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  • Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005

    Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005

    An ACE inhibitor and what other class of drug may reduce proteinuria in patients with diabetes better than either drug alone?

    A. Beta blockers

    B. Diuretics

    C. Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

    D. Angiotensin II receptor blockers

    Nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers

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    Adam has type I diabetes and plays tennis for his university. He exhibits knowledge deficit about his insulin and his diagnosis. He should be taught that:

    A. He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

    B. Each brand of insulin is equal in bioavailability, so buy the least expensive. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    C. Alcohol produces hypoglycemia and can help control his diabetes when taken in small amounts.

    D. If he does not want to learn to give himself injections, he may substitute an oral hypoglycemic to control his diabetes.

    He should increase his increase his carbohydrate intake during times of exercise intake during times of exercise.

     

    Age is a factor in different responses to pain. Which of the following age-related statements about pain is not true?

    A. Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

    B. Painful experiences and prolonged exposure to analgesic drugs during pregnancy may permanently alter neuronal organization in the child.

    C. Increases in pain threshold in older adults may be related to peripheral neuropathies and changes in skin thickness.

    D. Decreases in pain tolerance are evident in older adults. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    Preterm and newborn infants do not yet have functional pain pathways.

     

    Alterations in drug metabolism among Asians may lead to:

    A. Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

    B. Faster metabolism of neuroleptics, requiring higher doses

    C. Altered metabolism of omeprazole, requiring higher doses

    D. Slower metabolism of alcohol, requiring higher doses

    Slower metabolism of antidepressants, requiring lower doses

     

    Amiodarone has been prescribed in a patient with a supraventricular dysrhythmia. Patient teaching should include all of the following except:

    A. Notify your healthcare provider immediately if you have visual change.

    B. Monitor your own blood pressure and pulse daily.

    C. Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

    D. Use a sunscreen on exposed body surfaces.

    Take a hot shower or bath if you feel dizzy.

     

     

     

    Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:

    A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

    B. Potentiate the effects of the drug.

    C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur.

    D. Increase CNS depression.

    Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia.

     

    An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:

    A. Alprazolam (Xanax)

    B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)

    C. Buspirone (Buspar)

    D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

    Escitalopram (Lexapro)

     

    Cara is taking levetiracetam (Keppra) to treat seizures. Routine education for levetiracetam includes reminding her: Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizures

    B. To wear a sunscreen due to photosensitivity from levetiracetam

    C. To get an annual eye exam while on levetiracetam

    D. To report weight loss if it occurs

    To not abruptly discontinue levetiracetam due to the risk of withdrawal seizure

     

    Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:

    A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

    B. Paroxetine (Paxil)

    C. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

    D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

    Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

     

    Chemical dependency assessment is integral to the initial assessment of chronic pain. Which of the following raises a “red flag” about potential chemical dependency?

    A. Use of more than one drug to treat the pain

    B. Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

    C. Preferences for treatments that include alternative medicines

    D. Presence of a family member who has abused drugs

    Multiple times when prescriptions are lost with requests to refill

     

    Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:

    A. Switching medications after an eight-week trial to a twelve-week trial

    B. Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications

    C. Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication

    D. Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

    Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005

    Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

     

    David presents to clinic with symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis. He is prescribed cromolyn sodium (Opticrom) eyedrops. The education regarding using cromolyn eyedrops includes which one of the following tips? Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

    B. Cromolyn drops are instilled once a day to prevent allergy symptoms.

    C. Long-term use of the eyedrop may cause glaucoma.

    D. He may experience bradycardia as an adverse effect.

    He should not wear his soft contacts while using the cromolyn eyedrops.

     

    The DEA:

    A. Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

    B. Regulates NP prescribing at the state level

    C. Sanctions providers who prescribe drugs off-label

    D. Provides prescribers with a number they can use for insurance billing

    Registers manufacturers and prescribes controlled substances

     

    Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:

    A. Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions

    B. Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl

    C. Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions

    D. Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

    Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

     

    Disease states in addition to hypertension in which beta blockade is a compelling indication for the use of beta blockers include:

    A. Heart failure

    B. Angina

    C. MI

    D. Dyslipidemia

    MI

     

    The drug of choice for type II diabetics is metformin. Metformin:

    A. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

    B. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells

    C. Increases intestinal uptake of glucose

    D. Prevents weight gain associated with hyperglycemia

    Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver

     

    Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005

     

    The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in men over seventy years is:

    A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

    B. Ibandronate (Boniva)

    C. Calcium carbonate

    D. Raloxifene (Evista)

    Alendronate (Fosamax)

     

     

    The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over seventy years old is: Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. Alendronate (Fosamax)

    B. Ibandronate (Boniva)

    C. Calcium carbonate

    D. Raloxifene (Evista)

    Alendronate (Fosamax)

     

    The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:

    A. Metformin and insulin

    B. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine

    C. Split-mixed dose insulin and GLP-1 agonists

    D. Biguanides and insulin lispro

    Metformin and insulin

     

    Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:

    A. Must be given by the enteral (oral) route only

    B. Bypass the hepatic circulation

    C. Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

    D. Are converted by the liver to more active and fat-soluble forms

    Are rapidly metabolized by the liver and may have little if any desired action

     

    Dwayne has classic tinea capitis. Treatment for tinea on the scalp is:

    A. Rubbing in miconazole cream well for four weeks

    B. Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

    C. Shampooing with ketoconazole shampoo daily for six weeks

    D. Using ciclopirox cream daily for four weeks

    Intake of oral griseofulvin for six to eight weeks

     

    Dwayne was recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you, and you note that while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. The possible cause for the low carbamazepine levels is:

    A. Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.

    B. Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

    C. Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.

    D. Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

     

    Erik presents with a golden-crusted lesion at the site of an insect bite consistent with impetigo. His parents have limited finances and request the least expensive treatment. Which medication would be the best choice for treatment?

    A. Mupirocin (Bactroban)

    B. Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)

    C. Retapamulin (Altabax)

    D. Oral cephalexin (Keflex)

    Bacitracin and polymixin B (generic double antibiotic ointment)

    First-line therapy for hyperlipidemia is:

    A. Statins

    B. Niacin

    C. Lifestyle changes

    D. Bile acid-binding resins

    Lifestyle changes

     

    First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:

    A. OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

    B. Oral terbinafine

    C. Oral griseofulvin microsize

    D. Nystatin cream or ointment

    OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

     

    Furosemide is added to a treatment regimen for heart failure, which includes digoxin. Monitoring for this combination includes:

    A. Hemoglobin

    B. Serum potassium

    C. Blood urea nitrogen

    D. Serum glucose

    Serum potassium

     

    Genetic polymorphisms account for differences in metabolism, including:

    A. Poor metabolizers (PMs) that lack a working enzyme

    B. Intermediate metabolizers (IMs) that have one working, wild-type allele and one mutant allele

    C. Extensive metabolizers (EMs), with two normally functioning alleles

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

    Genetic testing for VCORC1 mutation to assess potential warfarin resistance is required prior to prescribing warfarin.

    A. True

    B. False

    False

     

    Goals of treatment when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:

    A. Normal TSH and free T4 levels

    B. Resolution of fatigue

    C. Weight loss to baseline

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

     

     

    Heart failure is a chronic condition that can be adequately managed in primary care. However, consultation with or referral to a cardiologist is appropriate when:

    A. Symptoms markedly worsen or the patient becomes hypotensive and has syncope.

    B. There is evidence of progressive renal insufficiency or failure.

    C. The patient remains symptomatic on optimal doses of an ACE inhibitor, a beta blocker, and a diuretic.

    D. All the above options are correct. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    All the above options are correct.

     

    Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

    A. “Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration

    B. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension

    C. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

    D. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma

    Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia

     

    If a patient with H. pylori positive PUD fails first-line therapy, the second-line treatment is:

    A. A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

    B. Testing H. pylori for resistance to common treatment regimens

    C. A PPI plus clarithromycin plus amoxicillin for fourteen days

    D. A PPI and levofloxacin for fourteen days

    A PPI BID plus metronidazole plus tetracycline plus bismuth subsalicylate for fourteen days

     

    In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescription for:

    A calcium channel blocker

    B. A beta blocker

    C. Liothyronine

    D. An alpha blocker

    A beta blocker

     

    Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:

    A. Increasing calcitonin production

    B. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

    C. Altering calcium metabolism

    D. Stimulating bone formation

    Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine

     

    Incorporating IT into a patient encounter takes skill and tact. During the encounter, the provider can make the patient more comfortable with the IT the provider is using by: Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. Turning the screen around so the patient can see material being recorded

    B. Not placing the computer screen between the provider and the patient

    C. Both A and B

    D. Neither A nor B

    Both A and B

     

    Infants with reflux are initially treated with:

    A. Histamine 2 receptor antagonist (ranitidine)

    B. A PPI (omeprazole)

    C. Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

    D. Prokinetic (metoclopramide)

    Antireflux maneuvers (elevate the head of the bed)

     

    In five- to eleven-year-old children, mild-persistent asthma is diagnosed when asthma symptoms occur:

    A. At nighttime one to two times a month

    B. At nighttime three to four times a month

    C. Less than twice a week

    D. Daily

    At nighttime three to four times a month

     

    Jack, eight years old, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:

    A. Slurred speech and insomnia

    B. Bradycardia and confusion

    C. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension

    D. Insomnia and decreased appetite

    Insomnia and decreased appetite

     

    Janie presents to clinic with hard ear wax in both ear canals. Instructions regarding home removal of hard cerumen includes:

    A. Moistening a cotton swab (Q-tip) and swabbing the ear canals twice daily

    B. Instilling tap water in both ears while bathing

    C. Squirting hydrogen peroxide into ears with each bath

    D. Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

    Instilling carbamide peroxide (Debrox) twice daily until the ear canals are clear

     

    Jim presents with complaints of “heart burn” that is minimally relieved with Tums (calcium carbonate) and is diagnosed with GERD. An appropriate first step therapy would be:

    A. Omeprazole (Prilosec) twice a day

    B. Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

    C. Famotidine (Pepcid) once a day

    D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) four times a day

    Ranitidine (Zantac) twice a day

     

    Jim presents with fungal infection of two of his toenails (onychomycosis). Treatment for fungal infections of the nail includes:

    A. Miconazole cream

    B. Ketoconazole cream

    C. Oral griseofulvin

    D. Mupirocin cream

    Oral griseofulvin

    Josie is a five-year-old who presents to the clinic with a forty-eight-hour history of nausea, vomiting, and some diarrhea. She is unable to keep fluids down, and her weight is 4 pounds less than her last recorded weight. Besides intravenous (IV) fluids, her exam warrants the use of an antinausea medication. Which of the following would be the appropriate drug to order for Josie?

    A. Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

    B. Meclizine (Antivert)

    C. Promethazine (Phenergan)

    D. Ondansetron (Zofran)

    Ondansetron (Zofran)

     

    Kirk sprained his ankle and is asking for pain medication for his mild-to-moderate pain. The appropriate first-line medication would be __________.

    ibuprofen (Advil)

    B. acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)

    C. oxycodone (OxyContin)

    D. oral morphine (Roxanol)

    ibuprofen (Advil)

     

    Liza is breastfeeding her two-month-old son, and she has an infection that requires an antibiotic. What drug factors influence the effect of the drug on the infant? Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. Maternal drug levels

    B. Half-life

    C. Lipid solubility

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

    Long-acting beta-agonists received a black box warning from the US Food and Drug Administration due to the:

    A. Risk of life-threatening dermatological reactions

    B. Increased incidence of cardiac events when long-acting beta-agonists are used

    C. Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

    D. Risk for life-threatening alterations in electrolytes

    Increased risk of asthma-related deaths when long-acting beta-agonists are used

     

    Long-term treatment of moderate atopic dermatitis includes:

    A. Topical corticosteroids and emollients

    B. Topical corticosteroids alone

    C. Topical antipruritics

    D. Oral corticosteroids for exacerbations of atopic dermatitis

    Topical corticosteroids and emollients

     

    Medications used in the management of patients with COPD include:

    A. Inhaled beta 2 agonists

    B. Inhaled anticholinergics (ipratropium)

    C. Inhaled corticosteroids

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

    Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for ADHD includes:

    A. ADHD symptoms

    B. Routine height and weight checks

    C. Amount of methylphenidate being used

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

    Narcotics are exogenous opiates. They act by ______.

    A. inhibiting pain transmission in the spinal cord

    B. attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

    C. blocking neurotransmitters in the midbrain

    D. increasing beta-lipoprotein excretion from the pituitary

    attaching to receptors in the afferent neuron to inhibit the release of substance P

     

    A nineteen-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:

    A. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

    B. Excessive weight gain

    C. Hypertension

    D. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

    Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation

     

    Nonadherence is especially common in drugs that treat asymptomatic conditions, such as hypertension. One way to reduce the likelihood of nonadherence to these drugs is to prescribe a drug that:

    A. Has a short half-life so that missing one dose has limited effect

    B. Requires several dosage titrations so that missed doses can be replaced with lower doses to keep costs down

    C. Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness

    D. Must be taken no more than twice a day

    Has a tolerability profile with less of the adverse effects that are considered “irritating,” such as nausea and dizziness. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

     

    Off-Label prescribing is:

    A. Regulated by the FDA

    B. Illegal by NPs in all states (provinces)

    C. Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

    D. Regulated by the DEA

    Legal if there is scientific evidence for the use

     

    One goal of asthma management in children is:

    A. They should independently manage their asthma.

    B. They should participate in school and sports activities.

    C. There should be no exacerbations.

    D. The use of inhaled corticosteroids should be minimal.

    They should participate in school and sports activities.

     

    The ongoing monitoring of patients over the age sixty-five years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:

    A. Annual dual energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans

    B. Annual vitamin D level

    C. Annual renal function evaluation

    D. Electrolytes every three month

    Annual renal function evaluation

     

    A patient has been prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) cream to treat burns on his or her leg. Normal adverse effects of silver sulfadiazine cream include:

    Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

    B. Worsening of burn symptoms briefly before resolution

    C. A red, scaly rash that will resolve with continued use

    D. Hypercalcemia

    Transient leukopenia on days two to four that should resolve

     

    Patients who are on or who will be starting chronic corticosteroid therapy need monitoring of __________.

    A. serum glucose

    B. stool culture

    C. folate levels

    D. vitamin B12

    serum glucose

     

    Patients who have angina, regardless of class, who are also diabetic should be on:

    Nitrates

    B. Beta blockers

    C. ACE inhibitors

    D. Calcium channel blockers

    ACE inhibitors

     

    Patients with psychiatric illnesses have adherence rates to their drug regimen between 35% and 60%. To improve adherence in this population, prescribe drugs: Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

    B. In oral formulations that are more easily taken

    C. That do not require frequent monitoring

    D. Combined with patient education about the need to adhere even when symptoms are absent

    With a longer half-life so that missed doses produce a longer taper on the drug curve

     

    A patient with a COPD exacerbation may require:

    A. Doubling of inhaled corticosteroid dose

    B. Systemic corticosteroid burst

    C. Continuous inhaled beta 2 agonists

    D. Leukotriene therapy

    Systemic corticosteroid burst

     

    Pharmacokinetics among Asians are universal to all the Asian ethnic groups.

    True

    B. False

    False

     

    A potentially life-threatening adverse response to ACE inhibitors is angioedema. Which of the following statements is true about this adverse response?

    A. Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

    B. It appears to be related to a decrease in aldosterone production.

    C. The presence of a dry, hacky cough indicates a high risk for this adverse response.

    D. Because it takes time to build up a blood level, it occurs after being on the drug for about one week.

    Swelling of the tongue and hoarseness are the most common symptoms.

     

    Prescribing for women during their childbearing years requires constant awareness of the possibility of:

    Pregnancy unless the women is on birth control

    B. Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

    C. High risk for developmental disorders in their infants

    D. Decreased risk for abuse during this time

    Risk for silent bacterial or viral infections of the genitalia

     

    Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:

    A. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

    B. Try the patient on insulin.

    C. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake.

    D. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions.

    Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function.

     

    Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:

    A. Are breastfeeding

    B. Have a history of migraine

    C. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen

    D. All of the above

    All of the above

     

    Sadie is a seventy-two-year-old who takes omeprazole for her chronic GERD. Chronic long-term omeprazole use places her at increased risk for:

    A Megaloblastic anemia

    B. Osteoporosis

    C. Hypertension

    D. Strokes

    Osteoporosis

     

     

    Sarah, a forty-two-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include understanding that:

    A. Obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine.

    B. Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

    C. Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension.

    D. Renal function should be monitored closely while the patient is on anorexiants.

    Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for six months.

     

    Scott is presenting for follow-up on his lipid panel. He had elevated total cholesterol, elevated triglycerides, and an LDL of 122 mg/dL. He has already implemented diet changes and increased physical activity. He has mildly elevated liver studies. An appropriate next step for therapy would be:

    A. Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

    B. Niacin (Niaspan)

    C. Simvastatin and ezetimibe (Vytorin)

    D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

    Niacin (Niaspan)

     

    Second-generation antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are prescribed for seasonal allergies because they:

    A. Are more effective than first-generation antihistamines

    B. Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

    C. Are prescription products and, therefore, are covered by insurance

    D. Can be taken with CNS sedatives, such as alcohol

    Are less sedating than first-generation antihistamines

     

    Severe contact dermatitis caused by poison ivy or poison oak exposure often requires treatment with:

    A. Topical antipruritics

    B. Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

    C. Thickly applied topical intermediate-dose corticosteroids

    D. Isolation of the patient to prevent spread of the dermatitis

    Oral corticosteroids for two to three weeks

     

    Sitagliptin has been approved for:

    A. Monotherapy in once-daily doses

    B. Combination therapy with metformin

    C. Both A and B

    D. Neither A nor B

    Both A and B

     

    A sixty-six-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The nurse practitioner managing his primary healthcare needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):

    A. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex).

    B. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce.

    C. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating, etc.) require immediate treatment.

    D. All the above options are correct.

    All the above options are correct.

     

    Six-year-old Lucy has recently been started on ethosuximide (Zarontin) for seizures. She should be monitored for:

    A. Increased seizure activity as this drug may auto-induce seizures

    B. Altered renal function, including renal failure

    C. Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

    D. CNS excitement, leading to insomnia

    Blood dyscrasias, which are uncommon but possible

     

    Stage C patients usually require a combination of three to four drugs to manage their heart failure. In addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers, diuretics may be added. Which of the following statements about diuretics is not true? Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. Diuretics reduce preload associated with fluid retention.

    B. Diuretics can be used earlier than Stage C when the goal is control of hypertension.

    C. Diuretics may produce problems with electrolyte imbalances and abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism.

    D. Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

    Diuretics from the potassium-sparing class should be used when using an ARB.

     

    A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma:

    A. Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

    B. Is used when the asthma is severe and requires daily steroids

    C. Allows for each provider to determine his or her personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients

    D. Provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics but is not as helpful when patients have intermittent asthma

    Begins with determining the severity of the asthma and assessing asthma control

     

    Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the hemoglobin A1c to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:

    A. Those with long-standing diabetes

    B. Older adults

    C. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

    D. Young children who are early in their disease

    Those with no significant cardiovascular disease

     

    Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) is an inhaled anticholinergic:

    A. Used for the treatment of COPD

    B. Used in the treatment of asthma

    C. Combined with albuterol for the treatment of asthma exacerbations

    D. Combined with fluticasone for the treatment of persistent asthma

    Used for the treatment of COPD

     
     

    To reduce mortality, all patients with angina, regardless of class, should be on:

    A. Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

    B. Nitroglycerin sublingually for chest pain

    C. ACE inhibitors or ARBs

    D. Digoxin

    Aspirin 81 to 325 mg/d

     

    The treatment for vitamin B12 deficiency is:

    A. 1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

    B. 2 gm/day of oral cobalamin

    C. 100 mcg/day vitamin B12 IM

    D. 500 mcg/dose nasal cyanocobalamin two sprays once a week

    1,000 mcg daily of oral cobalamin

     

    Treatment of a patient with hypothyroidism and cardiovascular disease consists of:

    A. Levothyroxine

    B. Liothyronine

    C. Liotrix

    D. Methimazole

    Levothyroxine

     

    The trial period to determine effective anti-inflammatory activity when starting a patient on aspirin for RA is _____.

    A. forty-eight hours

    B. four to six days

    C. four weeks

    D. two months

    four to six days

     

    A twenty-four-year-old male received multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident that required significant amounts of opioid medication to treat his pain. He is at risk for Type __ ADR when he no longer requires the opioids. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. A

    B. C

    C. E

    D. G

    E

     

    The type of ADR that is the result of an unwanted but otherwise normal pharmacological action of a drug given in the usual therapeutic doses is:

    A. Type A

    B. Type B

    C. Type C

    D. Type D

    Type A

    Unlike most type II diabetics where obesity is a major issue, older adults with low body weight have higher risks for morbidity and mortality. The most reliable indicator of poor nutritional status in older adults is:

    A. Weight loss in previously overweight persons

    B. Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

    C. Decline in lean body mass over a twelve-month period

    D. Increase in central versus peripheral body adiposity

    Involuntary loss of 10% of body weight in less than six months

     

    Vicky, age fifty-six years, comes to clinic requesting a refill of her Fiorinal (aspirin and butalbital) that she takes for migraines. She has been taking this medication for over two years for migraine and states one dose usually works to abort her migraine. What is the best care for her?

