (Fosamax)

    Ibandronate (Boniva)

    Calcium carbonate

    Raloxifene (Evista)

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 75. Question :

    Patient education when prescribing the vitamin D3 derivative calcipotriene for psoriasis includes:

    Applying calcipotriene thickly to affected psoriatic areas two to three times a day

    Applying a maximum of 100 grams of calcipotriene per week

    Not using calcipotriene in combination with its topical corticosteroids

    Augmenting calcipotriene with the use of coal-tar products

    Question 76. Question :

    Both ACE inhibitors and some angiotensin-II receptor blockers have been approved in treating:

    Hypertension in diabetic patients

    Diabetic nephropathy

    Both A and B

    Neither A nor B

    Question 77. Question :

    Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

    Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

    Niacin (Niaspan)

    Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)

    Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

    Question 78. Question :

    Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

    “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration

    Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension

    Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

    Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma

    Question 79. Question :

    Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by:

    Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded

    Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient

    Both A and B

    Neither A nor B

    Question 80. Question :

    Which one of the below-given instructions can be followed for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment?

    Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection

    If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle down the infection

    Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials

    None of the above

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 81. Question :

    Sadie is a ninety-year-old patient who requires a new prescription. What changes in drug distribution with aging would influence prescribing for Sadie?

    Increased volume of distribution

    Decreased lipid solubility

    Decreased plasma proteins

    Increased muscle-to-fat ratio

    Question 82. Question :

    First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

    OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

    Oral terbinafine

    Oral griseofulvin microsize

    Nystatin cream or ointment

    Question 83. Question :

    Which of the following is true about procainamide and its dosing schedule?

    It produces bradycardia and should be used cautiously in patients with cardiac conditions that a slower heart rate might worsen.

    GI adverse effects are common, so the drug should be taken with food.

    Adherence can be improved by using a sustained-release formulation that can be given once daily.

    Doses of this drug should be taken evenly spaced around the clock to keep an even blood level.

    Question 84. Question :

    A nurse practitioner would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a six-year-old because:

    Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach.

    A six-year-old may have problems swallowing a pill.

    Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect.

    Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as tablet form.

    Question 85. Question :

    Kristine would like to start HRT to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencing during menopause. Education for a woman considering hormone replacement would include:

    Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used for a short term

    Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT

    Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT

    Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT

    Question 86. Question :

    Xi, a fifty-four-year-old female, has a history of migraine that does not respond well to OTC migraine medication. She is asking to try Maxalt (rizatriptan) because it works well for her friend. Which of the following actions would you take for appropriate decision making?

    Prescribe Maxalt, but to monitor the use, only give her four tablets with no refills.

    Prescribe Maxalt and arrange to have her observed in the clinic or urgent care with the first dose.

    Explain that rizatriptan is not used for postmenopausal migraines and recommend Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital).

    Prescribe sumatriptan (Imitrex) with the explanation that it is the most effective triptan.

    Question 87. Question :

    The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to:

    Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution

    The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group

    The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect

    Age-related decrease in renal function

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 88. Question :

    Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

    Miconazole cream

    Ketoconazole cream

    Oral griseofulvin

    Mupirocin cream

    Question 89. Question :

    GLP-1 agonists:

    Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell.

    Have been approved for monotherapy.

    Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite.

    Can be given orally once daily.

    Question 90. Question :

    Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs?

    Selective estrogen-receptor modulators

    Aspirin

    Glucocorticoids

    Calcium supplements

    Question 91. Question :

    Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

    Increasing calcitonin production

    Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

    Altering calcium metabolism

    Stimulating bone formation

    Question 92. Question :

    Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

    Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

    Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

    Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

    Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

    Question 93. Question :

    Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively:

    Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys

    Increasing calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract

    Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity

    Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

    NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam Question 94. Question :

    When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

    The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months

    Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.

    Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.

    There is no laboratory monitoring required.

    Question 95. Question :

    Patients whose total dose of prednisone exceed 1 gram will most likely need a second prescription for _________.

    metformin, a biguanide to prevent diabetes

    omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor to prevent peptic ulcer disease

    naproxen, an NSAID to treat joint pain

    furosemide, a diuretic to treat fluid retention

    Question 96. Question :

    The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

    Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans

    Annual vitamin D level

    Annual renal function evaluation

    Electrolytes every three months

    Question 97. Question :

    Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

    Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

    Potentiate the effects of the drug.

    Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.

    Increase CNS depression.

    Question 98. Question :

    Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

    Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions

    Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl

    Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions

    Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

    Question 99. Question :

    Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous inject. Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action?

    Insulin lispro

    Insulin glulisine

    Insulin glargine

    Insulin detemir

    Question 100. Cynthia is taking valproate (Depakote) for seizures and would like to get pregnant. What advice would you give her?