    A. Switch her to sumatriptan (Imitrex) to treat her migraines.

    B. Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

    C. Switch her to a beta-blocker such as propranolol to prevent her migraine.

    D. Request her to return to the original prescriber of Fiorinal as you do not prescribe butalbital for migraines

    Assess how often she is using Fiorinal and refill medication.

     

    Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

    A. Toxic levels of warfarin building up

    B. Decreased response to warfarin

    C. Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

    D. Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

    Decreased response to warfarin

     

    What impact does developmental variation in renal function has on prescribing for infants and children?

    A. Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

    B. Higher doses of water-soluble drugs may need to be prescribed due to increased renal excretion

    C. Renal excretion rates have no impact on prescribing

    D. Parents need to be instructed on whether drugs are renally excreted or not

    Lower doses of renally excreted drugs may be prescribed to infants younger than six months

     

    When a patient is on selective-serotonin reuptake inhibitors:

    A. The complete blood count must be monitored every three to four months

    B. Therapeutic blood levels must be monitored every six months after a steady state is achieved.

    C. Blood glucose must be monitored every three to four months.

    D. There is no laboratory monitoring required.

    There is no laboratory monitoring required.

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

     

    When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare-ups. This is an example of:

    A. His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications

    B. His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you

    C. A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

    D. A common misuse of OTC aspirin

    A common misconception that intermittently taken OTC medications are not an important part of his drug history

     

    When prescribing any headache therapy, appropriate use of medications needs to be discussed to prevent medication-overuse headaches. The clinical characteristics of medication-overuse headaches include ________.

    A. headaches increasing in frequency

    B. headaches increasing in intensity

    C. headaches recurring when medication wears off

    D. headaches beginning to “cluster” into a pattern

    headaches recurring when medication wears off

     

    When Sam used clotrimazole (Lotrimin AF) for athlete’s foot, he developed a red, itchy rash consistent with a hypersensitivity reaction. He now has athlete’s foot again. What would be a good choice of antifungal for Sam? Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    A. Miconazole (Micatin) powder

    B. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) cream

    C. Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

    D. Griseofulvin (Grifulvin V) suspension

    Terbinafine (Lamisil) cream

     

    When starting a patient with hypothyroidism on thyroid replacement hormones, patient education would include the following:

    A. He or she should feel symptomatic improvement in one to two weeks.

    B. Drug-related adverse effects such as lethargy and dry skin may occur.

    C. It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

    D. Due to the short half-life of levothyroxine, its doses should not be missed.

    It may take four to eight weeks to get to euthyroid symptomatically and by lab testing.

     

    Which of the following adverse effects may occur due to a dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocker?

    A. Bradycardia

    B. Hepatic impairment

    C. Increased contractility

    D. Edema of the hands and feet

    Edema of the hands and feet

     

     

    Which of the following classes of drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

    A. Nitrates

    B. Long-acting dihydropyridines

    C. Calcium channel blockers

    D. Alpha-beta blockers

    Calcium channel blocker

     

    Which of the following disease processes could be made worse by taking a nonselective beta blocker?

    Asthma might worsen.

    B. Diabetes might worsen.

    C. Both might worsen.

    D. Beta blockade does not affect these disorders.

    Both might worsen.

     

    Which of the following factors may adversely affect a patient’s adherence to a therapeutic drug regimen?

    A. Complexity of the drug regimen

    B. Patient’s perception of the potential adverse effects of the drugs

    C. Both A and B

    D. Neither A nor B

    Both A and B

     

    Which of the following is the goal of treatment of acute pain?

    A. Pain at a tolerable level where patient may return to activities of daily living

    B. Reduction of pain with a minimum of drug adverse effects

    C. Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

    D. Adequate pain relief without constipation or nausea from the drugs

    Reduction or elimination of pain with minimum adverse reactions

     

    Which of the following is the mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevent pregnancy?

    A. Estrogen prevents the LH surge necessary for ovulation.

    B. Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

    C. Estrogen thins the endometrium, making implantation difficult.

    D. Progestin suppresses FSH release.

    Progestins thicken cervical mucous and slow tubal motility.

     

    Which of the following statements is true about age and pain?

    A. Use of drugs that depend heavily on the renal system for excretion may require dosage adjustments in very young children.

    B. Among the NSAIDs, indomethacin is the preferred drug because of lower adverse effects profiles than other NSAIDs.

    C. Older adults who have dementia probably do not experience much pain due to loss of pain receptors in the brain.

    D. Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs. Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

    Acetaminophen is especially useful in both children and adults because it has no effect on platelets and has fewer adverse effects than NSAIDs.

     

    A woman who has migraine with aura:

    A. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to the interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices

    B. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen

    C. Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

    D. May be prescribed estrogen without any concerns

    Should not be prescribed estrogen due to an increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use

     

    A woman with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:

    A. Estrogen/progesterone combination

    B. Intramuscular (IM) medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)

    C. Estrogen alone

    D. Androgens

    …Pharmacology Final exam quizlet – NSG 6005.

  • NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide

    NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide

    NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm—Study Guide

    There will be 75 questions on the Midterm.  Most will be multiple choice.  There are a couple True/False and 5 matching questions.  I suggest you review your PowerPoints and Textbook Assignments.  I hope this study guide is helpful

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Make sure you know the following topics very well. 

    When a medication is listed below, make sure you know all about it and how to apply it to different patient situations: What disease process it is used for?,  how does it work?, when should it not be used?, adverse effects, pros/cons, interactions, patient education factors (should it be taken w/ food? At bedtime?), tapering, preliminary and post treatment labs, black box warnings/CI, etc. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    If a disease process is mentioned below—know how to diagnose and recommended treatment guidelines.

     

    General principles of pharmacokinetics and dynamics?

     

    PHARMACOKINETICS-  What the body does to the drug”

    Absorption
    –Entry of drug to the blood stream. Usually depends on passive diffusion of drug through cell membranes.

    Absorption depends on: blood flow at site, drugs lipid soluability (> lipic, > soluabililty that directly penetrate the memebrane), local PH and drug ionization (non-ionized absorb better), pharmaceutical processing (coatings and additives.

    Blood brain barrier: allow lipid soluable only. May pump out any drug that it sees as foreign, hard to treat CNS infections.

    Placenta: allows lipid drugs so does not protect from lipid soluable drugs, which is why pregnant women are limited to drugs. Know gestation age. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    Distribution

    : fat ratio changes may alter distribution, especially a people age.

    Fat soluable drugs may be accumulated: weight loss will release these drugs.

    Water soluable drugs are affected by dehydration

    Biotransformation (Metabolism)
    : Drugs become more hydrophilic (water soluable) for excretion.

    Also referred to as the P450 system or cytochrome P450 system. (a group of enzymes in the liver identified for their ability to breakdown drugs.)

    Hepatic “First Pass Effect” (parenteral (IV or IM) meds bypass this enzymatic effect)

    breaks PO meds down to some degree, some are protected with coating but they don’t always work

    Metabolites

    Usually less active, less toxic, easier

    to excrete

    Prodrugs – inactive in form given but metabolized to active drug (ex: enalapril)

    Liver function determined by liver enzymes. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Failing liver produces fewer enzymes, drugs available longer: caution

    Excretion:
    Process by which medications are eliminated from the body unchanged or as metabolites

    Kidneys are main organ of excretion

    If poor renal function, drug may accumulate, may

    wish to prescribe less of drug

    Also eliminated via respiration, breast milk, defecation. Tears, sweat, saliva not as significant.

    START LOW AND GO SLOW!!!!

    PHARMOCODYNAMICS- “effect of drug on the body”

    Receptors:
    Drugs must bind to for effect o Help a process happen:
    agonist

    o Block a process from happening:
    antagonist
    o Know that:

    All drugs have an effect

    A drug’s ability to cause a response is 
called its
    efficacy

    If you give a bigger dose you will get a bigger effect up to a point, most drugs have a
    ceiling
    .

     

    2)
    CRITERIA FOR CHOOSING AND EFFECTIVE DRUG?

    )
    Effectiveness:
    elicits responses for which it is given – most important

    Safety:
    Cannot produce harmful effects even at very high dosages and for long time

    oNo such thing as completely safe drug

    Selectivity:
    Only elicits response for which it is given, no side effects

    No such thing as a selective drug, all have ADRs

    Reversible action:
    most drugs should be reversible. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Predictability:
    Know with certainty exactly how individual patient will respond – impossible, must individualize

    Ease of administration:
    simple, convenient route – enhances compliance and decreases errors

    Freedom from drug interactions:
    few drugs are without drug interaction

    Low cost:
    easy to afford; significant factor in adherence, esp. with elderly

    Chemical stability:
    drugs ability to be stored for long time without loss of effectiveness – variable between drugs

    Possession of simple generic name:
    easier to remember and less confusion amongst drugs

     

    3
    ) SYNERGISTIC EFFECT:
    When two or more drugs are given

    together they can react with each other: An effect arising between two or more agents, entities, factors, or substances that produces an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects. It is opposite of antagonism.

     

    o
    Can be positive
    (synergistic) • Morphine and Motrin

    o
    Can be negative
    (compete with each other) • Asa and Coumadin

     

    4) Therapeutic drug levels: (not sure if this is correct)

    Minimal Effective Concentration (MEC)
    – plasma drug level below which therapeutic effects will not occur.

    Therapeutic Index or Range
    – margin of safety

    The wider or bigger it is, the safer the drug. o Example 1: Drug A: normal dose is 1 mg, toxic dose is 10 mg

    Acetaminophen’s therapeutic range is 30 times the MEC

    o Example 2: Drug B: normal dose is 9 mg, toxic dose is 10 mg o Lithium’s therapeutic range is 3 times the MEC.

    5) WHAT IS MEANT BY A SIGNIFICANT FIRST-PASS EFFECT?

    Metabolism is the process of changing one chemical into another.  The liver is a major organ for drug metabolism because it contains high amounts of drug-metabolizing enzymes and because it is the first organ encountered by drugs once they are absorbed from the GI tract. Metabolism by the liver following oral administration is called
    FIRST-PASS METABOLISM
    and is important in determining whether a drug can be orally administered. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    6
    ) HOW DO YOU KNOW HOW OFTEN TO PRESCRIBE A MEDICATION-1/2 LIFE OF MEDICATIONS
    .

    Half-life- amount of time it takes to reduce the plasma concentration by 50%.

    In pharmacokinetics, steady state refers to the situation where the overall intake of a drug is fairly in dynamic equilibrium with its elimination. In practice, it is generally considered that
    steady state
    is reached when a time of 4 to 5 the half-life for a drug after regular dosing has started.

    7) AGONISTS VERSUS ANTAGONISTS:

                AGONISTS: 
    Drugs that produces a physiological response when combined with a receptor.

    ANTAGONISTS
    :  a substance or drug that interferes with or inhibits the physiological action of another.

    8) SUSTAINED RELEASE MEDICATION CONSIDERATIONS-
    implies slow release over time. It is defined as the type of dosage in which a portion of the drug is released immediately, and then the remaining/maintenance dose) is then released slowly by achieving a therapeutic level which is prolonged. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    9) SUBLINGUAL MEDICATION ADVANTAGES.

    Sublingual medication administration (under the tongue) and buccal (between the cheek and gum) allow drugs to have a more rapid onset of action and to avoid liver metabolism as they enter the blood stream.

    Nitroglycerin given under the tongue can act within minutes to treat an angina attack.

    10) FIRST STEP IN THE PRESCRIBING PROCESS ACCORDING TO WHO?

    The first step in the prescribing process is an accurate diagnosis and a determination of a therapeutic objective. (page 29)

    WHO SIX-STEP MODEL OF RATIONAL PRESCRIBING:

               
    STEP 1: DEFINE THE PATIENTS PROBLEM

    STEP 2: SPECIFY THE THERAPEUTIC OBJECTIVE

    STEP 3: CHOOSE THE TREATMENT

    STEP 4: START THE TREATMENT

    STEP 5: EDUCATE THE PATIENT

    STEP 6: MONITOR EFFECTIVENESS

    11) THERAPEUTIC GOALS OF PRESCRIBING: 

               
    Before deciding what medication to prescribe, it is important to clarify the therapeutic objective.

    Is this goal to cure the disease

    Relieve symptoms of the disease

    Long term prevention

    Is the goal treating the combination of 2 outcomes (pain and inflammation)

    Palliative therapy

    The provider should clarify whether the treatment goals are curative, symptom relieving or preventative.

    Include patient in this stage as a partner of treatment. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    12.) Patients at risk for adverse drug reactions. (page 55)

    Genetic abnormalities

    Age

    Sex

    Polypharmacy

    Concomitant medical conditons

    Children- are at higher risk primarily because medication dosages must be tailored to their body weight, immature organ function.

    Elderly- polypharmacy, decreased renal and hepatic function

    13) FACTORS AFFECTING PATIENTS ADHERANCE TO A DRUG REGIMEN:

    Highest risk is those patients with asymptomatic condition, chronic conditions. Cognitive impairment, psychiatric illness or disorders with significant lifestyle changes (smoker), and those with complex multiple daily dosing.

    Adherance implies a voluntary act of negotiation and joint acceptance of a treatment regimen.

    Patients harbor strong concerns about the need for their medication and the risk for taking it. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Limited access to health care

    Restricted formularies

    High drug costs and co-payments

    14) HOW DOES FOOD IN DIGESTIVE TRACT AFFECT ABSORPTION?

    a) the presence of food in the GI tract can influence the rate and extent of absorption

    b) alteration of PH- food tends to increase stomach PH by acting as a buffer.

    c) gastric emptying –fats and some drugs tend to reduce gastric emptying and delay onset of action of drugs.

    d) stimulation of GI secretions- GI secretions produced in response to food may result in degredation of drugs that are susceptible to enzymatic metabolism, reducing bioavailablity. Secretions may also increase bioavailability. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    e) fats stimulate bile secretion- bile salts dissolute poorly soluable drugs.

    f) food induced changes in blood flow- blood flow to the GIT and liver increases blood flow after a meal. The faster the rate of drug presentation to the liver: the larger the fraction of the drug that escapes first-pass metabolism.

    g)competition of food components and drugs: possibility of competitive inhibition of drug absorption, especially with drugs who have similar chemical structure of nutrients.

    15) RECOMMENDATIONS REGARDING FIBER AND CV HEALTH.

    A) Dietary fiber may lower cholesterol

    b) provide feeling of fullness, thus causing weight loss.

    c) increased soluable fiber intake has been associated with better glucose and improve blood lipid panels.

    16) TETROGENIC VITAMINS-

    a) vitamin A- can effect embryonic development

     

    17)ANEMIAS- KNOW CHARACTERISTICS AND HOW TO TREAT. See # 27

    18.Warfarin –
    This 
    medication
     is used to treat 
    blood clots
     (such as in 
    deep vein thrombosis
    –
    DVT
     or pulmonary embolus-PE) and/or to prevent new clots from forming in your body. Preventing harmful 
    blood clots
     helps to reduce the risk of a 
    stroke
     or 
    heart attack
    . Conditions that increase your risk of developing 
    blood
     clots include a certain type of irregular 
    heart
     rhythm (
    atrial fibrillation
    ), 
    heart
    valve replacement, recent 
    heart attack
    , and certain surgeries (such as hip/
    knee replacement
    ).

    Warfarin
     is commonly called a “
    blood thinner
    ,” but the more correct term is “anticoagulant.” It helps to keep 
    blood
     flowing smoothly in your body by decreasing the amount of certain substances (clotting proteins) in your blood. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Pharmacotherapeutics

    Warfarin

     

    Pharmacokinetics

    Well-absorbed when taken orally

    Metabolized by CYP 1A2 and 2C9

    Half-life of 3 to 4 days

    Precautions and contraindications§

    Pregnancy category X

    Use cautiously in patients with fall risk, dementia, or

    uncontrolled hypertension.

    Avoid in hypermetabolic state.

    Adverse drug reactions

    Bleeding

    Antidote is vitamin K

    Allergic reactions

    Many drug-drug interactions

    Antiplatelet drugs

    Thrombolytic drugs

    Anticoagulant effect may be decreased by

    Oral contraceptives, carbamazepine, etc.

    Vitamin K-containing foods

     

     

    Clinical use and dosing

    Drug of choice for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE)

    Start at 5 mg per day (7.5 mg/d if weight greater than 80 kg).

    Consider lower dose if

    Older than 75 years

    NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Multiple comorbid conditions

    Elevated liver enzymes

    Changing thyroid status

    Dose to maintain international normalized ratio (INR) between 2 and 3.

     

     

    Monitoring

    INR daily until in therapeutic range for 2

    consecutive days

    Then two or three times weekly for 1 to 2 weeks

    Then less frequently but at least every 6 week

     

     

    19.VITAMIN K

    Vitamin K, is a critical component of
    blood clotting
    , is found in many foods and is
    synthesized by intestinal bacteria. Newborns are at risk for early vitamin K–deficiency bleeding

    American Academy of Pediatrics(AAP) recommends that all newborns receive

    vitamin K within the
    first 2 weeks of life
    .

    The dose of vitamin K (phytonadione) recommended  0.5 mg to 1.0 mg IM, ideally given within the first hour of life
    (AAP Committee on Fetus and Newborn, 2003).

    Oral vitamin K is used by some countries and by some providers in the United States. The AAP notes that vitamin K–deficiency
    bleeding in newborns who received oral vitamin K.
    The AAP recommends
    IM administration
    until further study of oral administration is conducted. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    Warfarin interferes with the vitamin K–dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, and X), leading to decreased formation of clots.

    Vitamin K(phytonadione) is prescribed for patients who develop critically high INRs while on warfarin. Patients with an INR greater than 10 with no evidence of bleeding can be administered oral vitamin K (5–10 mg): if high INR with bleeding occurs, vitamin K (5–10 mg IV) is administered along with prothrombin complex (Guyatt et al, 2012).

     

    Foods high in vitamin K compete with warfarin. Therefore,
    drug–nutrient interactions
    must be considered to utilize drugs effectively in the prevention and treatment of disease. Patient education must be provided about drug–food interactions, especially if there is a potential for adverse patient outcomes. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Patients who are taking warfarin should not ingest foods high in vitamin K, as the combination may lead to
    therapeutic failure.

     

     
    Vitamin K Content in Common Foods

    Food

    Serving Size

    Daily Value (%)

    Foods High in Vitamin K (more than or equal to 200% DV)

    Eat No More Than 1 Serving per Day

    Kale, fresh, boiled

    1/2 cup

    660

    Spinach, fresh, boiled

    1/2 cup

    560

    Turnip greens, frozen, boiled

    1/2 cup

    530

    Collards, fresh, boiled

    1/2 cup

    520

    Swiss chard, fresh, boiled

    1/2 cup

    360

    Parsley, raw

    1/2 cup

    300

    Mustard greens, fresh, boiled

    1/2 cup

    260

    Foods Moderately High in Vitamin K (60% to 199% DV)

    Eat No More Than 2 Servings per Day

    Brussels sprouts, frozen, boiled

    1/2 cup

    190

    Spinach, raw

    1 cup

    180

    Turnip greens, raw, chopped

    1 cup

    170

    Green leaf lettuce, chopped

    1 cup

    125

    Broccoli, raw, chopped

    1 cup

    110

    Endive lettuce, raw

    1 cup

    70

    Romaine lettuce, raw

    1 cup

    70

     

     

    Power point information (short and sweet..)

    Vitamin K

    A critical component of blood clotting

    Found in many foods

    Synthesized by intestinal bacteria

    Newborns need 0.5 mg to 1.0 mg, ideally within the first hour of life, to prevent vitamin K-deficiency bleeding. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Vitamin K is used as an antidote to critically high international normalized ratio in patients                      taking warfarin
    . 

     

    20.Vitamin

    C (ASCORBIC ACID)

     

    Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is
    a water-soluble 
    vitamin
     that humans do not have the ability to synthesize
    so they must get adequate
    amounts of it in their diet.
    Patients with inadequate vitamin C intake
    may develop scurvy
    , with symptoms
    of fatigue, malaise, and gum inflammation or bleeding.
    Smokers and persons who are heavily exposed to secondary smoke have decreased vitamin C levels; therefore, it is recommended they take
    35 mg more vitamin C per day than nonsmokers
    .
    Other groups at risk of vitamin C deficiency are infants fed evaporated milk or boiled milk without additional supplementation of vitamin C, patients with malabsorption disorders, and patients with end-stage renal disease who are on hemodialysis
    (ODS, 2013b).

    Vitamin C therapy has been studied for its effects on health because of its antioxidant and immune function action. It has been touted as prevention or treatment of the common cold since the 1970s, when Linus Pauling published his landmark study. A 
    Cochrane Review
     in 2007 of 30 trials
    did not
    find that vitamin C decreases the incidence of colds in the general population (Douglas, Hemiliä, Chalker, & Treacy, 2007). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    The role of antioxidants in reducing the
    risk of cardiovascular disease
    . The Nurses’ Health Study found an inverse relationship between
    coronary heart disease and vitamin C intake
    (Myint et al, 2008). A meta-analysis of 16 studies examining vitamin C intake, circulating vitamin C levels, and risk of stroke suggests
    lower stroke risk with higher vitamin C intake
    and levels (Chen, Lu, Pang, & Liu, 2013).

     

    Powerpoint

    Humans do not have the ability to synthesize vitamin C.

    Inadequate vitamin C intake may cause
    scurvy.

    Smokers
    have decreased vitamin C levels
    (+35 mg/day).

    Vitamin C
    does not
    decrease incidence of URIs.

    Mixed results in decreasing cardiovascular disease ,stroke and cancer

     

    Vitamin C

    Children:

    1–3 yr

    4–8 yr

    Adolescents aged 9–13 yr

    14–18 yr male

    14–18 yr female

    Adult males

    Adult females

    Pregnancy

     

    15 mg/d

    25 mg/d

    45 mg/d

    75 mg/d

    65 mg/d

    90 mg/d

    75 mg/d

    85 mg/d

    Citrus fruits, tomatoes, tomato juice, potatoes, Brussels sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, strawberries, cabbage, and spinach

     

     

     

    IRON

    Iron is an essential mineral required for the regulation of cell growth and differentiation, as well as a component of oxygen transport. Patients with irondeficiency will develop
    microcytic-hypochromic anemia
    and have red blood cells that are small in size, pale, and low in hemoglobin. Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA) reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to fatigue and decreased immunity. Too much iron can lead to iron toxicity; therefore, patients should be advised to take only the recommended amount for their age and condition.

     

    POWERPOINT

    Needed for oxygen transport

    Patients with iron deficiency will develop
    microcytic-hypochromic anemia
    .

    Adequate intake is determined by age.

    All infants should be assessed for adequate iron in diet. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    Iron

    0–6 mo   
    0.27 mg/d 

    7–12 mo   
    11mg/d 

    1–3 yr

    4–8 yr

    9–13 yr

    14–18 yr male

    14–18 yr female

    19–
    50 yr male              8mg/d

    19–
    50 yr female          18mg/d

    19 to 50 yr pregnant    27mg/d

    50+ yr                           8mg/d

    Chicken liver, oysters, beef, clams, turkey dark meat. Legumes, dark green vegetables. Fortified breads and cereals. Iron-fortified infant formula.

     

    22.VITAMIN A

     

    Vitamin A plays a critical
    role in vision, bone growth, reproduction, immune function, cell division and differentiation
    . There are two types of vitamin A: preformed vitamin A, which is derived from animal
    sources, and provitamin A 
    carotenoid,
    which is derived from plant sources. Ahealthy diet should contain a variety of carotenoid-rich fruits and vegetables. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    Vitamin A deficiency can lead to
    night blindness and decreased immune function
    . Vitamin A may reduce the
    severity and duration of diarrheal episodes in malnourished children
    in developing countries but not in well-nourished children (Imdad et al, 2011; ODS, 2013a). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Vitamin A supplementation has also been found to decrease
    bronchopulmonary dysplasia in extremely low-birth-weight infants
    with no increase in mortality or neurodevelopmental disorder.
    Chronic alcoholism may lower vitamin A levels
    , and patients with chronic alcoholism may require
    supplementation.
    Patients with
    cystic fibrosis (CF) are predisposed to malabsorption and fat-soluble vitamin deficiency,
    with 10% to 40% of CF patients being vitamin deficient and requiring supplementation .

    Caution should be used to avoid excessive vitamin A supplementation, as toxicity may occur. Levels above recommended amounts may
    be teratogenic in pregnant women
    ; vitamin A is labeled Pregnancy Category X if intake is greater than recommended amounts.

     

    Vitamin A(POWERPOINT)

    Critical role in vision, bone growth, reproduction, immune function, cell division and differentiation

    Vitamin A

    Children:

    1–3 yr

    4–8 yr

    Adolescents aged 9–13 yr

    Adult males

    Adult females

    Pregnancy

     

    300 mcg/d

    400 mcg/d

    600 mcg/d

    900 mcg/d

    700 mcg/d

    770 mg/d

    Liver, dairy products, fish, darkly colored fruits and leafy vegetables

     

     

    Vitamin B6

    Vitamin B
    6
    , also known as pyridoxine, is a water-soluble vitamin needed for protein and red blood cell metabolism, as well as glucose regulation. Vitamin B deficiency may lead to microcytic anemia, dermatitis with mouth sores and cracked lips, and glossitis (ODS, 2011a). Vitamin B
    6
     deficiency may be drug-induced by use of isoniazid (INH), cycloserine, or hydrazine, or caused by a diet that is deficient in vitamin B
    6
    –containing foods (fortified cereals, potatoes, bananas, meat). Pyridoxine (vitamin B
    6
    ) 25 mg/day should be added to the regimen for pregnant patients to decrease the incidence of peripheral neuropathy associated with INH (American Thoracic Society, 2003). Pyridoxine (adults 100 to 200 mg/d in divided doses) may also be given prophylactically to patients on isoniazid, cycloserine, or hydrazine to prevent drug-induced neuritis. Vitamin B
    6
     supplements may reduce the symptoms of premenstrual syndrome, and nausea and vomiting associated with pregnancy (10 to 25 mg TID). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Vitamin B
    6
     (pyridoxine)

    Deficiency may be drug-induced

    Pyridoxine given prophylactically to patients on
    isoniazid, cycloserine, or hydrazine to prevent peripheral neuropathy

     

     

    Vitamin B12(RIBOFLAVIN)

    Vitamin B
    12
     is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for
    red blood cell formation and neurological function
    . Older adults and patients with
    reduced stomach acid levels, gastric bypass surgery, or intestinal disorders (celiac disease or Crohn’s disease) may not absorb 
    vitamin
     B
    12
     well and are at risk for deficiency . Also, women who follow strict vegetarian diets without supplementation place their breastfed infant at risk for 
    vitamin
    B
    12
     deficiency. Acid suppression medications (proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor antagonists) and metformin reduce the absorption of 
    vitamin
    B
    12
    . 
    vitamin
     B
    12
     deficiency will lead to megaloblastic anemia, fatigue, loss of appetite, and neurological changes (numbness and tingling in hands and feet). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Deficiency will lead to megaloblastic anemia

    PROTON PUMB INHIBITORS causes Risk for significant nutrient deficiencies: iron, vitamin B12,
    and calcium.

    Antacid therapy or potassium therapy can reduce absorption of folic acid, iron, and vitamin B
    12
    .

    Pregnant women need 600 mcg/day of folic acid, a multivitamin/mineral supplement,
    27 mg/day of iron (60 mg/day if patient is anemic
    ), and vitamin B
    12
     if the patient is vegan or lacto-ovo-vegetarian.

    Older adults over age 50
    need 2.4 mcg/day of vitamin B
    12
     and need to ensure adequate intake of vitamin D and calcium.

     

     

    24.FOLIC ACID

    Folate

    Folate is a water-soluble vitamin that is critical to the production and maintenance of new cells. Folate is found in foods such as green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, and dried legumes. Folic acid, the synthetic form of folate, is added to breads, flours, pastas, rice, and other grain products (ODS, 2012a). Folate deficiency occurs in times of increased demand, such as occurs
    in pregnancy and lactation,
    or when
    loss increases (malabsorption, alcohol abuse, dialysis, liver disease). Medications may interfere with folate utilization, leading to deficit
    . Folic acid supplementation is recommended for all women of childbearing age (400 mcg/d), with extra given when a woman is pregnant (600 mcg/d) to prevent neural tube defects in the fetus . NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Lactating women should take 500 mcg/day.

    BOX 9
    –1
     MEDICATIONS INTERFERING WITH FOLATE UTILIZATION

    Antiepileptic drugs (phenytoin, primidone)

    Metformin

    Sulfasalazine

    Triamterene

    Methotrexate

    Barbiturates

    Trimethoprim

    Pyrimethamine

    Isoniazid

    Oral contraceptives

    Folate is necessary for the normal maturation and functioning of red blood cells. Folate deficiency produces a
    macrocytic-normochromic anemia
    . Patients with 
    folic acid–deficiency anemia commonly complain of glossitis, stomatitis, nausea and anorexia, and diarrhea, and a systolic ejection murmur may be heard. Oral
     folic acid is well absorbed, and doses of 1 to 2 mg/day result in correction of the deficiency in 4 to 5 weeks. Hemoglobin (Hgb) levels begin to rise within the first week, and anemia is completely corrected in 1 to 2 months. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    POWERPOINT

    Folate

    Critical to the production and maintenance of new cells

    Found in foods such as green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, and dried legumes

    Folic acid is the synthetic form of folate.

    Folate deficiency occurs during pregnancy and with increased losses.

    Folic acid supplementation is recommended for

    Childbearing age teens and women: 400 mcg/day

                 Pregnant women: 600 mcg/day

               
    Lactating women: 500 mcg/day

    Antacid therapy or potassium therapy can reduce absorption of folic acid, iron, and vitamin B
    12
    .Phenytoin reduces the level of folic acid.

     

    25.THIAMINE

    Vitamin B
    1
     (thiamine) is a water-soluble vitamin critical for many body functions and is widely available in fortified breads and cereals. Deficiency of thiamine can lead
    to beriberi or Wernicke
    ’s encephalopathy. Alcoholic patients develop 
    thiamine
     deficiency at 8 to 10 times the rate of the nonalcoholic population
    . Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological illness in alcoholic patients and requires immediate high-dose levels of thiamine (500 mg IV TID for 2 days, then 500 mg/d IV or IM for 5 days). Patients should be given a daily 100 mg dose of oral thiamine until no longer considered at risk. Treatment for beriberi in children is IV thiamine 10 to 25 mg or 10 to 50 mg daily for 2 weeks, and in adults 50 mg IM/IV for several days or 5 to 30 mg/day for a month. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

     

    POWERPOINT

    Vitamin B
    1
     (thiamine)

    Deficiency can lead to beriberi or Wernicke’s encephalopathy

    Alcoholics at high risk

     

    26.
    Symptoms of Folate and Vitamin B12 Deficiency.

     

    vitamin
     B
    12
     deficiency will lead to megaloblastic anemia, fatigue, loss of appetite, and neurological changes (numbness and tingling in hands and feet). Deficiency will lead to megaloblastic anemia

    Folate is necessary for the normal maturation and functioning of red blood cells. Folate deficiency produces a
    macrocytic-normochromic anemia
    . Patients with 
    folic acid–deficiency anemia commonly
    complain of glossitis, stomatitis, nausea and anorexia, and diarrhea, and a systolic ejection murmur may be heard. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. 
    Oral
     folic acid is well absorbed, and doses of 1 to 2 mg/day result in correction of the deficiency in 4 to 5 weeks. Hemoglobin (Hgb) levels begin to rise within the first week, and anemia is completely corrected in 1 to 2 months.

    27.Characterstics of each Anemia and treatment

    ANEMIA: Decreased iron-carrying capacity of the blood

    Iron deficiency anemia

    Caused by poor intake or blood loss (acute or chronic)

    Treated with iron replacement

    Folic acid deficiency anemia

    Seen in alcoholics, chronic malnutrition, fad diets, and diets low in vegetables

    Drugs: dilantin, sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim, oral contraceptives, methotrexate

    Pernicious anemia

    Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to macrocytic-normochromic anemia.

    Vegetarians, vegans, genetic predisposition, autoimmune disease

    GOAL:Restore hemoglobin (Hgb) and red blood count to normal levels to maintain oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

    IRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA

    Prevention

    Adequate intake via iron-rich diet

    Monitor in periods of rapid growth (infancy, adolescence, pregnancy).

    Replacement in infants 1 mg/kg/day starting at 4 months (2 mg/kg/day in preterm infants)

    Treatment

    Iron replacement based on age

    Divide dose in three doses per day.

    Monitoring

    Reticulocyte count 5 to 10 days after starting therapy

    Hgb, hematocrit (Hct), ferritin at 4 weeks, then at 3 months and annually

    Outcome evaluation

    Return to normal Hgb, Hct, and ferritin levels

    If Hgb, Hct, and ferritin do not return to normal levels the patient should be evaluated for a source of blood loss of other pathology.

    Patient education NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Importance of prevention with adequate iron intake in diet

    Administration

    Empty stomach if tolerated

    Three times per day is best

    Constipation (may need a stool softener)

    FOLIC ACID DEFICENCY ANEMIA

    Risk groups

    Infants fed goat’s milk or powdered milk formula

    Vegetarians and vegans

    Pregnancy increases daily requirement need.

    Patients with sprue, Crohn’s disease, giardial infections, and short bowel syndrome

    Patients taking drugs that affect folic acid absorption

    Prevention

    Adequate dietary intake

    Folic acid supplementation in pregnancy

    Drug therapy for deficiency

    Oral folic acid 1 to 2 mg/day for 4 to 5 weeks

    Hgb levels start to rise in a week

    Women of childbearing age and pregnant women should consume 0.4 to 0.8 mg/day.

    Monitoring

    Follow Hgb/Hct in 4 weeks and then regularly

    Education

    Need for folic acid

    Administration

    PERNICIUS ANEMIA

    Pernicious anemia is caused by inadequate vitamin B12.

    Defective secretion of gastric intrinsic factor, which is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption

    Vitamin B12 malabsorption occurs in 10% to 30% of adults over age 50 due to reduced pepsin activity and gastric acid secretion.

    Prevention

    Eat foods high vitamin B12, such as mollusks (e.g., clams), fortified breakfast cereals, liver, trout, salmon, milk, and eggs.

    Drug therapy

    Oral, intramuscular (IM), and intranasal vitamin B12 replacement

    Nutritional deficit: 1,000 mcg/day of cobalamin is given until normal B12 levels

    Pernicious anemia: vitamin B12 therapy 1,000 mcg IM daily for 1 week followed by 100 to 1,000 mcg IM weekly for a month

    Parental, nasal, or oral therapy may be used once a patient’s B12 levels return to normal. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Parenteral: 1,000 mcg of vitamin B12 IM monthly

    Nasal: 500 mcg of cyanocobalamin weekly

    Oral: 1,000 mcg daily (least expensive)

    Monitoring

    Reticulocyte counts, Hgb and Hct, iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 serum levels prior to treatment, at 5 to 7 days of therapy, then frequently until the Hgb and Hct are normal. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Monitor potassium levels.

    Liver function tests every 2 to 4 weeks to monitor for hepatotoxicity

    Patient education

    Disease process and need for lifelong therapy

    Vitamin B12 therapy regimen

    Monitoring

    Anemia of chronic disease

    Occurs due to a disease process

    Older adults

    Patients with renal failure, osteomyelitis, tuberculosis, rheumatoid diseases, hepatitis, carcinoma, myeloma, lymphoma, and leukemia at risk

     

    28.Powerpoint:
    Children with autism or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder may respond to
    omega-3 supplements
    .

     

    Omega-3 fatty acids have received attention as a possible treatment for autism and attention deficit-hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The theory is that either deficiency in omega-3 or an imbalance in the omega-3 to omega-6 fatty acid ratio is affecting
    neurocognitive development in children
    . It is clear that sufficient amounts of the essential fatty acids are crucial in central nervous development, with deficiency or imbalance found in multiple observational studies of children with neurocognitive issues . NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. This has led to the addition of DHA and ARA to commercial infant formulas (Enfamil LIPIL) to meet the need in the key developmental period of infancy.

    In an extensive review of new and novel treatments for autism spectrum disorder, autistic children administered
    1 g of omega-3 fatty acids
    daily demonstrated a 33% improvement on the AutismTreatment .

     

    ensuring a diet that is rich in essential fatty acids throughout infancy and childhood is critical, with the trial of supplemental omega-3 fatty acids in children with autism or ADHD warranted.

    Recommended amounts of omega-3 fatty acids can be ingested in the diet by eating fatty fish or by taking fish oil capsules. The American Heart Association (2014b) recommends two servings a week of fatty fish such as salmon, mackerel, herring, lake trout, sardines, and albacore tuna for heart health. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. The recommended amount of omega-3 fatty acid from fish per day is 500 mg/day if there is no history of coronary heart disease (CHD), 1 g per day if there is a documented history of CHD, and 2 to 4 g/day to lower triglycerides (American Heart Association, 2014; Covington, 2004; Lee, O’Keefe, Lavie, Marchioli, & Harris, 2008). It may take
    2 to 3 weeks
    for the effects of omega-3 to be seen. The National Heart Lung and Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines for reducing cardiovascular risk in children and adolescents recommend increasing dietary fish intake to increase omega-3 fatty acid intake (NHLBI, 2012
    ). The studies of omega-3 for the treatment of ADHD and autism used 500 mg to 1 g/day.

     

    Antacids and kidney stones .

     

    carbonic anhydrase inhibitors may increase the risk of kidney stones.
     Calcium supplements can also increase the incidence of kidney stones. In addition, there is concern that excess serum calcium deposits into soft, vascular plaque, which makes the plaque less able to regress in the face of statin therapy. These adverse issues should be tempered with the knowledge that taking calcium cuts overall mortality in women compared with women who do not take the supplements (Langsetmo et al, 2013). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.
     

    Antacids consist of a metallic cation and basic ion (calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, etc.), which neutralize acidity in the stomach by raising the pH. The basic property of these drugs causes them to interact with most medications, by either binding with the drug molecule or altering pH and thus the absorption of drugs that need an acidic environment for optimal absorption. Most interactions can be avoided by separating the dosing of antacids by at least 2 hours from the dosing of the other oral medications. Intraluminal interactions occur in the stomach when an antacid chelates another drug or adsorbs another drug onto its surface.

    The best-known antacid interaction is with tetracycline. Aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide have a strong affinity for tetracycline and form an insoluble and inactive chelate. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. This interaction can reduce the bioavailability of tetracycline by 90% and result in clinical failures. This chelation occurs with all other forms of tetracycline, including doxycycline and minocycline. Patients should not take any antacid until at least 2 hours after tetracycline administration. A similar interaction exists with the quinolone antibiotics, such as ciprofloxacin and ofloxacin. Antacids are discussed in 
    Chapter 20

    Topiramate othe  medicine that can cause kidney
    stones

     

    PUD/GERD

     

    GERD is a common problem in primary care and is listed as the primary diagnosis for 6,859,000 ambulatory care visits annually, a rate of 2,332 per 100,000.

    Pathophysiology

    Lower esophageal sphincter tone

    Gastric content regurgitation into the esophagus

    Complaints of burning substernal pain that radiates upward

    Persistent acid reflux that occurs more than twice a week is considered GERD.

                                DRUGS USED FOR GERD

                   Histamine
    2
    (H
    2
    ) receptor antagonists

    Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

    Antacids

    Prokinetics

    Dyspepsia or mild GERD

    Antacids and lifestyle modification

    H
    2
    receptor agonists for 4 to 8 weeks

    If better, continue for 12 weeks then wean off.

    Moderate to severe GERD

    PPIs for 8 weeks

    If better, wean off PPIs.

    If symptoms not improved, refer.

    Moderate to severe GERD (cont’d)

    Symptoms not relieved: Increase PPI to twice daily for 4 to 8 weeks.

    If symptom free for 4 weeks, step down to once a day PPI and reassess in 6 to 12 months.

    If symptoms not relieved after 8 weeks, refer.

    Textbook

    Drugs to Improve Lower Esophageal Sphincter Tone

    Metoclopramide and bethanechol improve LES tone and have a prokinetic function but are not considered for monotherapy in the treatment of GERD. They are most useful in combination with acid suppression for patients with gastroparesis. Metoclopramide and bethanechol have not demonstrated significant healing of esophageal lesions. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Antacids also serve a dual purpose: they improve LES tone and increase gastric pH. They are usually patient-initiated drug therapy, along with lifestyle modifications.

    Drugs to Reduce the Amount of Acid

    Two main classes of drugs are used to reduce acid secretion: histamine
    2
     receptor antagonists (H
    2
    RAs) and PPIs. H
    2
    RAs act on the parietal cells to decrease the amount of acid produced. Because most of these drugs are available OTC, many patients may have used these drugs as self-initiated therapy before seeking care. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Providers need to determine self-medication for GERD in the initial history. H
    2
    RAs may be used as maintenance acid suppression or heartburn therapy in patients who do not have erosive GERD (Katz et al, 2013). The ACG guidelines recommend a trial of nighttime H
    2
    RAs for patients taking daytime PPIs to treat nighttime reflux (Katz et al, 2013).

     

    Figure 34
    –1.
     Sites of action of drugs used to treat GERD and PUD (textbook).

    PPIs are standard first-line therapy for GERD and decrease acid secretion by almost 100%. PPIs improve esophageal healing to about 80%.

    Drugs to Improve Peristalsis

    A few patients continue to report symptoms despite reduced acid secretion. These patients may benefit from prokinetics, which improve both LES tone and peristalsis. Metoclopramide may provide some benefit but has limited usefulness because of adverse drug reactions.

    Drugs to Decrease Mucosal Exposure

    Two cytoprotective agents are available to decrease the exposure of the gastric mucosa to acid: sucralfate (Carafate) and misoprostol (Cytotec). Sucralfate acts largely as a Band-Aid to cover sites having erosive damage but is more often used with ulcers. Misoprostol acts by increasing the production of cytoprotective mucus. Older adults or those taking multiple drugs may benefit from sucralfate. Misoprostol is reserved largely for use when NSAIDs are a contributing factor to the increased acid load. These drugs are not mentioned in GERD guidelines, although discontinuance of NSAIDs is mentioned.