    Valproate is safe during all trimesters of pregnancy.

    She can get pregnant while taking valproate, but she should take adequate folic acid.

    Valproate is not safe at any time during pregnancy.

    Valproate is a known teratogen but may be taken after the first trimester if necessary NSG6005 Week 10 Assignment 2 Final Exam.

  • MN553 Quiz

    MN553 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point

    Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:

    Question options:

    A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity

    Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

    Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6

    The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

    Question 2 1 / 1 point

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:

    Question options:

    Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely

    Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when coadministered

    Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure

    Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

    Question 3 1 / 1 point

    Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:

    Question options:

    Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine

    Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine

    Decreased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

    Increased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

    MN553 Quiz Question 4 1 / 1 point

    Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

    Question options:

    Toxic levels of warfarin building up

    Decreased response to warfarin

    Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

    Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

    Question 5 1 / 1 point

    Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the U
    .
    S
    .
     Food and Drug Administration prior to prescribing:

    Question options:

    Erythromycin

    Digoxin

    Cetuximab

    Rifampin

    Question 6 1 / 1 point

    Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:

    Question options:

    Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

    Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

    Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 Allele

    Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

    Question 7 1 / 1 point

    A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:

    Question options:

    Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer

    Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia

    Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38

    Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

    Question 8 1 / 1 point

    A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately ____ % of patients in the United States are using herbal products
    .

    Question options:

    10

    5

    38

    70

    MN553 Quiz Question 9 1 / 1 point

    A potential harmful effect on patients who take some herbal medication is:

    Question options:

    Constipation

    Lead poisoning

    Diarrhea

    Life-threatening rash

    Question 10 1 / 1 point

    A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety
    .
     An example is the use of cinnamon to treat type II diabetes
    .
     It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains:

    Question options:

    Coumadin, which may lead to bleeding problems

    Coumarin, which can cause liver and kidney damage

    Cinnamic aldehyde, which is toxic to the kidney

    Cinnamate eugenol, which is toxic to the liver

    Question 11 1 / 1 point

    Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease
    .
     Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe:

    Question options:

    Herbs which are yang in nature

    Herbs that are yin in nature

    Ginger

    Golden seal

    Question 12 1 / 1 point

    According to traditional Chinese medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient’s illness will:

    Question options:

    Get worse

    Get better

    Not be adequately treated

    Need additional herbs to treat the yang

    Question 13 1 / 1 point

    In Ayurvedic medicine, treatment is based on the patient’s dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person’s:

    Question options:

    Vata

    Pitta

    Kapha

    Prakriti

    Question 14 1 / 1 point

    When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is that the patient:

    Question options:

    Take 10 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

    Take 1 to 5 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

    Not take melatonin more than three nights a week

    Combine melatonin with zolpidem (Ambien) for the greatest impact on sleep

    MN553 Quiz Question 15 1 / 1 point

    In the United States, over-the-counter drugs are regulated by:

    Question options:

    No one
    .
     There is no oversight for over-the-counter medications
    .

    The U
    .
    S
    .
     Food and Drug Administration Center for Drug Evaluation and Research

    The U
    .
    S
    .
     Drug Enforcement Administration

    MedWatch

    Question 16 1 / 1 point

    As drugs near the end of their patent, pharmaceutical companies may apply for the drug to change to over-the-counter status in order to:

    Question options:

    Get a new patent for the over-the-counter form of the drug

    Lower the costs because most prescription benefit plans do not cover generics

    Market the drug to a whole new population, as they are able to market to patients instead of just providers

    Continue to make large profits from their blockbuster brand-name drug

    Question 17 1 / 1 point

    The ailment that generates the greatest over-the-counter annual drug sales is:

    Question options:

    Constipation

    Cough and colds

    Heartburn

    Acute and chronic pain

    Question 18 1 / 1 point

    Common over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen:

    Question options:

    Are always safer for the patient than prescription pain medication

    Are harmful if taken in higher than recommended amounts

    Have minimal interaction with prescription medications

    Should never be given to children unless recommended by their provider

    MN553 Quiz Question 19 1 / 1 point

    When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications
    .
     He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare ups
    .
     This is an example of:

    Question options:

    His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications

    His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you

    A common misconception that intermittently taken over-the counter medications are not an important part of his drug history

    A common misuse of over-the-counter aspirin

    Question 20 1 / 1 point

    Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription
    .
     You explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must:

    Question options:

    Be safe and labeled for appropriate use

    Have a low potential for abuse or misuse

    Be taken for a condition the patient can reliably self-diagnose

    All of the above MN553 Quiz