    The pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of each of the categories of drugs are discussed in more detail in 
    Chapter 20
    .

    Goals of Treatment

    Therapy for patients with GERD has four goals: (1) reduce or eliminate the symptoms; (2) heal any esophageal lesions; (3) manage or prevent complications such as stricture, Barrett’s esophagus, or esophageal carcinoma; and (4) prevent relapse. Meeting these goals requires a combination of lifestyle modification and drug therapy. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.

    Rational Drug Selection

    Algorithm

    For most patients, GERD is treated with PPI therapy. 
    Figure 34-2
     presents an algorithm for GERD treatment.

    Lifestyle Modifications

    Antireflux maneuvers, dietary changes, and cessation of smoking are central to the management of GERD regardless of the step. Antireflux maneuvers reduce back pressure on the LES from intra-abdominal contents. Dietary changes reduce the total volume and acid content of the stomach. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Smoking reduces LES tone and increases gastric acid secretion. 
    Box 34-1
     lists appropriate lifestyle modifications.

    Drug Therapy

    Lifestyle modifications and OTC antacids are a logical first step for treatment of heartburn, dyspepsia, or mild nonerosive GERD. Most patients have tried an OTC antacid before they seek health care. This step alone may be sufficient. H
    2
    RAs may be sufficient if symptoms are mild and no erosive disease is evident. Tachyphylaxis may occur with H
    2
    RAs.

    PPIs are first-line therapy for patients with moderate or severe GERD or erosive disease. PPI therapy continues for 8 weeks and 70% to 80% of patients should have complete relief with PPIs (Katz et al, 2013). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. There are no major differences in response between the PPIs (Katz et al, 2013). Maintenance PPI therapy should be prescribed for patients who have symptoms that recur after PPI therapy is discontinued or patients with complications such as erosive esophagitis or Barrett’s esophagitis (Katz, et al). The patient should be reassessed in 6 to 12 months to determine if he or she can be weaned off therapy. Patients who do not respond to PPIs need to be referred to a gastroenterology specialist.

     

     

    PEPTIC ULCER

     

     

    Drug 1

    Drug 2

    Drug 3

    Drug 4

    Comments

    Triple therapy

    Proton pump inhibitor bid

    Clarithromycin 500 mg bid or metronidazole 500 mg bid

    Amoxicillin 1 g bid

    –

    Treat for 10–14 d

    Usual first-line therapy

    Triple therapy

    Proton pump inhibitor bid

    Clarithromycin 500 mg bid

    Metronidazole 500 mg bid

    –

    Treat for 7–14 d

    Use as first-line therapy in penicillin-allergic patients

    Quadruple therapy

    Proton pump inhibitor bid 
    or

    Ranitidine 150 mg bid

    Metronidazole 250 mg qid

    Tetracycline
    *
     500 mg qid

    Bismuth subsalicylate 525 mg qid

    Treat for 10–14 d

    Usually used as second-line therapy in patients who fail first-line therapy

    Levofloxacin-based triple therapy

    Proton pump inhibitor bid

    Levofloxacin 250–500 mg bid

    Amoxicillin 1 gm bid

    Treat for 10–14 d

    Second-line or rescue therapy

    Drug Treatment Protocols for
     
    Helicobacter pylori
     
    Eradication

    *
    Children <8 yr should not take tetracycline. Other treatment regimens with dosage adjustments for children are acceptable. Some come with drugs grouped in packets. Proton pump inhibitors include esomeprazole 40 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, omeprazole 20 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, rabeprazole 20 mg. Source : Crowe, 2013b; Lew, 2009. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Duodenal and gastric ulcers recur in up to 80% of patients treated with drugs to reduce gastric acid but not treated for eradication of  H. pylori infection. By comparison, 6% to 15% of patients have recurrent ulcers when their  H. pylori  infection is cured. Maintenance therapy with an antisecretory agent is not generally required after eradication of  H. pylori.  However, it is prudent to prescribe maintenance therapy for certain high-risk groups: smokers; patients older than 60 years; patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, coronary artery disease, or renal failure; patients with a history of bleeding or perforated ulcer; patients with persistent symptoms; and those who must take NSAIDs or other ulcerogenic drugs. Patients with gastric or duodenal ulcers who fail to become symptom-free or who develop complications such as GI bleeding while on antisecretory therapy require a referral to a gastroenterologist. Surgery is contemplated for gastric ulcer patients. Lifestyle Modifications Evidence is lacking that dietary modifications affect the course of PUD. Frequent small meals and decreased consumption of spices, alcohol, caffeine, and fruit juices have never been demonstrated to affect healing. Dietary changes should be directed at those substances that cause symptoms in each particular patient. An important lifestyle modification is smoking cessation. Smoking both increases the risk for gastric and duodenal ulcers and delays their healing (Soll & Vakil, 2012). Aspirin and NSAIDs are known to be ulcerogenic. Their use should be discouraged and a high index of suspicion for NSAID and aspirin use is required because patients do not always report OTC use (Soll & Vakil, 2012). Drug Therapy Currently, the FDA approves eight treatment regimens; however, several other combinations have been used successfully. Regimens include triple or quadruple drug therapy with a variety of drugs. The treatment regimens that have the highest rate of success in eradication, the best likelihood of adherence related to number of drugs taken, and adverse effects are presented in  Table 34-6 . All include a twice-daily dose of a PPI. The most popular antibiotics are clarithromycin (Biaxin) and amoxicillin. Because all these drugs can be taken twice daily, the regimen is simple and has a limited number of drugs. Selection among the protocols is based on cost, convenience, ability to tolerate the adverse drug reactions of the total regimen, antimicrobial resistance, patient variables, and eradication rates. For each patient, assess the likelihood of adherence and use the most cost-effective but simplest drug regimen that will get the job done. Adverse Drug Reactions for the Total Regimen Adverse drug reactions have been reported in up to 70% of patients taking bismuth-based four-drug regimens. Metronidazole-based regimens have increased adverse reactions. Overall, the best regimen for tolerability appears to be a PPI-based three-drug regimen. Happily, these regimens also are highly efficacious. Antimicrobial Resistance Concern about antimicrobial resistance has increased, regardless of the disease process for which these drugs are being used.  Chapter 24  discusses resistance to the various antimicrobials. Resistance associated with  H. pylori  eradication has been linked to the length and complexity of the treatment regimen and the tolerability of adverse reactions. Resistance to metronidazole is most common and higher in women (Crowe, 2013b). Resistance to clarithromycin is low (10%), as is resistance to amoxicillin and tetracycline. Acquired resistance occurs in up to two-thirds of treatment failures. Changing drugs and trying a different treatment regimen may be useful in these instances. First- and second-line therapy options are presented in  Table 34-6 . Patient Variables Several patient variables need to be considered. Patients with allergies to any of the drugs in a treatment regimen require a different regimen. Women of childbearing age should use a regimen that does not include tetracycline because of the risk for fetal harm. The same is true for children younger than 8 years because of problems related to discoloration of teeth. Each of the drugs in these regimens has potential drug interactions. Other drugs the patient may be taking must be taken into account. Given all these parameters, the treatment regimen with good to excellent eradication rates, a low to medium adverse reactions profile, likelihood of adherence based on complexity of the regimen and moderate cost, and limited antimicrobial resistance appears to be clarithromycin plus amoxicillin plus a PPI, all taken twice a day for 10 to 14 days. Monitoring Monitoring parameters for each of the drugs in these treatment regimens are presented in  Chapters 20  and  24 . Documentation of ulcer healing by endoscopy 12 weeks after the end of therapy is the gold standard. Cost considerations suggest reserving it for patients who are at high risk for complications, patients with recurrence, and those who will be on long-term therapy. The urea breath test or stool antigen testing can be used to screen symptomatic patients who are suspected of having recurrent ulcers associated with  H. pylori  infection. Note that serological testing for  H. pylori  may be falsely negative if the patient is on PPIs or recently on antibiotics. Documentation by endoscopy is optional for low-risk patients. Outcome Evaluation Figure 34-3  shows the treatment algorithm for PUD. Outcome evaluation targets eradication of  H. pylori  and relief of symptoms. Evaluation also includes the other goals for therapy: healing of lesions, prevention of complications, and prevention of relapse. Relapse rates are high for patients with PUD but can be significantly reduced with appropriate maintenance therapy or eradication of  H. pylori  infection. Patients with PUD who remain symptom-free without drugs or on maintenance therapy require no more frequent follow-up than their annual physical examination.   Anti- diarrheal -PEPTO BISMOL   ACTION : Bismuth subsalicylate: antisecretory and antimicrobial effects Bismuth subsalicylate dissociates into salicylate that is absorbed (similar to aspirin), metabolized in the liver, and excreted in the urine with the bismuth that is not absorbed NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide Bismuth subsalicylate appears to have antisecretory and antimicrobial effects in vitro and may have some anti-inflammatory effects. The salicylate moiety provides the antisecretory effect, and the bismuth moiety may exert direct antimicrobial effects against bacterial and viral enteropathogens. Because of these effects, it is also used as part of a multidrug regimen for the eradication of  H. pylori. EDUCATE about Bismuth turning tongue and stool black   CONTRAINDICATION Bismuth subsalicylate is contraindicated in children with viral or flu-like illness . Avoid bismuth subsalicylate in pediatric patients with influenza or chicken pox because of the risk of Reye syndrome.   Acute diarrhea Treat the source of diarrhea . Absorbents (kaolin-pectin or bismuth subsalicylate) used after each loose stool Maintain hydration. Electrolyte solution in infants and young children Flat soda or water in adults Opioids dosed 3 or 4 times/day or after each stool Chronic infantile diarrhea Bismuth subsalicylate Traveler’ s diarrhea Bismuth subsalicylate and loperamide are used for traveler’s diarrhea Bismuth subsalicylate with each meal and at bedtime to prevent traveler’ s diarrhea If diarrhea develops Bismuth subsalicylate every 30 minutes (maximum 8 doses) for up to 48 hours Loperamide 4 mg then 2 mg after every stool (maximum 8 mg/day) 3.FOR PUD Bismuth subsalicylate: 525 mg four times/day. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   TEXT BOOK   Bismuth subsalicylate undergoes chemical dissociation in the GI tract; the salicylate moiety is absorbed, with plasma levels similar to those of aspirin. There is only negligible absorption of the bismuth moiety. The salicylate portion of bismuth subsalicylate is metabolized in the liver and more than 90% is excreted in urine. The salicylate component of bismuth subsalicylate contraindicates its use in children or teenagers during or after recovery from chickenpox or flu-like illness. It is also contraindicated for patients with aspirin hypersensitivity. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. All antidiarrheals (except crofelemer) require cautious use in older adults and others in whom impaction is a high risk. Older adults are especially sensitive to diphenoxylate or difenoxin because of the atropine content and anticholinergic properties. There are no contraindications for the use of crofelemer in patients with HIV/AIDS–associated diarrhea. Pregnancy categories vary among the antidiarrheal drugs. Kaolin and pectin are Pregnancy Category B. All others are Pregnancy Category C except loperamide, which is Pregnancy Category B. Crofelemer is Pregnancy Category C. However, there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women for any of these drugs, and safety during pregnancy has not been established. Some of the drugs are excreted in breast milk, and the safety of any of the antidiarrheals has not been established in lactating women. They should be avoided or used with caution. None of the antidiarrheals has established safety for children younger than age 2 years. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. All except crofelemer have published children’s doses. It is important to keep in mind that dehydration may influence younger children’s response to these drugs. Antidiarrheals are contraindicated in the treatment of diarrhea in most children; the standard of care is oral rehydration therapy (ORT) to treat the electrolyte and fluid loss of diarrhea. The safety and effectiveness of crofelemer in children with or without HIV/AIDS have not been established. Adverse Drug Reactions The main adverse drug reaction for all traditional antidiarrheals is rebound constipation. For bismuth subsalicylate, additional reactions that all patients should be warned about are gray/black stools and black tongue, the results of the bismuth. Patients should be told to expect this reaction and that it does not indicate GI bleeding.   Drug Interactions Bismuth subsalicylate may potentiate the risk for toxicity if taken with aspirin, and the risk for hypoglycemia if given in large doses with insulin or oral hypoglycemic   Avoid bismuth subsalicylate in pediatric patients with influenza or chicken pox because of the risk of Reye syndrome.   Patients concurrently taking aspirin and bismuth subsalicylate are at risk for salicylate poisoning.   Clinical Use and Dosing Simple, Acute Diarrhea After the cause of the diarrhea has been determined and, if possible, eliminated, absorbent preparations are commonly used for relief of symptoms in adults. Kaolin-pectin or bismuth subsalicylate taken after each loose stool may be effective. ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE Drug Interacting Drug Possible Effect Implications Bismuth subsalicylate Aspirin May potentiate salicylate toxicity Avoid concurrent use Tetracycline May decrease GL absorption Separate administration by 2 h Thrombolytics, warfarin, heparin Large doses may increase risk for bleeding Avoid concurrent use or use small doses; monitor clotting studies closely Insulin, oral hypoglycemics Large doses increase risk of hypoglycemia Avoid concurrent use or use small doses     Dosage Schedule: Selected Antidiarrheals Drug Indication Dosage Form Initial Dose Additional Doses Bismuth subsalicylate * † Pepto-Bismol Kaopectate Acute diarrhea Tablets/chewable: 262 mg Liquid: 262 mg/15 mL Liquid: 524 mg/15 mL Adults:  524 mg every 30 min or 1,048–1,200 mg every 60 min as needed Children 9–12 yr:  262– 300 mg every 30–60 min as needed Children 6–9 yr:  176 mg every 30–60 min as needed Children 3–6 yr:  88 mg every 30–60 min as needed Children <3 yr weighing >13 kg:
     88 mg

    Children <3 yr weighing 6.4–8 kg:  44 mg May repeat q4h; not to exceed 6 doses/24 h Not to exceed 4.2 g/24 h Not to exceed 2.4 g/24 h Not to exceed 1.4 g/24 h Not to exceed 704 mg/24 h May repeat q4h; not to exceed 6 doses/24 h       Chronic Infantile Diarrhea Bismuth subsalicylate has been used to treat chronic infantile diarrhea. The dose is 2.5 mL every 4 hours for children 2 to 24 months; 5 mL for children 24 to 48 months; and 10 mL for children 48 to 70 months (Taketomo, Hodding, & Kraus, 2009). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Traveler’s Diarrhea Bismuth subsalicylate appears to have antibacterial and antisecretory properties and is used to treat traveler’s diarrhea in doses of two tablets or 2 fluid oz before each meal and at bedtime (4 times/d) for up to 3 weeks during brief periods of high risk (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention [CDC], 2014). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. The management of traveler’s diarrhea can be divided into prevention and treatment. The most important risk factor for acquiring this disorder is the patient’s destination. High-risk areas include Central and South America, Africa, the Middle East, Mexico, and Asia. Intermittent-risk areas include Eastern Europe, South Africa, and a number of the Caribbean islands. Enterotoxigenic  E. coli  is the most common causative organism found in traveler’s diarrhea, followed by  Campylobacter, Shigella,  and  Salmonella . Oral antimicrobials are also used for both prevention and treatment of this disorder; the provider should refer to the CDC Travel Web site ( www.cdc.gov/travel ) for current antimicrobial recommendations.  Table 20-6  provides adults’ and children’s doses of selected antidiarrheals. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Rational Drug Selection Indication For acute diarrhea, any of the antidiarrheals is appropriate. The more severe the diarrhea is, the less likely it will be that absorbent agents will help. Bismuth subsalicylate and loperamide are the only drugs indicated for traveler’s diarrhea. Loperamide is the only drug with an indication for use with inflammatory bowel disease. Adverse Reactions All antidiarrheals have the potential for rebound constipation. As soon as symptoms of diarrhea are reduced, the dosage of the antidiarrheal drug should be reduced; it should be stopped as soon as symptoms resolve. Bismuth subsalicylate can turn the tongue and stools gray/black. Patients should be told that this reaction can be expected and that it does not indicate GI bleeding. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   32.Long term use of PPI   There is evidence for significant nutrient deficiencies in patients taking PPIs long-term. Iron, vitamin B 12 , and calcium all need an acid environment for optimal absorption. The PPIs are so effective in reducing acid production that patients are at risk for iron deficiency anemia, vitamin B 12  deficiency, and calcium deficiency (Ali et al, 2009; Lodato et al, 2010). Patients on long-term PPIs may be at risk for osteoporosis and increased hip fractures, especially when combined with other risk factors for fracture such as age and female gender Stomach acid provides a natural defense against microbial pathogens. Patients on long-term PPI therapy have an increased risk of  Clostridium difficile , salmonella, and camphylobacter infections (Ali et al, 2009). Short-term use of PPIs increases the risk of pneumonia.   There are cellular level changes that occur with long-term PPI therapy, including hyperplasia of enterochromaffin-like cells, leading to a concern about the development of gastric cancers (Ali et al, 2009; Lodato et al, 2010; Vandenplas et al, 2009). Atrophic gastritis has been noted in patients taking omeprazole long-term, and chronic atrophic gastritis is a risk factor for developing gastric carcinoid tumors (Lodato et al, 2010). In spite ofthese cellular changes, at this time there is not strong evidence for the development of gastric cancers from long-term PPI use (). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.     33.PROBIOTICS Pre-, Pro-, and Symbiotics(POWERPOINT) Probiotics are nonpathogenic bacteria normally found in the intestinal microflora. Most common: Lactobacillus acidophilus and the Bifidobacterium species Cochrane Review of probiotic use in rotavirus-associated acute diarrhea in children found it reduced diarrhea severity and duration by 1 to 3 days. Reduced antibiotic-associated diarrhea May improve inflammatory bowel disease and necrotizing enterocolitis Textbook: Probiotics are nonpathogenic bacteria normally found in the intestinal microflora, the most common of which are  Lactobacillus acidophilus  and the  Bifidobacterium  species. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Prebiotics are nondigestible food ingredients that stimulate growth of probiotic organisms, and symbiotics are a mixture of probiotics and prebiotics. Probiotics are used to restore the normal balance of gut flora that is disturbed with antibiotics, immunosuppressive medications, and other conditions (Weichert et al, 2012; Williams, 2010). Probiotics have been used for many years and have been studied extensively for their health benefits and their effects on diarrhea. A  Cochrane Review  of the use of probiotics in rotavirus-associated acute diarrhea in children found probiotics reduced diarrhea severity and duration by 1 to 3 days (Allen, Okoko, Martinez, Gregorio, & Dans, 2004). Probiotics also reduce antibiotic-associated diarrhea in adults (D’Souza, Rajkumar, Cooke, & Bulpitt, 2002; Safdar, Barigala, Said, & McKinley, 2008; Tong, Ran, Shen, Zhang, & Xiao, 2006) and in children (Johnston, Supina, Ospina, & Vohra, 2007). It is reasonable to prescribe probiotics for patients with infectious or antibiotic-associated diarrhea. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Probiotics may also improve inflammatory bowel disorders and necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC). Premature infants have sterile guts when they are born and are at risk for bowel problems, including NEC. Multiple studies and reviews have found probiotics beneficial in preventing NEC and death in preterm infants (AlFaleh & Bassler, 2008; Bosante, Iacobelli, & Gouyon, 2013; Deshpande, Rao, Patole, & Bulsara, 2010; Fernández-Carrocera et al, 2013; Lin et al, 2008). Probiotics improved colic symptoms in a multicenter, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial of infants started on probiotics soon after birth (Indrio et al, 2014). Use of probiotics improved Symptom Severity Scores in patients with irritable bowel syndrome (Williams et al, 2008). Probiotics have also been found to improve eradication rates in patients being treated for  Helicobacter pylori  (Tong et al, 2006).   34.OTC MEDICATIONS AND HERBAL  SUPPLIMENTATION AND REGULATIONS   OTC MEDICATION(in class she told Know what your patients take ,Dextromethorphan abuse has got alchol in it ,pseudoephenephrin has got methamphetamine can increase heart rate.) 42% of adults take an OTC medication. 49% report dietary supplement use. Assume all patients have tried an OTC treatment. OTC drugs are approved and labeled by the FDA. OTC must go through the New Drug Application process just as prescription drugs. There are 80 therapeutic categories of OTC drugs Otc medication sale Cough and cold medications: $4 billion OTC analgesics: $3.99 billion Heartburn: $2.28 billion Laxatives: $1.3 billion Acne: $617 million Diarrhea: $225 million Nicotine replacement: $855 million     An OTC drug has the following characteristics : It must be safe. It has low potential for misuse or abuse. It can be labeled. The patient must be able to self-diagnose the condition. The condition must be able to be managed by the patient. SELF PRISCRIBING The patient must accurately diagnose and appropriately treat Concerns Treating serious illness that worsens due to lack of appropriate treatment Example: treating bacterial pneumonia with OTC cough medication Adverse effects of medications Drug interactions       Herbal supplementation and regulations     35.BETA BLOCKERS Refer pharm in a flash also (refer text book lots of info) Stage II HF : SBP greater than or equal to 160/DBP greater than or equal to 100 Two-drug combination: thiazide-type and ACEI, ARB, beta blocker (BB), or CCB Class II: beta blockers Reduce adrenergic activity in the heart II. Beta blockers ANTIARRYTHMIC Propranolol, metoprolol, sotalolol, and others Sotalol: considered a class II and III drug Beta adregenic blockers :Various types include nonspecific beta antagonists, selective beta-antagonists, and those with and without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA) In post-MI patients, cardioselective agents are preferred without ISA. Some are used as antiarrhythmics. Used for angina Drugs with ISA may help avoid a decrease in CO and HR. May be preferred for patients who experience bradycardia with other beta blockers. More effective in African-American and older patients BB USED FOR STAGE B and STAGE C Heart failure BB AVOIDED FOR Diabetic patients Changes definitions of control for elders to allow higher values to avoid orthostatic falls and increase adherence Beta blockers no longer first-line drugs Pregnancy may have increased risks to mother and fetus. Methyldopa, beta blockers, and vasodilators are drugs of choice. African Americans have a higher and earlier HTN incidence.   Reduced response to monotherapy, beta blockers, ACEIs, and ARBs Equal response if mixed with diuretic BiDil is the first drug suggested for African-American patients specifically. BBs may NOT be abruptly withdrawn, increases beta receptor sensitivity No longer first-line HTN drug choice ACTION WHEN USED FOR ANGINA : Beta blockers (BBs) decrease the force of myocardial contractility and decrease heart rate and conduction velocity. BBs decrease systemic vascular resistance and BP (afterload). Decreased myocardial oxygen demand = decreased anginal pain 36.ACEI/ARBS (READ PHARM IN A FLASH AND TEXTBOOK IF NEEDED  ) ANGIOTENSIN CONVERTING ENZYMEINHIBTORS Pharmacodynamics Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) activity results in decreased production of both angiotensin II (AT II) and aldosterone. Can lower vascular resistance without decreasing cardiac output (CO) or glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Does not produce reflex tachycardia. Strong evidence for CV and cerebrovascular risk reduction, HF, and slowing renal disease Improves oxygenation to heart muscle, decreases inappropriate remodeling of heart muscle after myocardial infarction (MI) or with heart failure, reduces affects of diabetes on the kidneys. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Improves insulin sensitivity, does not affect glucose metabolism or raise serum lipid levels   Use with Young Caucasian patients Patients with angina: prevents formation of AT II and decreases pulmonary vascular resistance by decreasing retention of sodium and water and reducing extracellular fluid and preload Diabetic patients: prevents or slows nephropathy HF patients Not as effective for African-American patients When combined with a diuretic, race no longer an issue However, African Americans and Asians have three to four times greater risk of developing angioedema Adverse drug reactions (ADRs): dry cough (bradykinin- mediated), hypotension, loss of taste, angioedema, blood dyscrasias, teratogenicity, hyperkalemia, acute renal failure, cholestatic jaundice, pancreatitis, rash Monitoring Possible orthostasis within 1 hour of dose when starting and with each dosage change Patient education Do not double dose if one is missed. Hypotension most common ADR Cough common with older agents                                                         Angitensin receptor blockers (refer pharm in a flash) Prevent binding of AT II to receptors in kidney, brain, heart, and arterial walls Inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) and cause fall in peripheral resistance Evidence supports use in kidney disease until late stage and heart failure, but not renal protective like ACEI No bradykinin-mediated cough like ACEI. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are considered in ACEI-intolerant patients, but more expensive. Avoid ACEIs, ARBs, and direct renin inhibitors in pregnancy and sextually active woman . CLINICAL PEARL If you hear an abdominal bruit in a patient known to have vascular disease, give  captopril , a short-acting  ACEI , and measure serum creatinine prior to the dose and within 1 or 2 days after the dose. A rapid rise in the creatinine level suggests renal artery stenosis. A slower rise probably indicates a problem with poor hydration that can be corrected by rehydrating the patient and discontinuing or lowering the dose of any  diuretics the patient is taking. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Cost of generic ACE inhibitors provides significant advantage over branded ARBs (generics now available for some). Considered alternatives for patients who cannot tolerate ACE or become resistant Many combined with hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)   37.DIGOXIN….TOXICITY, INDICATIONS ,HOW IT WORKS AND MONITORING   when patients receiving digoxin, a cardiac glycoside used to slow and strengthen the heart, have clinical signs of toxicity and high blood levels, they can be given antibody fragments to digoxin (Digibind). The antibody fragments remain in the central circulation and bind to digoxin in the bloodstream, essentially pulling digoxin back into the bloodstream from its sites of action throughout the body. But since digoxin is binding to its antibody in the bloodstream, the blood concentration of digoxin rises even though there is much less free digoxin to produce pharmacological effects and toxicity. This illustrates how plasma protein binding holds drugs in the circulation and prevents their distribution to other sites in the body. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Verapamil, diltiazem, and some dihydropyridines have an additive bradycardic effect with BBs or digoxin. Serum digoxin levels may be increased with risk of toxicity when it is concurrently used with verapamil, diltiazem, or nifedipine. All ARBs Antacids Decreased absorption of ACEI; increased risk for digoxin or lithium toxicitY Avoid use or separate doses by at least 1 h.     Toxicity Toxicity typically occurs with serum levels greater than 2 ng/mL. Toxicity is commonly caused by excessive administration of a CG, too much diuresis resulting in hypokalemia, concurrent development of renal insufficiency, or by administration of drugs that interfere with excretion of digoxin (see the section “Drug Interactions”). This is especially common in older adults who have polypharmacy changes. Each of these common etiologies and the patient’s calcium and magnesium levels should be considered in the differential diagnosis. Diagnosis of toxicity is based on both clinical and laboratory data. Serum levels alone are insufficient to diagnose toxicity. Patient tolerance plus cardiac output and vital sign outcomes are important considerations to determine if individuals actually need levels above or below common ranges. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Providers are cautioned that a faster heart rate in a patient previously controlled on a CG may be a sign of toxicity, not the need for increasing the dose! Incorrect timing of lab draws can be a factor (see the Monitoring section for times to draw serum levels). Toxicity is an important differential diagnosis of arrhythmias and neurological and GI symptoms for patients taking CGs. CLINICAL PEARL A full neutralizing dose of  Digibind  is expensive (up to 20 vials at $750 per vial). This cost should be considered in deciding to treat patients with suspected or non–life-threatening toxicity. It should also be remembered that Digibind has a half-life of 2 to 6 hours, and during that time the rhythm disturbance for which the CG was given may recur and cannot be treated with a CG. Treatment of toxicity depends on the problem. AV junctional and first-degree block rhythms, ventricular ectopic beats, or an excessively slow ventricular response to atrial fibrillation often requires CG dosage adjustment and careful monitoring. Potassium administration should be considered to reduce automaticity, even when serum potassium is in the normal range, unless a high-grade AV block is also present. Lidocaine has minimum effects on the AV node and may be used to treat ventricular ectopic beats that threaten hemodynamics. Bradycardia and second- or third-degree AV block usually respond to atropine. When toxicity is severe or life-threatening, the antidote for CG toxicity is antidigoxin immunotherapy, digoxinimmune fab (Digibind). Patients who require this medication are hospitalized so that cardiopulmonary resuscitation equipment and medications are available when it is administered. A short holding of the next dose or two may be sufficient to return to normal values without using Digibind. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Any patient who becomes toxic on a CG should have the indications for that drug carefully reviewed. In some cases, it is possible to stop the drug altogether. There is new recognition that women fare worse on CG, so as a group they should be evaluated for treatment with other meds. Several studies, however, have shown negative consequences for withdrawal of digoxin, so the decision should be carefully made in consultation with cardiology.   38.Furosemide Loop diuretics: potential for cross-sensitivity with sulfa Example:Furosemide, bumetanide, torsemide   hyperuricemia from furosemide Donepezil does not interact with furosemide, digoxin, and warfarin, drugs often prescribed for older adults who are also likely candidates for donepezil. The liver is the primary site of metabolism for most diuretics. Furosemide (Lasix) has nonhepatic and hepatic metabolism. Amiloride is not metabolized by the liver. All diuretics are excreted mostly unchanged in the urine. Metolazone, amiloride, bumetanide (Bumex), and spironolactone have some excretion in feces and bile. Plasma half-lives vary from 30 to 60 minutes for furosemide to 35 to 50 hours for chlorthalidone. Impaired renal or hepatic function increases the half-life of furosemide. Hydantoins Reduces diuretic effect of furosemide Monitor diuretic effect and adjust dose prn Cimetidine, furosemide Increases plasma levels of metformin without concurrent increase in renal excretion Dosage adjustments of metformin may be needed     Furosemide (Lasix) (G) Refractory edema of CHF, hepatic and renal disease Solution: 40 mg/5 mL; 10 mg/mL Tablets: 20, 40, 80 mg 20–80 mg daily or 2 doses daily Titrate in increments of 20–40 mg q6–8h until desired diuresis; give 2 doses daily 8 a.m. and 2 p.m. Max:  600 mg/d in divided doses HTN 40 mg 2 doses daily Titrate up or down to control HTN Edema in infants and children Children:  2 mg/kg/d Titrate in increments of 1 mg/kg q6–8h until desired diuresis Max:  6 mg/kg/d       For mild to moderate disease, start therapy with furosemide 40 mg twice daily. Loop diuretics can cause marked diuresis. Before starting them, discontinue any thiazide diuretic currently being used. For loop diuretics, divide the daily dose to prevent great diuresis at one time. If the patient does not respond adequately to the divided dose, try giving the entire daily dose in the morning before increasing the dose. The goal with diuretics is to give the lowest possible dose that achieves the desired effect. Doses should be titrated to increased urine output and promote weight loss of 0.5 to 1 kg daily. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Single daily doses are effective, but during times of increased pathology, oral absorption may be compromised, and the IV route or high doses of oral formulations may be needed. Dosing schedules are given in  Chapter 16 . Monitor weight gain, changes in exercise tolerance, and electrolytes. Diuretic resistance may occur in the presence of decreased renal perfusion or renal stenotic or obstructive pathologies, or with the concurrent administration of NSAIDs. If symptoms seem resistant to the standard doses of the diuretic, check creatinine clearance. Thiazide diuretics cannot be used with creatinine clearances that are lower than 25 mL/min. Loop diuretics can be used with these low creatinine clearances. Patients may also benefit from the addition of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) for its synergistic action on diuresis, but it is not recommended for chronic daily use because of potential for severe electrolyte shifts. Although initiation of diuretic therapy is important for patients who have HF with volume overload, it is also important to avoid excessive diuresis, especially for patients who are also on sodium restrictions. Volume depletion can lead to hypotension and prerenal azotemia. For patients concurrently taking ACE inhibitors, renal insufficiency can be induced. Diuretics may be stopped, if necessary, to allow rehydration before restarting an ACE inhibitor. They can be reintroduced after the dose of the ACE inhibitor has been stabilized. ACE inhibitors augment the effectiveness of thiazide and loop diuretics because they decrease glomerular filtration fractions and increase the delivery of solute and water to the distal nephron segments that are responsive to the action of these diuretics. Long-term use of diuretics can stimulate increased R-A-A activity and sodium retention, which are both counterproductive in treating heart failure. This result is less likely with low doses. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. In addition to the potential for fluid volume changes, thiazide and loop diuretics present risks for acid–base and electrolyte disturbances that can be proarrhythmic. Monitoring for these problems is discussed in  Chapter 16 . The most common electrolyte problem is hypokalemia. Any potassium supplementation must be based on serum levels because not all patients become hypokalemic or require supplementation beyond dietary changes. Potassium supplements must be used cautiously, if at all, for patients concurrently taking ACE inhibitors, which cause elevated potassium. Oral potassium supplements should provide chloride as well to prevent diuretic-induced hypokalemic alkalosis. Hypomagnesemia is also common and may impair potassium repletion. Diuretics also contribute to abnormal glucose and lipid metabolism. Care must be taken and diagnostic tests frequently monitored when diuretics must be used for patients with diabetes or lipid abnormalities.   1E09F8007053   39.Procainamide         All antiarrhythmics are metabolized by the liver. Half-lives of these drugs vary from 3 to 4 hours for procainamide to 26 or more days for amiodarone. As the only short-acting antiarrhythmic, procainamide requires frequent dosing administration, with steady state achieved in 2 to 3 days. Other antiarrhythmics have longer half-lives and require more time to achieve steady state. Hepatic impairment increases half-life in those drugs eliminated totally or partially in feces. Renal impairment significantly increases half-life in those drugs eliminated all or largely in the urine. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Reduced dosages of procainamide and quinidine are required for patients with CHF or renal impairment that decreases volumes of distribution of these drugs. Many cardiac patients who need antiarrythmics have either decreased systolic function or renal impairment. Because of these concerns, quinidine and procainamide are infrequently used for such patients. Approximately 10% of patients are slow metabolizers of propafenone, resulting in an increase in half-life from 7 hours to 10 to 32 hours. Because this drug has been associated with proarrhythmia and increased mortality post-MI, the trend is away from its use. Licorice interacts with many medications: antihypertensives, diuretics, corticosteroids, digoxin, loratadine, procainamide, quinidine, and spironolactone. Procainamide can be used in a hemodynamically stable patient for the acute treatment of focal atrial tachycardia and the acute management of stable atrial flutter. It can also be used in the long-term management of recurrent, well-tolerated atrial flutter if combined with an AV node-blocking agent and if no significant structural cardiac disease is present. Generic procainamide requires dosing every 6 to 8 hours; its cost is increased when switched to the sustained-release form, but adherence is improved.         For disopyramide, mexiletine, procainamide sustained-release, propafenone, and tocainide, a dose that is missed should be taken as soon as it is remembered, unless the next dose is due in 4 hours or less. For flecainide, the missed dose should be taken unless the next dose is due in 6 hours, and for sotalol, 8 hours. For quinidine and standard formulations of procainamide, the separation is 2 hours. Procainamide occasionally is associated with a lupus-like syndrome. Joint swelling and rashes should be reported. There are many drug interactions with metformin (Table 21-12). Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors may increase the risk for lactic acidosis and should be used cautiously. Cationic drugs that are eliminated by renal secretion (e.g., amiloride, digoxin, morphine, procainamide, quinidine, ranitidine, triamterene, trimethoprim, and vancomycin) may compete with metformin for its elimination pathway. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Uses This medication is used to treat a certain serious, life-threatening irregular heartbeat (ventricular tachycardia ). It is used to restore normal heart rhythm and to keep a regular, steady heartbeat. Procainamide is known as an anti-arrhythmic drug. It works by blocking certain electrical signals in the heart that can cause an irregular heartbeat.   POWERPOINT : Antiarrhythmic Agents: Membranes stabilizing agents (sodium channel                               blockers): procainimide     40.Primary and Secondary HTN         The level of BP is strongly familial, and studies of rare genetic disorders affecting BP have led to the identification of genetic abnormalities associated with several rare forms of HTN. Genetic polymorphisms have also been discovered that may harbor genes contributing to primary HTN. To date, none of these genetic abnormalities has been shown, either alone or in combination, to be responsible for a clinically significant portion of HTN in the general population. Although 90% to 95% of all cases of HTN are primary in nature with no identifiable cause, there are identifiable causes of HTN in which a cure may be effected by appropriate diagnosis and treatment.   POWERPOINT: Primary or “essential” (95%) HTN Atherosclerosis Secondary (5%) HTN Adrenal, renal BP relies on balance between CO and PVR       41.CCBs CALCIUM CHANNEL BLOCKERS Calcium is a vital component in the excitation-contraction process in muscles, in electrical excitation, and in facilitating myocardial relaxation. Calcium enters cells via three types of voltage-dependent calcium channels (L-type, N-type, and T-type). The L-type, or long-lasting, channels are predominant in cardiac and smooth muscle and are the ones blocked by most calcium channel blockers (CCBs). CCBs have multiple indications, including angina, HTN, and selected tachyarrhythmias. Unlabeled indications include migraine headache prophylaxis, Raynaud’s syndrome, cardiomyopathy, and esophageal spasm. Laboratory evidence indicates that CCBs may interfere with platelet aggregation and reduce the development of atherosclerotic lesions. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Pharmacodynamics As shown in Figure 16-2, contraction of smooth muscles is triggered by an influx of calcium through transmembrane calcium channels. CCBs directly block the influx of calcium at the onset of the cycle, like the sodium channel blockade in local anesthetics. The drugs act from the inner side of the membrane and bind to channels in depolarized membranes, converting the mode of operation of the channel from frequent openings to rare openings. The result is a marked decrease in transmembrane calcium content and prolonged vascular smooth muscle relaxation. The blocking action of CCBs occurs via three different receptors: diphenylalkylamine-based and benzothiazepine-based (both type 1 receptors) and dihydropyridine-based (type 2 receptors). The physiological response in the calcium channel is different for these two receptor types, and these differences are important in the clinical choice of CCB. All CCBs relax arterial smooth muscle but have little effect on venous beds. This results in significant reduction in afterload but limited effect on cardiac preload. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. In cardiac muscle, reduction in contractility (negative inotropism) and decreases in sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodal conduction velocity also occur. Although this is true of all classes of CCBs, the greater degree of vasodilation seen in the dihydropyridines causes sufficient reflex increase in sympathetic tone to overcome the negative inotropic effects. All CCBs are extensively metabolized by the liver via the CYP 3A4 channel. Inducers and inhibitors of that isoenzyme system can affect CCB metabolism. This is more of a problem for type 1 CCBs than for dihydropyridines. Many CCBs have elimination routes in both the urine and the feces (see Table 16-5). Dosage reduction based on renal impairment is recommended only for nicardipine. Most CCBs have short-acting forms with half-lives between 2 and 8 hours and sustained-release forms with half-lives of 12 to 24 hours. Amlodipine is the exception, with a half-life of 30 to 50 hours. Reduced adverse reactions are seen with the use of sustained-release forms. Verapamil has the strongest negative inotropic effect and should be avoided in HF, in which this effect can worsen the disorder. It also has the strongest effect on nodal conduction and can significantly worsen bradycardia. Diltiazem also affects nodal conduction and can worsen or cause bradycardia, although less than verapamil. None of the CCBs are drugs of choice immediately after MI , but diltiazem has shown some benefit in reducing mortality in non–Q-wave MI for a selected group of patients whose ejection fractions are above 40%. For those with ejection fractions below 40% and for all other patients early after MI, type 1 CCBs are contraindicated because of their negative inotropic and bradycardic effects. Patients with ventricular dysfunction, SA or AV nodal conduction disturbances, and SBPs below 90 mm Hg should not be treated with type 1 CCBs because of the high risk for induction of HF and significant hypotension. The more common adverse reactions of CCBs are extensions of their actions. Reduction in BP secondary to vasodilation may result in dizziness, headache, hypotension, and syncope. These lead to HF with congestion, shortness of breath, cough, and palpitations; though a potential class effect, HF is worse with verapamil, diltiazem, and nifedipine. Gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms can include dry mouth, nausea, vomiting, reflux, and constipation. Additive hypotensive effects are major concerns with all CCBs given concurrently with other antihypertensives, nitrates, quinidine, or alcohol. Antihypertensive effects may be decreased with concurrent use of NSAIDs. Verapamil, diltiazem, and some dihydropyridines have an additive bradycardic effect with BBs or digoxin.   Calcium Channel Blockers (headaches) Verapamil (Rx: Calan, Isoptin) Adults: Start with 40 mg bid and slowly increase Children: Not recommended Adults: 480 mg/d Tablets: 40, 80, 120, mg – Contraindicated in pregnancy (Category C), Parkinson’s disease, and depression. – May be first-line choice in patients with hypertension who cannot take beta blockers.   Calcium channel blockers are also commonly used for migraine preventive therapy, although their effectiveness has had mixed results and they should not be a first-line choice. Calcium channel blockers are thought to prevent migraine by inhibiting vasospasm of the cerebral arteries and by preventing cerebral hypoxia during migraine attacks.                Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin) is the most commonly used for migraine prevention. Nifedipine and diltiazem are not as effective in controlling migraines and probably should not be prescribed for this use. Calcium channel blockers may be the first-line choice for patients with hypertension who cannot take beta blockers. Dosing of verapamil is shown in Table 35-2. Adverse effects include sedation, weight gain, depression, and extrapyramidal symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in pregnancy, Parkinson’s disease, and depression.           While the pathology of HF is associated with altered contractility in part associated with calcium movement within the cell, calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are used with considerable caution (Yancy et al, 2013). The NICE (2010) guidelines state that patients should not be routinely treated with calcium channel blockers for HF.   Calcium channel blockers act as vasodilators to reduce pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle, the reby dilating resistance vessels and increasing the area over which blood must flow, and through their negative inotropic activity to reduce cardiac output. Direct vasodilators produce the same effect as the calcium channel blockers on vascular smooth muscle.   In African Americans, calcium channel blockers are suggested as first line BP therapy in lieu of the ACE family due to a common lower renin response in this ethnic group. ACE medications are added to the regimen to cover all pertinent indications. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Powerpoint: (Week 3) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) cause arterial smooth muscle relaxation, which leads to peripheral vasodilation and decreased afterload. CCBs may cause coronary vasodilation. Atherosclerotic vessels do not dilate. Functionally act as vasodilators, lowering calcium (Ca++) influx into smooth muscles Two major classes Type I – Non-dihydropyridines: affect conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node and have negative chronotropic effects Why it is used in treating supraventricular tachycardia Diltiazem (Cardizem), verapamil (Calan) Type II – Dihydropyridines: do not affect conduction through the AV node Nifedipine (Procardia), amlopidine (Norvasc), felodipine (Plendil) Pharmacokinetics: All CCBs are metabolized by the liver, CYP 450 3A4. ADRs: All are very constipating and can cause dizziness, headache, edema, rash, and gingival hyperplasia. Monitoring Verapamil has strongest negative inotropic effect and should be avoided in patients with HF. Using CCB/ACE combination decreases peripheral edema by 50% vs. those on CCB high dose alone. Patient education: pregnancy category C Avoid NSAIDs, alcohol, being in jacuzzi alone. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Gastroesophageal reflux disease symptoms get worse due to decrease in esophageal tone.   Class IV: calcium channel blockers Block the influx of calcium, reduction in contractility (negative inotropism), decrease SA and AV node conduction Significantly reduce afterload but little effect on preload Verapamil, diltiazem, bepridil CCBs (stable angina) Initial drugs of choice for coronary artery vasospasm associated angina Combinations of BBs and CCBs have been shown to be more effective than the individual drugs used alone. CCBs and ACEIs are the most expensive. Generics less expensive   CLINICAL PEARL Constipation is especially common with verapamil, with almost 100% of patients experiencing significant issues. Patients taking this drug should be encouraged to increase the fiber in their diet and may need to use a stool softener.     42.Heart Failure         Heart failure is a complex clinical syndrome that can result from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that results in a cardiac output that is inadequate to satisfy the oxygen demands of the body. In HF, several abnormalities occur. Coronary artery disease (CAD) causing myocardial ischemia is the underlying cause in about two-thirds of patients with left ventricular dysfunction. Four main categories of drugs are used to treat HF, whether it is systolic or diastolic in nature. The four categories of drugs: diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, cardiac glycosides, and the beta blockers. (Loop diuretics, Dig, ACEI, BB- pharm in flash)           Diuretics reduce preload by decreasing extracellular fluid volume and can be used to decrease hypertension that increases afterload. ACE inhibitors act on the R-A-A system to decrease preload and afterload. They also affect heart tissue remodeling so that fewer abnormal myocardial cells are generated. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, improves myocardial contractility and cardiac output. Beta-adrenergic blockers affect the SNS counterregulatory mechanism of HF. Aldosterone antagonists augment the actions of ACE inhibitors on the R-A-A system. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. The drugs used to treat HF vary in cost from minimal to quite expensive. Diuretics are among the least expensive, but they vary from indapamide (Lozol) ($25 per month) to generic HCTZ ($1.04 per month). HCTZ is the drug of choice for a variety of reasons, and cost certainly also makes it desirable. The ACE inhibitors have become less expensive because several of them are now available as a generic formulation. Because digitalis has been used for so long, it is among the least expensive. Hyperkalemia risk increases for patients with chronic heart failure (HF) because of the reduced blood flow to the kidneys. Patients should have their serum potassium level checked prior to initiating therapy and within one week to note trends. Heart Failure: CAD is the underlying cause in about two-thirds of patients with LV dysfunction, which begins with some injury to the myocardium and progresses even in the absence of additional myocardial insults. The principal mechanism relates to remodeling. ACEIs and ARBs are useful in treating heart failure related to CAD, primarily for their role in reducing remodeling. Another underlying cause for HF is chronic HTN. ACEIs and ARBs are also effective in treating this underlying cause. DRIs do not carry an indication for HF. ACEIs are a cornerstone of therapy for HF and are recommended for patients with a history of atherosclerotic vascular disease, diabetes mellitus, or HTN. They have been shown to improve symptoms, decrease morbidity, and increase life expectancy. Because they are the only drugs that address all of the pathological mechanisms that produce HF, they are appropriate for all subsets of patients unless these patients have an absolute contraindication. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. They are also useful for preventing the development of HF in patients with ventricular dysfunction but no overt symptoms. ACEIs are superior to all other drugs and drug combinations used to treat HF. They should be started immediately without waiting for symptoms to become overt. For symptomatic HF, the dose is about half that used for HTN. Start low and go slow also applies here. In patients with congestive heart failure (CHF) and low ejection fractions (less than 40%), the vasodilating effect of ACEIs provides adequate perfusion even with SBP below 90 mm Hg. For patients who cannot tolerate an ACEI, hydralazine, in combination with a long-acting nitrate (ISDN), BiDil has been shown to be equally effective in reducing morbidity and mortality from HF. This is especially noted in African Americans (see Chap. 36 ). Although no longer the first-line drug for treatment of HF, digoxin is still central to treatment for patients with severe systolic dysfunction (ejection fractions less than 40% and with an audible S 3 heart sound).   CLINICAL PEARL Heart failure treatment CGs should not be used unless there is clear evidence of severe chronic systolic dysfunction or atrial fibrillation. In older adults, ankle edema is more often due to venous insufficiency than to heart failure. Even if it is related to heart failure, it is more often caused by diastolic dysfunction and better treated with diuretics or ACEIs. Digoxin should not be discontinued unless a reversible cause of the heart failure has been completely corrected or there was no basis for the drug in the first place. ST-T wave changes on the ECG do not correlate directly with serum drug levels and should not be used as an indication of toxicity. Serum drug levels are needed. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Powerpoint: (week 3 starting on slide 137)   HF Patho: Complex syndrome that can result from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricles to fill or eject blood (cardiac output – CO) Determinants of ventricular function Preload, afterload Contractility, stroke volume, CO Heart rate Left ventricular dysfunction Increase in end systolic volume Increase in end diastolic volume Pulmonary congestion Decreased CO, hypoperfusion Compensatory systems Sympathetic activation Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system   Treatment of HF: Stage A ACEIs are drug of choice. ARBs are considered but more expensive. Stage B ACEI in all patients, ARB for those who cannot tolerate an ACEI BBs in most Stage C ACEI and BBs (nonselective) in all patients Diuretics, digoxin Spironolactone Stage D Stage C treatments Inotropes: dobutamine Ventricular assist device, transplantation, hospice Patient Variables and Heart Failure Left ventricular dysfunction Increase in end systolic volume Increase in end diastolic volume Pulmonary congestion Decreased CO, hypoperfusion Compensatory systems Sympathetic activation Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system Hypertension Use diuretics early to decrease preload. ACEIs Hyperlipidemia Statins Infants and children Digoxin, thiazide, and loop diuretics all used Pregnancy ACEIs contraindicated in pregnancy Diuretics may decrease placental perfusion.   Monitoring HF: Functional capacity Fluid status Weight changes Jugular venous distension Cardiac rhythm Labs Electrolytes Creatinine Thyroid and liver function   43.Angina—treatment and grading         ACEIs are recommended for all symptomatic patients with chronic stable angina to prevent MI or death and to reduce symptoms. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   GRADING:   Powerpoint: (CH 28)- WEEK 3   Treatment of Angina Lifestyle changes Surgical intervention Pharmacological management Aspirin Nitrates Beta blockers Calcium channel blockers Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Statins Agents that serve to increase myocardial oxygen supply Nitrates (nitroglycerin, isosorbide) Prototype: nitroglycerine (NTG) Calcium channel blockers   Acute angina attack: Use nitroglycerin (NTG). Sublingual NTG , a short-acting form, is 0.4 to 0.6 mg every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Predictable angina: Use isosorbide. Isosorbide dinitrate: 10 to 40 mg orally 2 to 3 times daily; sustained-release form 40 to 80 mg daily Isosorbide mononitrate: Dosing is 20 mg twice daily. Eccentric scheduling to avoid development of tolerance Take the drug exactly as prescribed. Eccentric dosing schedule separated by 7 hours due to need to have nitrate-free period Take at 7 to 8 a.m. and 2 to 3 p.m. rather than “usual” twice daily regimen. Need nitrate-free interval of 10 to 12 hours. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. If anginal symptoms occur at night, have a daytime nitrate-free interval. Storage of NTG Adhere to the expiration date on the bottle, usually 6 months. Do not open the bottle frequently or keep bottles of tablets next to the body (in a shirt pocket).   Drugs for Stable Angina: ACEIs Recommended for all symptomatic patients with chronic stable angina to prevent MI)or death and to reduce symptoms. Angiotensin II receptor blocker For patients who are intolerant to ACE inhibitors BBs Recommended as initial therapy by all the guidelines for all patients CCBs Initial drugs of choice for coronary artery vasospasm associated angina   44.Nitroglycerin For oral doses of Nitro taken more than once daily, a nitrate-free interval of 10 to 12 hours is necessary to prevent nitrate tolerance. An eccentric dosing schedule separated by 7 hours (e.g., 7 a.m., 2 p.m.) must be explained to help adherence. At the first sign of an angina attack, the patient should sit down and place one sublingual tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. It should not be swallowed. If the pain is not relieved, repeat every 5 minutes for up to three doses. The major adverse reactions are throbbing headaches, rapid heart rates, and decreased BP when arising from a sitting or lying position, with the potential for fainting. Headache may be severe; it is best treated with acetaminophen (Tylenol). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. For all forms, doses should not be doubled and should not be discontinued abruptly, which may result in rebound angina.                     Concurrent use of alcohol should be avoided with these drugs. Because some OTC drugs interact with nitrates or contain alcohol, no new OTC drugs should be taken, including cold remedies, without first discussing this with the health-care provider. In generic form, the cost of NTG is low.   (Powerpoint): Oral Nitro Sublingual tablet Extended-release buccal tablet Extended-release capsule Lingual aerosol Chewable tablet Ointment Transdermal topical systems   Acute angina attack: Use nitroglycerin (NTG). Sublingual NTG , a short-acting form, is 0.4 to 0.6 mg every 5 minutes for up to three doses. Predictable angina: Use isosorbide. Isosorbide dinitrate: 10 to 40 mg orally 2 to 3 times daily; sustained-release form 40 to 80 mg daily Isosorbide mononitrate: Dosing is 20 mg twice daily. Eccentric scheduling to avoid development of tolerance Take the drug exactly as prescribed. Eccentric dosing schedule separated by 7 hours due to need to have nitrate-free period Take at 7 to 8 a.m. and 2 to 3 p.m. rather than “usual” twice daily regimen. Need nitrate-free interval of 10 to 12 hours. If anginal symptoms occur at night, have a daytime nitrate-free interval. Storage of NTG Adhere to the expiration date on the bottle, usually 6 months. Do not open the bottle frequently or keep bottles of tablets next to the body (in a shirt pocket).   45.Short Acting and Long acting nitrates         Sublingual NTG has rapid action, long-established efficacy, easy use, and low cost. A disadvantage is its short duration of action. It is also volatile and must be kept in a tightly capped, amber container and stored in a cool place. Once a bottle is opened, it is generally effective for only about 6 months. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Onset and duration of action of a single metered dose of translingual spray is about the same as for sublingual NTG. Each canister contains 200 doses and retains efficacy for up to 3 years. Some skill is required to use it; however, patients with advanced arthritis may prefer it to opening tightly closed bottles. Cost per dose is substantially higher than for the sublingual form, but the prolonged shelf-life helps reduce total cost for those patients who rarely need a dose. It is also a good alternative for patients who wear dentures or have dry mucosa. Transdermal delivery systems offer easy use and release NTG at a constant rate to maintain steady-state plasma levels. Bioavailability varies significantly from patient to patient. Physical exercise and ambient temperatures may increase absorption. Oral NTG has questionable efficacy and is available only in sustained release, a form associated with increased incidence of tolerance. Among the oral nitrates, isosorbide dinitrate provides sustained nitrate activity and better anginal prophylaxis. Single doses significantly improve hemodynamic parameters and exercise tolerance for up to 4 hours. Its action is not as rapid as sublingual NTG but does occur in 15 to 30 minutes, which is appropriate for angina prevention but not emergency intervention. For patients who respond well to sublingual or translingual nitroglycerin and who experience angina episodes more than “rarely,” and who are intolerant of beta blockers, long-acting oral or transdermal nitrates are generally indicated. Among the available drugs, the most cost-effective are isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) given daily or nitroglycerin transdermal patches applied daily with a 10 to 12 hour nitrate-free interval to prevent nitrate tolerance. The timing of the nitrate-free interval should coincide with the time of fewest episodes of angina, which is typically at night. The administration schedule that seems most effective is 7 a.m. and 2 p.m. daily. Headache is the most common adverse reaction but resolves over time. Starting with low doses and slowly increasing the dose reduces the incidence of headache. To prevent or reduce the development of tolerance, a nitrate-free interval of 10 to 12 hours/day is required. This is why nitro patches are applied and removed within a set period of time. Sustained-release preparations are more likely to lead to tolerance and should be avoided unless used daily. Short-acting products with two or three doses daily are less likely to lead to tolerance. For twice-daily dosing, use an eccentric dosing schedule separated by 7 hours (e.g., 7 a.m., 2 p.m.). Patients whose anginal symptoms occur at night may do best with a daytime nitrate-free interval, and the reverse holds for those whose symptoms occur during the daytime. If around-the-clock coverage is necessary for anginal symptoms, using a BB or CCB during the nitrate-free interval may be needed. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   46.Nitrates and medication interactions Drug Interactions -Additive hypotension is possible with other drug classes that have actions or adverse effects of hypotension (i.e., antihypertensives, BBs, CCBs, haloperidol, or phenothiazines). -Drugs with anticholinergic effects may decrease absorption of sublingual or buccal NTG. -Aspirin increases nitrate serum concentrations and may potentiate their action. -Nitrates may decrease the pharmacological effects of heparin.                    -Specific drug interactions and the appropriate actions to prevent them are given in Table 16-17.   Precautions and Contraindications Precautions and contraindications are largely related to the actions of these drugs. Vasodilation can result in increased intracranial pressure, so nitrates are contraindicated in head trauma or cerebral hemorrhage. Vasodilation can also result in postural hypotension. Patients with volume depletion and anemia should avoid using nitrates. Drug Facts and Comparisons (Wolters Kluwer Health, 2011) states that closed-angle glaucoma is also a contraindication because intraocular pressure (IOP) may be increased. Some individuals have hypersensitivity or idiosyncratic responses to nitrates and must avoid them. For the transdermal patches, allergy to their adhesive may limit their use. Because the activity of these drugs may compromise maternal-to-fetal circulation, they are Pregnancy Category C. Amyl nitrite is Pregnancy Category X because it markedly reduces system BP and blood flow on the maternal side of the placenta. It is not known if nitrates are excreted in breast milk. The importance of the drug for the mother and possible risks to the infant should be taken into consideration when deciding on nitrate use in nursing mothers. Safety and efficacy in children have not been established.   Adverse Drug Reactions The major adverse reactions are direct extensions of therapeutic vasodilation: orthostatic hypotension with potential for syncope, tachycardia, and throbbing headache. Hypotension may result in decreased diastolic filling pressure, and the tachycardia may result in decreased diastolic filling time, leading to myocardial ischemia, arrhythmias, and rebound HTN. Headache may be severe and persists in up to 50% of patients. For patients with severe, persistent headache, it may be necessary to use a different drug group to treat the disease process. Less common adverse reactions include nausea, vomiting, incontinence of urine and feces, dysuria, impotence, and urinary frequency. Nonallergic rash and cutaneous vasodilation with flushing may occur with transdermal applications. This can be reduced by rotating sites. The vasodilating effect is linked with an increased risk of age-related macular degeneration (Klein et al, 2014).   CLINICAL PEARL Patients with migraine headaches are especially at risk for nitrate headaches . Start them first on a beta blocker for migraine prophylaxis, and then add the nitrate to prevent the problem with chronic use. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. LONG-ACTING NITRATES: Oral or patch (transdermal) Used for patients intolerant to BBs Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil) given 2 or 3 times/day With a 10 to 12 hour nitrate – free interval to prevent nitrate tolerance Timing of the nitrate – free interval should coincide with the time of fewest episodes of angina. SHORT – ACTING (***No specific slide for short) Acute angina attack: Use nitroglycerin (NTG). Sublingual NTG , a short-acting form, is 0.4 to 0.6 mg every 5 minutes for up to three doses.   47.Hyperlipidemia —factors to determine treatment         Hyperlipidemia presents a problem in therapeutic management because patients are usually asymptomatic until damage to the cardiovascular system occurs. Central aspects of treatment are lifestyle modifications, especially dietary, which include the reduction of elements that are often perceived as “making food taste good.” Finally, patients often want a prescription for a drug that will “cure” the problem, which currently is not a realistic treatment option. The drugs that are prescribed for hyperlipidemia are added to the therapeutic plan after lifestyle management has failed because the medications available can potentially produce serious adverse events. For effective management of hyperlipidemia, the treatment protocol must be palatable and low cost and have the fewest possible side effects. The factors to consider before developing a treatment plan are the presence or the absence of CVD, any associated risk factors, specific patient variables and desires, patient interest, plus a realistic consideration of a cost–benefit ratio.         Multiple patient variables based on risk profiles are considered in setting individual goals for lipoprotein levels. The guidelines highlighting a 7.5% risk level are not meant to be absolute standards for starting medications, but only a trigger point for consideration of personal risks. These risks fall into modifiable and nonmodifiable categories. The modifiable risk factors such as diet, smoking behavior, and exercise are targets of therapy through lifestyle modifications. Nonmodifiable risk factors include age, gender, race, and family history. Both categories of risk factors are part of the calculation of overall risk for CVD. Table 39-2 presents the major risk factors for CVD exclusive of the serum LDL. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Five factors are considered contributory to low risk and negative risk for CVD: not smoking, normal BP, normal weight, normal glucose metabolism, and low cholesterol levels.   Look to figure: 39-2 Positive RISK (CHD): Age: Male: ≥45; Female: ≥55 Family history: Premature CHD (MI or sudden death before 55 yr in father or other male first-degree relative or before 65 yr in mother or female first-degree relative) NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Cigarette smoking: Current smoking (any cigarette smoking in past month) Hypertension : BP ≥140/90 mm Hg or on antihypertensive medication HDL cholesterol: HDL ≤40 mg/dL Diabetes mellitus: Presence, especially if poorly controlled     Powerpoint Drug therapies for Hyperlipidemia: HMG CoA reductase inhibitors Lovastatin, pravastatin, simvastatin, fluvastatin, atorvastatin, rosuvastatin Fibrates: fibric acid derivatives Gemfibrozil, micronized fenofibrate, clofibrate Bile acid sequestrants Cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam Niacin (has lost its luster) Ezetimibe ( Zetia ): most effective in combination with statin Vitamins/antioxidants/herbs/natural products Vitamin E, C, folic acid, garlic, fish oils, fiber, coenzyme Q10, flaxseed * Active liver disease is a contraindication for all except the bile acid sequestrants.   48.Thiazide diuretics         The thiazide-type diuretics act on the distal renal tubule to inhibit sodium reabsorption. Their effect is generally longer-lasting, and they cause less brisk diuresis.         Diuretics are still considered first-line therapy for HTN with the JNC-8. Thiazide diuretics are the most commonly prescribed agents for HTN. Higher doses of these drugs can cause modest and often transient increases in serum LDL cholesterol and TG, with little or no adverse effects on HDL cholesterol. Electrolyte imbalances are common in all diuretic classes. Thiazide and loop diuretics cause hypokalemia and may cause hypercalcemia, hyponatremia, and hypomagnesemia. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Several thiazide and loop diuretics are Pregnancy Category C and should be used only when benefits clearly outweigh risks. Thiazide and loop diuretics decrease the renal excretion of lithium and may induce lithium toxicity. These two classes may decrease the action of sulfonylureas and insulin. Thiazide diuretics and spironolactone diminish the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.   Powerpoint: Thiazide diuretics HCTZ, chlorthalidone, indapamide, metolozone High dose therapy (HCTZ greater than 50) has increased risk of hypokalemia, increase in uric acid levels, and serious CV outcomes; Use in combination vs. pushing high doses Watch with patients with hyperlipidemia. May increase glucose levels in DM Initial drug therapy for HTN   Stage I: systolic blood pressure (SBP) 140 to 159/diastolic blood pressure (DBP) 90 to 99 Diuretics: thiazide-type May consider angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), calcium channel blocker (CCB), or combination Stage II: SBP greater than or equal to 160/DBP greater than or equal to 100 Two-drug combination: thiazide-type and ACEI, ARB, beta blocker (BB), or CCB With compelling indications: heart failure (HF), DM, stroke, chronic kidney failure, point of maximal impact Diuretics , ACEI, ARB, BB, CCB as needed   49.HTN treatment in African Americans/Diabetics                 African American and HTN:         The prevalence of hypertension in African Americans is among the highest in the world (Brown, 2006). An estimated 30% of all deaths in this population are attributable to HTN, which develops at younger ages than it does in whites.         The underlying pathology associated with hypertension in African Americans is thought to be salt sensitivity (Brown, 2006). This increased sensitivity to salt, along with the high prevalence in this population of obesity, cigarette smoking, and type 2 diabetes mellitus, means that lifestyle modifications are especially efficacious. Salt intake should be reduced to less than 6 g per day, and weight should be reduced, if necessary, to approach ideal body weight. If these modifications do not result in achievement of the BP goal, diuretics have been proved in RCTs to reduce morbidity and mortality and are the first agents of choice unless there are compelling reasons to choose another drug class (Gerber et al, 2013). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line therapy for African Americans (James et al, 2014). The Atherosclerosis Risk in Communities (ARIC ) study found, however, that ACE medications are the most commonly prescribed for this group (Miedema, 2014). Monotherapy with most beta-adrenergic blockers is less effective than in whites but should still be used for the post-MI mortality benefit. Racial differences in adverse responses to antihypertensive drugs may occur even in monotherapy. African Americans and Asians, for example, have a 3- to 4-fold higher risk of angioedema (ALLHAT, 2002; Wright et al, 2009), and more cough has been attributed to ACE inhibitors than in whites. Other concomitant diseases that may affect the choice of drugs are discussed later. In African Americans, calcium channel blockers are suggested as first line BP therapy in lieu of the ACE family due to a common lower renin response in this ethnic group. ACE medications are added to the regimen to cover all pertinent indications.   DM and HTN: Angiotensin-converting enzyme ( ACE ) inhibitors, for example, are drugs of choice in diabetes mellitus , heart failure, and myocardial infarction (MI). An ACE inhibitor and a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker may reduce proteinuria in a patient with diabetes better than either drug alone. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. In the presence of diabetes mellitus, ACE inhibitors should be used for their renal protective properties.   Powerpoint: African Americans : have a higher and earlier HTN incidence. Reduced response to monotherapy, beta blockers, ACEIs, and ARBs Equal response if mixed with diuretic BiDil is the first drug suggested for African-American patients specifically. ACEI- Not as effective for African-American patients When combined with a diuretic, race no longer an issue However, African Americans and Asians have three to four times greater risk of developing angioedema. Beta Adrenergic Blockers- More effective in African-American and older patients   Diabetes ACEIs: are drug of choice in patients with diabetes. Thiazides may increase glucose levels. Avoid beta blockers.     ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE 50.Statins: HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitors (Powerpoint): Statins: HMG CoA Reductase Inhibitors HMG CoA reductase inhibitors: Lova statin , prava statin , simva statin , fluvastatin, atorvastatin, rosuvastatin Block synthesis of cholesterol in the liver by competitively inhibiting HMG CoA reductase activity. Decrease levels of LDL by 25% to 65%. Modest decreases in triglycerides (10% to 40%) and very modest increases in HDL (5% to 17%) may occur. Pregnancy category X All statins (except fluvastatin and rosuvastatin) are metabolized at least in part by CYP 3A. CYP 3A inhibitors may increase statin concentrations. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Verapamil, diltiazem, azole antifungals, erythromycin, fluoxetine, nefazodone, protease inhibitors CYP 3A inducers may decrease statin concentrations. Rifampin, phenytoin, phenobarbital Statins may also interact with other CYP 3A substrates; for example, cyclosporine.   Statins: ADRs Common: HA, myalgia, fatigue, GI intolerance, flu-like symptoms Myopathy : occurs in 0.2% to 0.4% of patients, some agents more likely Reduced by using lowest effective dose Cautiously combining statins with fibrates Avoiding drug interactions Increase in liver enzymes not enough to warrant frequent labs Active liver disease is a contraindication. Occurs in 0.5% to 2.5% of cases and is dose-dependent Serious liver problems are rare. Manage by reducing dose or stopping until levels return to normal. Start with lower dose and increase as needed according to LDL response; absolute levels of LDL not as closely monitored now. Rosuvastatin most potent: 5 to 20 mg day Atorvastatin next most potent (best ADR profile) 10 mg/day initially, increase no fewer than 2 to 4 weeks Simvastatin: 20 to 40 mg/day Lovastatin (IR) 20 mg/day (XR) 40 to 60 mg Pravastatin: 40 mg/day Pediatric dosing for children 8 to 13 years: 20 mg/day Doses often are given traditionally in the evening/bedtime. May need to decrease dose occasionally. When adding potentially interacting drug Profound drop in LDL Monitoring Lipid levels in 4 to 6 weeks then every 3 to 4 months until control established LDL levels most important in those with suspected liver issues and in persons with prior severe liver disease. Liver function tests (LFTs) before starting therapy and 3 to 6 months later only No longer frequent monitoring unless underlying hepatic issues Patient education Lifestyle changes Diet Exercise   51.COPD and Asthma Treatment—know guidelines, staging, treatment, exacerbations, meds, etc. ASTHMA: ASTHMA: Pathophysiology Chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways Recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, and chest tightness Airflow obstruction is reversible. National Asthma Education and Prevention Program Expert Panel 3 Guidelines (2007) are used for management of all types of asthma. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Classification of asthma Mild intermittent Mild persistent Moderate persistent Severe persistent Adult and children definitions differ slightly. Goals of therapy Reduce impairment Prevent chronic symptoms. Reduce use of inhaled short-acting beta agonists. Maintain normal or near-normal pulmonary function. Maintain normal activity levels. Meet patient/family expectations of asthma care. Reduce risk Prevent recurrent exacerbations and minimize emergency department (ED) visits and hospitalizations. Prevent loss of lung function. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Provide optimal therapy with minimal adverse drug reactions (ADRs).   ASTHMA STEP THERAPY: First determine severity of asthma symptoms. Go to Step Therapy Chart and start at recommended step. The Expert Panel 3 Guidelines prefer an aggressive approach to gaining quick control. Asthma control is “the degree to which the manisfestations of asthma are minimized by therapeutic intervention and the goals of therapy are met” (NAEPP, 2007). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. MILD INTERMITTENT ASTHMA: Step 1 therapy Use short-acting beta 2 agonists as needed                        for symptoms. Patients have symptoms when exposed to triggers (upper respiratory infections, allergens, chemical inhalants). Exercise can be mild intermittent. Need an annual flu shot. MILD PERSISTANT ASTHMA: Step 2 therapy Treat with one long-term control medication daily. Low-dose inhaled corticosteriods are the mainstay for all age patients. Cromolyn or a leukotriene modifier are alternatives. See dosage charge for low-dose schedule of each inhaled corticosteroid. Use beta agonists as needed; if using 2 days or more per week, then step up in therapy. MODERATE PERSISTANT ASTHMA: Step 3 therapy Treat with medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids. Or low-dose inhaled steroids plus long-acting beta agonists (adults) Alternative: medium-dose inhaled steroid plus leukotriene receptor modifier May use short-acting beta agonists. Exacerbations may require oral corticosteroids. SEVERE PERSISTANT ASTHMA: Step 4 therapy Medium-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting beta agonist Or medium-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a leukotriene modifier or theophylline Step 5 therapy High-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting beta agonists Step 6 therapy High-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting beta agonists and oral corticosteroids Severe persistent asthma requires consultation with         asthma specialist. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. ASTHMA MONITORING: Once control is achieved, the patient is seen every 1 to 6 months to determine if a step up or step down in therapy is indicated. The Expert Panel 3 Guidelines recommend the dose of inhaled corticosteroids be reduced about 25% to 50% every 2 to 3 months to lowest possible dose to maintain control. ASTHMA: MANAGING EXACERBATIONS Treat with oral steroids to regain control. Use a short burst Adults: 40 to 60 mg/day for 5 to 10 days Children: 1 to 2 mg/kg daily (maximum 60 mg/day) for 3 to 10 days If not effective, then step up in therapy. HOME MANAGEMENT OF EXACERBATION: Assess severity Patients at risk of fatal asthma attack include: previous severe exacerbations requiring intubation or intensive care unit admission, two or more hospitalizations or three ED visits in past year, use of more than two short-acting beta agonist inhalers per month, worsening asthma, low socioeconomic status In-home treatment Increase inhaled beta-agonist (2 to 6 puffs every 20 minutes) Oral corticosteroids Good response: stepped up therapy for several days   PREGNANT PATIENTS: Monitor asthma symptoms at each prenatal visit. Inhaled beta-agonists are drug of choice during pregnancy. Inhaled corticosteroids are the long-term drug of choice. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. PEDIATRIC PATIENTS: Three categories of wheezing in children younger than age 5 years Transient early wheezing Persistent early-onset wheezing Late-onset wheezing/asthma The Expert Panel 3 Guidelines have treatment categories for 0 to 4 years and 5 to 11 years. Stepwise approach is similar in adults and children, but not the same. Some medications not approved or should not be used in children. Long-acting beta agonists should not be prescribed singly, need to be combined with an inhaled corticosteroid.   PED ASTHMA CHALLENGES: Delivering medication to children Use Aerochamber with mask for infants and young children. Use spacer for all children. Home nebulizer is an option. School-age and adolescent children need to use inhalers at school. Need education and observation of self-administration. Will need note for school to use medication at school. Provide asthma action plan for school nurse.   OLDER ADULTS AND ASTHMA: Determine if symptoms are reversible (asthma) or not (possibly COPD) Medications Increased ADRs Interactions with medications taken for chronic medical conditions (beta blockers)   SPECIAL CONSIDERATIONS: Seasonal allergies Start long-term control medications more than 1 month before allergy season starts. Cough variant asthma Trial of bronchodilator Same stepwise management Exercise induced asthma (EIA) Most asthmatics have EIA. Treatment Short-acting beta agonist 15 minutes before exercise (2 to 3 hours) Salmeterol lasts 10 to 12 hours (cannot use if using as long-term care medication) Mask or scarf over mouth if EIA is cold-induced Leukotriene modifier may help   MONITORING : The Expert Panel 3 Guidelines recommend ongoing monitoring of the following six areas: Signs and symptoms Pulmonary function Quality of life and functional status History of asthma exacerbations, pharmacotherapy Patient-provider communication Patient satisfaction   OUTCOME EVALUATION: Optimal outcome is being able to do activities of daily living with minimal asthma symptoms. Refer to an asthma specialist If difficulty achieving or maintaining control If immunosuppressive therapy being considered Any adult who requires step 4 therapy or child who requires step 3 therapy NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide   PATIENT EDUCATION: Written asthma action plan Overall treatment plan Specific drug therapy Drugs as part of treatment regimen Adherence issues Review asthma action plan routinely, at least every 6 months. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.           52.SABAs Short-acting beta agonists Albuterol (ProAir, Ventolin, Proventil) Metaproterenol (Alupent) Terbutaline (Brethine, Brethaire) Bitolterol (Tornalate) Pirbuterol (Maxair ) Levalbuterol (Xopenex) Albuterol: Selective beta 2 agonist with minor beta 1  activity Levalbuterol is where the (S)-isomer from racemic albuterol is removed. Salmeterol is more selective for beta 2 receptors than albuterol and has minor beta 1 Salmeterol: 12 hour half-life   Bronchodilators: SHORT Acting Beta Agonists (SABA) (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma)   Al buterol (Ventolin) Pir buterol (Maxair) Leval buterol (Xopenex)                                ( B uterol)**   Action of Bronchodilators: Short Acting Beta Agonists: SABAs Stimulate beta 2 receptors in the lungs causing rapid bronchodilation (B eta 2 receptors= B ronchodilation)**   Bronchodilators: Short Acting Beta Agonists: Comments: Albuterol is the therapy of choice for relief of acute symptoms of bronchoconstriction Albuterol: Use for rapid symptom relief Albuteral: Can increase heart rate Albuterol : Can increase Blood pressure Albuterol: Can cause QT prolongation and ST segment depression Albuterol: Tolerance develops with prolonged use. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.    NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide LABAs Long-acting beta agonists Salmeterol (Serevent) Formoterol (Foradil) Indacaterol (Arcapta Neohaler) Arformoterol (Brovana)   Bronchodilators: LONG Acting Beta Agonists (LABA)           (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma)   Sal meterol (Serevent) For moterol (Foradil)                                (M eterol and M oterol)**   Action of Bronchodilators (Long Acting Beta Agonists): LABAs Stimulate beta 2 receptors in the lungs causing bronchodilation   Bronchodilators (Long Acting Beta Agonists): Comment: Do not use long-acting agents for immediate relief of acute symptoms These agents take 10-20 minutes to produce bronchodilation Should only be used in combination with inhaled steroid for asthma     Beta 2  Agonists (Saba/Laba) Precautions and contraindications   Cardiac arrhythmias Diabetics: potential drug-induced hyperglycemia Long-acting beta agonists Black Box warning: The risks of salmeterol (Serevent) and formoterol (Foradil) outweighed the benefits and should not be used singly in asthma for all ages. Two-fold increase in catastrophic events (asthma-related intubations and death) Terbutaline pregnancy category B (others category C) Children Albuterol safe for all age children Salmeterol should not be used in children less than age 4 years and never singly. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Beta Agonist ADRs : Usually transient Tachycardia and palpitations Some central nervous system (CNS) excitation effects Tremors, dizziness, shakiness, nervousness,           and restlessness Headaches Salmeterol has an increased risk of exacerbation of severe asthma symptoms if the patient is deteriorating. Digitalis glycosides: increased risk of dysrhythmia Beta adrenergic blocking agents: direct competition for beta sites resulting in mutual inhibition of therapeutic effects Including beta blocker eye drops Tricyclic antidepressants and monoamine oxidase inhibitors potentiate effects of beta agonist on vascular system. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. CLINCAL USE of Beta Agonists: Bronchodilators are used primarily in the treatment of bronchospasm associated with asthma, bronchitis (acute or chronic), and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Albuterol metered dose inhaler (MDI) dose is 2 puffs every 4 to 6 hours. Via nebulizer dose is 2.5 mg/dose Dose may be repeated twice after 5 to 10 minutes. May combine with ipratropium Levalbuterol via nebulizer every 6 to 8 hours Salmeterol DISKUS: 1 puff twice a day Do not use alone for persistent asthma, combine with an       inhaled corticosteroid. Exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB) Albuterol: 2 puffs 15 minutes before exercise Salmeterol: 2 puffs 30 to 60 minutes before exercise Do not use if already on daily dose of salmeterol. Leukotriene modifiers taken daily may decrease EIB symptoms in 50% of patients, but patient will still need to use albuterol before exercise. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Beta Agonist: Drug selection: The Expert Panel 3 says any short-acting beta agonist can be used in adults. Age Only albuterol and metaproterenol are approved for use in children younger than 4 years. Albuterol is the safest to use in infants. Cost Albuterol is the least expensive. Beta Agonist: Education: MDI use Demonstrate and have patient do return demonstration. Check correct inhaler use if patient says the inhaler isn’t working. Use a spacer with all patients. Breath-actuated inhalers require inspiratory drive to deliver medication to lungs. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Anticholinergics : Inhaled Anticholinergics: Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) Blocks the muscarinic cholinergic receptors Tiotropium bromide (Spiriva) Inhibits the muscarinic M 3 receptors in the lungs Both cause bronchial smooth muscle relaxation Anticholinergic: Precautions and Contraindications: Known hypersensitivity Not used for acute bronchospasm Ipratropium bromide is pregnancy category B and tiotropium is pregnancy category C. Not approved for use in children Expert Panel 3 guidelines state ipratropium may be used in children as an adjunct to beta agonist (albuterol) therapy in acute exacerbations of asthma. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Anticholinergic: Adverse Drug Reactions: Cough is most common Dry mouth Mild anticholinergic effects in a few patients Constipation Urinary retention (less than 2%) Rare allergic reaction Allergy to soybeans, legumes, or soy lecithin appears to be correlated with hypersensitivity to ipratropium bromide.   Inhaled Anticholinergic: Clinical Use and Dosing: COPD Ipratropium: 2 puffs (36 µg) 4 times/day (maximum 12 puffs per day) Ipratropium: 1 unit dose via nebulizer 3 to 4 times/day, may be mixed with albuterol Ipratropium-albuterol combination (Combivent): 2 puffs 4 times/day Tiotropium (Spiriva): 2 puffs of a single capsule once/day Aclidinium bromide (Tudorza Pressair): 1 puff twice/day Asthma Ipratropium for asthma maintenance is 2 to 3 puffs 4 times/day for adults. Children under age 12 years: 1 or 2 puffs every 6 hours Ipratropium-albuterol combination (Combivent) is a second-line quick relief medication in the treatment of asthma. Tiotropium and aclidinium are not indicated for the treatment of asthma. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Inhaled Anticholinergics: Cost Combined albuterol-ipratropium products are cheaper than the two individual drugs. Generic ipratropium/albuterol nebulizer solution is $13.97 for a month’s supply. Tiotropium (Spiriva) costs $223 per month. Aclidinium bromide (Tudorza Pressair) costs $234 per month. Patient education Use as prescribed. Educate on use of inhaler or Handihaler. Rinse mouth after inhaling medication.   Leukotriene inhibitors :         – Leukotriene-receptor agonists (LTRAs) and 5-lipoxygenase pathway inhibitors were developed under the theory that cysteinyl leukotrienes play a significant role in the chronic inflammation associated with asthma and allergy. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Leukotrienes are substances that induce numerous effects that contribute to the inflammatory process, including smooth muscle contractility; neutrophil aggregation, degranulation, and chemotaxis; vascular permeability; and on lymphocytes. There are two LTRAs available for use in asthma, zafirlukast (Accolate) and montelukast (Singulair) , and one 5-lipoxygenase pathway inhibitor, zileuton (Zyflo). (There is evidence that the cysteinyl leukotrienes contribute to the pathophysiology of asthma and allergy, including airway edema, smooth muscle constriction, and cellular changes associated with the inflammatory process.) – Zafirlukast is rapidly absorbed from the GI tract following oral administration. Peak plasma concentrations are reached in 3 hours. The bioavailability of zafirlukast may be decreased when taken with food, and it should be taken on an empty stomach. – Montelukast is rapidly absorbed following oral administration, with peak plasma concentration achieved in 3 to 4 hours for the film-coated tablet and in 2 to 2.5 hours after administration of the chewable tablet. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. – The leukotriene modifiers are not to be used for primary treatment of an acute asthma attack. – Zafirlukast should be used with caution in patients with hepatic dysfunction because it is extensively metabolized by the liver. – Leukotriene modifiers should not be abruptly substituted for inhaled or oral steroids. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. – The most common adverse reaction reported with zafirLukast use is headache . GI upset, myalgias, and fever are reported in a small percentage of patients. – Zafirlukast is indicated in the treatment of chronic asthma in children aged 5 years or older and adults. Montelukast is indicated for use in the treatment of persistent asthma for patients aged 12 months or older. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.             Leukotriene Blockers: (ASTHMA/Allergic RHINITIS) Zafir L ukast (Accolate) Monte L ukast (Singulair)   Action of Leukotriene Blockers: – Leukotriene blockers INHIBIT (prevent) the action of leukotrienes which are released from MAST CELLS and EOSINOPHILS and are associated with AIRWAY EDEMA , increased INFLAMMATORY activity and SMOOTH MUSCLE CONTRACTION   Leukotriene Blockers: Comments: Leukotriene Blockers- are NOT substitutes for Bronchodilators or inhaled steroids Take Leukotriene Blockers DAILY Monitor for DRUG INTERACTION with ZAFIRLUKAST (Accolate)     Inhaled and Oral Corticosteroids :         – The Expert Panel Report 3 states that corticosteroids are the “most potent and effective anti-inflammatory medication currently available” (NAEPP, 2007, p 213). Their anti-inflammatory effects lead to reduction in the severity of asthma symptoms, increased peak flow readings, and decreased airway hyperresponsiveness. In general, inhaled steroids are safe and well tolerated at recommended dosages and can be used by both children and adults. Corticosteroids are also used intranasally for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. – The commonly prescribed inhaled corticosteroids for asthma are beclomethasone dipropionate (QVAR), triamcinolone acetonide (Azmacort), budesonide (Pulmicort), flunisolide (AeroBid), mometasone furoate (Asmanex Twisthaler), fluticasone (Flovent), and ciclesonide (Alvesco). NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.         – In the treatment of asthma and allergic rhinitis, the primary actions of orally inhaled corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory. The inhaled adrenocorticosteroids inhibit the immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell–mediated migration of inflammatory cells into the bronchial tissue (late-phase allergic reaction) – Absorption of inhaled corticosteroids occurs from the lungs and from the GI tract. Approximately 10% to 30% of the dose from an MDI is delivered to the lungs. If a spacer device is not used, approximately 80% of the dose from an MDI is swallowed, with the oral bioavailability differing from drug to drug. – All of the inhaled corticosteroid preparations are contraindicated in acute status asthmaticus or when intensive, acute therapy is warranted. They should not be used for relief of acute bronchospasm. – Care should be used when substituting any of the inhaled corticosteroids for oral corticosteroid therapy. There have been deaths due to adrenal insufficiency in asthmatic patients who were switched from oral to inhaled corticosteroids. – All of the inhaled corticosteroids are Pregnancy Category C. There have been no well-controlled studies of the effects of inhaled corticosteroids during pregnancy. – Local immunosuppression can lead to oral candidiasis with any of the inhaled corticosteroids. – The inhaled corticosteroids are the preferred long-term control medications for managing the inflammatory process associated with asthma. – Severe persistent asthma requires daily high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and long-acting beta agonists.   Step 6 therapy for SEVERE persistent asthma: High-dose inhaled corticosteroids plus long-acting beta agonists and oral corticosteroid s   Managing asthma exacerbations : Treat with oral steroids to regain control.       Inhaled Corticosteroids (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma) -(“Sone/Lone”)**   Bude son ide (Pulmicort) Flutica sone (Flovent) Mometa sone (Asamanex) Beclometha sone (Qvar) Triamcino lone (Azmacort)   Action of Inhaled Corticosteroids (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma) Glucocorticoids decrease activity of inflammatory cells and mediators Inhaled Corticosteroids: REDUCTION OF AIRWAY INFLAMMATION I nhaled CS= I nflammation reduction in airway I nhaled =I nflammation Steroid activity is local (in the lungs) and is associated with minimal systemic absorption. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Inhaled Corticosteroids: (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma) Slowly wean patients who are on oral steroids to inhaled steroids Abrupt withdrawal can cause symptoms of adrenal insufficiency (which are fatigue, weakness, and hypotension ) Monitor for symptoms of FUNGAL infection (Oral Candidias) in the mouth and pharynx. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   57.Theophylline Xanthine Derivatives: Theophylline and caffeine pharmacodynamics Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation CNS stimulants Cardiovascular effects Increased gastric acid production Stimulate skeletal muscle Increased renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate   Theophylline : Pharmacokinetics Absorbed rapidly and completely from gastrointestinal (GI) tract Distributed widely Volume of distribution altered in: premature neonates, elderly patients, cirrhosis, pregnant women (third trimester), and critically ill patients, probably because of altered protein-binding Metabolized extensively in liver via CYP 450 into caffeine Disease states and CYP inducers can influence metabolism of theophylline. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. Eliminated renally   Precautions and contraindications Monitor patients with hypertension, ischemic heart disease, coronary insufficiency, congestive heart failure, or a history of stroke and cardiac arrhythmias. Monitor for theophylline toxicity. Prolonged clearance and half-life in neonate and the elderly Pregnancy category C   Theophylline: ADRs: Toxicity occurs with levels greater than 20 mcg/mL. Some patients have seizures at 15 to 20 mcg/mL. CNS effects: irritability, restlessness, seizures, insomnia GI effects: reflux, worsening heartburn Cardiac effects: palpitations, tachycardia, hypotension, and life-threatening arrhythmias Toxicity (greater than 20): nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache, insomnia, and irritability Toxicity (greater than 35 mcg/mL): hyperglycemia, hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias, tachycardia, seizures, brain damage, and death. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide.   Theophylline: Drug and food interactions: Many drug interactions due to metabolism via CYP 450 isoenzyme CYP 1A2, CYP 2E1, and CYP 3A3/4 Smoking tobacco increases clearance. Benzodiazepines are antagonized by theophylline. Beta agonists may cause additive toxicity. Reduced lithium levels Low-carbohydrate/high-protein diet increases clearance. Charcoal-broiled foods accelerate the hepatic metabolism of theophylline.           Bronchodilators (Xanthines) (Chronic Bronchitis/Emphysema/Asthma)           (Xanthines=Phyllines) c Theo phylline (Slo-Phyllin, Theo-24, Theo-Dur) Amino phylline (Phyllocontin)   Action of Bronchodilators (Xanthines): Cause bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscle of the bronchi and pulmonary blood vessels The Xanthines are central respiratory STIMULANTS The Xanthines reduce fatiguability in patients with COPD   Bronchodilators (Xanthines): Comment Must monitor serum plasma levels ( 10-20 mcg/ml is desirable ) Elevated levels predispose patient to Ventricular Arrhythmias Elevated levels predispose patient to SEIZURES Monitor for Tremors Monitor for Anxiety Monitor for Jitteriness Many food-drug interactions involving CYP 450 system (metabolism of the drug) Not used for asthma unless other agents are ineffective. NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide. ONLY use xanthines for ASTHMA if OTHER AGENTS are INEFFECTIVE   58.Antihistamines—H1 and H2 blockers 59 .Psuedoephedrine 60.Treating URIs in children 61 .Inotropic Effect 62 .Chronotropic effect 63.ASA in CV patients 64.Preventative and Abortive therapy and migraines 65 .Cluster Has/Tension Has/Migraines 66.SSRIs (know food interactions) 67.Diuretics and potassium supplementation 68.Pneumonia treatment—healthy and patients with co-morbidities 69.Nicotine replacement tx 70.Treatment of Sinusitis 71.Treatment of Otitis Media—adults and children 72 .Scopolamine 73.Parkinson’s Dz NSG 6005 Advanced Pharmacology Midterm & Final Exam Study Guide

  • Childhood Psychosis Case Study Decision Tree Example Essay

    Childhood Psychosis Case Study Decision Tree Example Essay

    Assignment 2: Practicum: Decision Tree

    Childhood psychosis is extremely rare; however, children that present with psychosis must be carefully assessed and evaluated with appropriate interviewing of parent, child, and use of assessment tools.

    For this Assignment, as you examine the client case study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat clients presenting with early onset schizophrenia. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Learning Objectives

    Students will:

    Evaluate clients for treatment of mental health disorders

    Analyze decisions made throughout diagnosis and treatment of clients with mental health disorders

    The Assignment:

    Examine 
    Case 3: 
    You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

    Decision #1: Differential Diagnosis

    Which Decision did you select?

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different? Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Decision #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different? Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients and their families. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Note:
     Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    BACKGROUND

    Carrie is a 13-year-old Hispanic female who is brought to your office today by her mother and father. They report that they were referred to you by their primary care provider after seeking her advice because Carrie’s behavior has been difficult to manage and they don’t know what to do.

    SUBJECTIVE

    Carrie’s parents report that they have concerns about her behavior, which they describe as sometimes “not normal for a 13-year-old.” Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay. They notice that she talks to people who aren’t real. Her behavior is calm and “passive.” Her parents noted that when she was younger, she was irritable at times, but have noticed that this has given way to passivity. Her parents state that they understand that it’s normal for younger children to have “imaginary friends,” but they feel that at Carrie’s age, she should have grown out of these behaviors. Carrie’s parents report that she has friends that are half-cat and half-human, and “spirits” who speak with her “in her head.” She also reports that the people on television know when she is home and that they have certain shows “just for her.”

    Carrie’s parents report that they have taken her to her pediatrician who has given her a “clean bill of health.” Carrie’s parents note that they had some early concerns as she was lagging in meeting developmental milestones. Initially, when she first started school, Carrie managed to keep up with her peers in terms of academic performance, but she was noticed by her teachers to be isolative. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.  It was also noted by her teachers and guidance counselor that Carrie’s social skills do not seem to match what they see in other children her age. Initially the school counselor suspected that Carrie may have been suffering from attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (primarily inattentive type), but now is not certain and has recommended a psychiatric evaluation. Her grades were “ok” in school up until last year when she left junior high school, and entered high school, where the academic demands began to increase. Carrie’s teachers had wanted to hold her back a grade, but her parents acknowledge that they were “insistent” that this did not happen. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay. Now they are describing some regrets over this as Carrie seems “more lost than ever” in her schoolwork. Carrie’s mother produced a copy of a paper that Carrie had to submit as a homework assignment. You attempt to read the assignment, but there does not appear to be any clarity to the work, and it can best be described as a hodge-podge of thoughts and ideas.

    Carrie’s parents want you to know that although they are concerned about Carrie, they are opposed to giving her medications that would turn her “into a zombie.” Carrie’s mother also confides that her husband’s grandfather spent “a few years in the nut house.” When you probe further, she began crying and said, “He was schizophrenic … what if Carrie is schizophrenic?”

    During your interview with Carrie, she seems pleasant, but somewhat distant. When you ask her about her friends at school, she shrugs her shoulders and says, “I don’t really have any. I don’t like those people.” You inquire if she is sad or upset that she doesn’t like them, to which she states “no, why should I be? I guess they would be friends with me if I asked, but I’m not interested. I could make them be my friends if I wanted, but I don’t … but if I wanted them to, all that I have to do is make up my mind that they will be my friend and they would have to.” When you ask Carrie if she believes that she can control the thoughts of others with her mind, she puts her index finger up to her mouth and looks toward the door. “My mom gets upset when I talk about these things. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.  I try not to think about them either because if she is close enough, she could read my thoughts and they upset her. She may think that I’m into witchcraft or something.”

    When you ask Carrie about the homework assignment that you read, she explains that her teacher “is just miserable. She doesn’t understand how I think—I think high, she just can’t get it.”

    OBJECTIVE

    The client is a 13-year-old Hispanic female client who appears appropriately developed for her age. She is dressed appropriately for the current weather, and ambulates with a steady upright gait. She does not appear to be demonstrating any noteworthy mannerisms, gestures, or tics. No psychomotor agitation/retardation apparent.

    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    Carries is alert and oriented × 4 spheres. Her speech is clear, coherent, goal directed, and spontaneous. Carrie self-reports her mood as “good.” However, her affect does appear somewhat constricted. Her eye contact is minimal throughout the clinical interview and at times, Carrie seems preoccupied. Carrie is oriented to person, place, and time. She endorses hearing and seeing strange “things that I talk to. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay. They don’t scare me; they come to see me from another world.” No overt paranoia is appreciated. She does report delusions of reference (she believes that the people on TV play programs “just for her” and at times, television commercials were designed to tell her what to do), as well as other delusional thoughts (as described above). Carrie denies any suicidal or homicidal ideation. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    At this point, please discuss any additional diagnostic tests you would perform on Carrie.

    Decision Point One

    BASED ON THE INFORMATION PROVIDED IN THE SCENARIO ABOVE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIAGNOSES WOULD THE PSYCHIATRIC/MENTAL HEALTH NURSE PRACTITIONER (PMHNP) GIVE TO CARRIE?

    In your write-up of this case, be certain to link specific symptoms presented in the case to DSM–5 criteria to support your diagnosis.

    Early Onset Schizophrenia

    Schizoaffective Disorder

    Schizotypal Personality Disorder

    Decision Point One

     
    Early Onset Schizophrenia

    Decision Point Two

    Refer for psychological testing

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Although there are no specific psychometric tests available for schizophrenia, the consulting psychologist administered a comprehensive psychological battery of tests in order to assess personality and cognitive functioning as well as to identify any underlying intellectual disabilities that could account for the difficulty Carrie is having in school. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay. Tests administered included the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory; Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test; Rorschach test; Whitaker Index of Schizophrenic Thinking (WIST) test; Wide Range Achievement Test – 4th Edition (WRAT-4); and the Millon Adolescent Clinical Inventory (MACI). The consulting psychologist opined that early-onset schizophrenia was strongly suspected in this client.

    Decision Point Three

    Begin Clozapine 100 mg orally daily

    Guidance to Student

    It is not always necessary to procure a consult with a psychologist. However, psychologists by virtue of their advanced training and licensure are able to conduct comprehensive psychological testing on clients more advanced than those tests that could be conducted by the psychiatric/mental health nurse practitioner. In this case, we would like to know if the poor academic performance was the result of an intellectual disability, versus poor premorbid intellectual functioning that is often seen in schizophrenia.

    In terms of treatment decisions, Clozapine is FDA-approved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. Since the child has not yet been treated with any agent, we have no way of knowing if her schizophrenia is treatment resistant. Additionally, if we were to use Clozapine, the starting dose is approximately 25 mg in adults (perhaps 12.5 mg in a child, depending on body weight). Clozapine 100 mg would most likely cause significant side effects that both the child and parents would find objectionable, thus making compliance an issue. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Although not FDA-approved for use in children, Lurasidone is used as an off-label drug in this population. There are no legal prohibitions against any prescriber using drugs “off-label”; however, attention must be given to the concept of informed consent. When working with children/adolescents, the PMHNP must explain pros/cons, discuss therapeutic endpoints/goals of treatment, etc. The parent/guardian must have all of the information needed to make an informed consent. Therefore, Lurasidone would be the best choice. Additionally, Lurasidone may be the preferred antipsychotic, as it appears to have the least impact on body weight and lipid profile.

    Recall that with any antipsychotic medication, you should determine fasting plasma glucose levels, monitor weight and BMI during treatment, as well as blood pressure and fasting triglycerides.

    Family interventions are important as well, as they do have a positive benefit on symptom relapse and admission/readmission to the hospital. Family interventions should include teaching about the disease, medications, and anticipatory guidance.

    Decision Point One

     
    Schizoaffective Disorder

    Decision Point Two

    Begin Celexa 20 mg orally daily

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Upon return to the office, Carrie’s parents state that she is no different than she was when she was last in your office. Carrie reports that she feels a little bit more “relaxed.” When assessed, Carrie continues to acknowledge auditory hallucinations and delusional thought processes. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Decision Point Three

    Increase Celexa to 40 mg orally daily

    Guidance to Student

    At this point, it should be noted that based on the initial presenting symptoms, Carrie’s condition is more consistent with schizophrenia. In order for schizoaffective disorder to be present, in addition to the psychotic features, the patient must meet the criteria for a mood disorder (depression or mania) concurrent with criterion A of schizophrenia. Nothing in the case description leads us to believe that Carrie is experiencing such a mood disorder.

    Because of the diagnosis, increasing Celexa would be of minimal therapeutic benefit.

    Based on the correct diagnosis of schizophrenia, Seroquel would be appropriate, as it is FDA-approved for treatment of schizophrenia in individuals aged 13 years and older, but not in addition to Celexa. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    In this case, reconsideration of the diagnosis would be the most appropriate course of action.

    Recall that with any antipsychotic medication, you should determine fasting plasma glucose levels, monitor weight and BMI during treatment, as well as blood pressure and fasting triglycerides.

    Decision Point One

     
    Schizotypal Personality Disorder

    Decision Point Two

    Begin cognitive behavioral therapy

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Upon return to the office, Carrie’s parents state that she is no different than she was when she was last in your office. Carrie reports that she enjoys being with her therapist because she is able to control her therapist’s mind, and makes her therapist “say whatever I want.” When assessed, Carrie continues to acknowledge auditory hallucinations and delusional thought processes are still apparent.

    Decision Point Three

    Begin Sertraline 25 mg orally daily

    Guidance to Student

    Fluphenazine (Prolixin) Decanoate is not an appropriate choice as decanoate preparations should never be used until tolerability of the oral version of the drug has been established (you never want to give someone a depot drug that they are allergic to). Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay. Also, Prolixin and other first-generation antipsychotic drugs are generally considered to be second-line agents and should only be used after second-generation antipsychotics have been attempted/failed. Prolixin can also cause significant weight gain and alter lipid profiles significantly. Finally, if this truly were a personality disorder, there are no FDA-approved drugs to treat personality disorders, so Prolixin would probably not be appropriate in the absence of significant behavioral issues.

    Since this is neither a mood or anxiety disorder, Sertraline would be ineffective.

    The most appropriate choice in this case is to reconsider the diagnosis. Although Carrie has several features that appear to approximate schizotypal personality disorder, the differences are important. For instance, she has delusions of reference, no ideas of reference. She also has more than “odd thinking or speech”—her written work demonstrated disorganized thought processes, much more severe than odd thinking or speech. She does lack close friends or confidants, but at this point, we have no way of knowing if it is because she has discomfort with interpersonal relationships or if it is because her classmates shun her due to her odd behaviors. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Finally, be cautious about making diagnoses of personality disorders in 13-year-old patients. During this time, personality is still forming. Schizotypal personality disorder may ultimately be what is wrong with Carrie, but we do not have enough information at this point. Personality disorders can be diagnosed in early adulthood.

    Recall that with any antipsychotic medication, you should determine fasting plasma glucose levels, monitor weight and BMI during treatment, as well as blood pressure and fasting triglycerides.

    Assignment 2: Practicum: Decision Tree

    Childhood psychosis is extremely rare; however, children that present with psychosis must be carefully assessed and evaluated with appropriate interviewing of parent, child, and use of assessment tools. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    For this Assignment, as you examine the client case study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat clients presenting with early onset schizophrenia.

    Learning Objectives

    Students will:

    Evaluate clients for treatment of mental health disorders

    Analyze decisions made throughout diagnosis and treatment of clients with mental health disorders

    The Assignment:

    Examine 
    Case 3: 
    You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

    Decision #1: Differential Diagnosis

    Which Decision did you select?

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients and their families.

    Note:
     Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement. Childhood psychosis case study decision tree example essay.

  • Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate

    For this Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate Assignment, as you examine the client case study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat adult and older adult clients presenting symptoms of a mental health disorder.

    The Assignment:

    Learning Objectives

    Students will:

    Evaluate clients for treatment of mental health disorders

    Analyze decisions made throughout diagnosis and treatment of clients with mental health disorders

    Examine Case 3
    : You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Decision #1: Differential Diagnosis

    Which Decision did you select?

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different? Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Decision #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients and their family.

    Note:
     Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    BACKGROUND

    Mr. Charles Wingate is a 76-year-old Caucasian male who presents to your office for an initial psychiatric evaluation. He is accompanied by his eldest son, Mark, who lives with Mr. Wingate. Mr. Wingate was referred to you by his primary care provider who has performed an extensive diagnostic workup to rule out an organic basis for his changes in cognition. Mr. Wingate’s son Mark has verbalized a concern that Mr. Wingate may have Alzheimer’s disease. When questioned, Mr. Wingate states that he is unaware of anyone in his family ever having been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease.

     

    SUBJECTIVE

    Mr. Wingate states that he has always been “a little bit forgetful,” but he noticed that in his 60s and 70s, it got worse. Mark states that “for the past 2 years, it has been getting worse. He doesn’t even notice how bad his memory has become.” On at least two occasions, Mr. Wingate has gotten lost when he was driving to the grocery store. Mr. Wingate protested his disagreement with this accusation stating, “but they were doing road construction, anyone could have gotten mixed up!” While his son conceded to this, he pointed out that Mr. Wingate’s memory has caused some other problems, such as errors with paying his monthly utility bills (at one point, the electric company threatened to shut off his electricity due to his nonpayment of the bill). Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    His son Mark also pointed out that the family is concerned for Mr. Wingate’s safety as he twice left his keys hanging in the door and just two evenings ago, put food in oven and forgot about it until the smoke detector in the kitchen began to alarm.

    Mr. Wingate also has had a few issues with managing his medications. Specifically, he took too many Norvasc tablets a few months ago, which resulted in hypotension and a fall. Since that time, Mark’s wife has been setting up Mr. Wingate’s pills in pill boxes, but recently, multiple “missed doses” have been noted.

    Mr. Wingate states: “but those are my night pills that I miss—I’m always better at remembering things in the morning.” Mark agrees, stating that Mr. Wingate’s cognition does vary throughout the course of the day and appears to worsen in the evening. He also reports that his father seems much less alert in the evenings, and more alert in the mornings.

    Mr. Wingate reports that he has had poor sleep for “a long time now.” He does report that over the past few months, he has been having what he describes as “very vivid nightmares.” His son states that sometimes he is awakened by his father’s yelling during nightmares, and enters his father’s room, and sees his father swinging or kicking in his sleep.

    He reports that his appetite is “alright” and that his energy levels do fluctuate throughout the course of the day. He states: “sometimes, I can concentrate really well; other times I can’t … it is very frustrating!” Specific to substance use, Mr. Wingate notes that he used to enjoy a glass of wine or two with dinner, but states that it just doesn’t interest him, anymore. Plus, he stated that he notices that when he does drink, he develops slow muscle contractions.

    Mr. Wingate’s son also shares a concern about his father’s abnormal movements. He states that for about the last 6 months, his father has had problems with coordination. He states that he raised these concerns with the family doctor who suggested it may be “late onset Parkinson’s disease.” However, he was not treated because the symptoms were “not that bad.”

     

    OBJECTIVE

    Mr. Wingate was overall calm and pleasant during the clinical interview. Throughout the clinical interview, you notice that Mr. Wingate is not really involved in the discussion. He seems somewhat indifferent to the assessment and does not seem very concerned with what is being discussed. He only protested when discussing how he got lost on his way to the supermarket and his evening medication dose.

    Review of systems and screening physical assessment were unremarkable, with the exception of fine resting tremors noted in both of Mr. Wingate’s hands. The psychiatric/mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP) also reviewed laboratory studies that were sent from Mr. Wingate’s primary care provider; they were within normal limits with the exception of a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L.

     

    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    Mr. Wingate is alert. He is oriented to person, place, and partially oriented to time (he knows that it is morning, but cannot tell the hour). His speech is clear, coherent, goal directed, and spontaneous. Mr. Wingate’s self-reported mood is “ok.” Affect is somewhat constricted. His eye contact is fleeting throughout the clinical interview. He denies visual or auditory hallucinations, no overt delusional or paranoid thought processes appreciated. Judgment seems well preserved, but insight appears impaired as he is having trouble understanding why his son brought him to this appointment. Concentration and attention also appear impaired, which prompts the PMHNP to perform a mini-mental status exam (MMSE) on Mr. Wingate.

     

    RESULTS OF MMSE

    Score of 17, with primary deficits in orientation; calculation; recall (he was unable to recall any of the three items presented after 5 minutes); and he was unable to perform serial 7’s or spell the word “WORD” in reverse, despite the fact that he is a high school graduate and attended 1 year of college. He also needed prompting with the three-step command. His score suggests severe cognitive impairment.

    At this point, please discuss any additional diagnostic tests you would perform on Mr. Wingate.

     

    Decision Point One

    BASED ON THE INFORMATION PROVIDED IN THE SCENARIO ABOVE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIAGNOSES WOULD THE PSYCHIATRIC/MENTAL HEALTH NURSE PRACTITIONER (PMHNP) GIVE TO MR. WINGATE?

    In your write-up of this case, be certain to link specific symptoms presented in the case to DSM–5 criteria to support your diagnosis.

     

     
    Major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder (FTNCD)

     
    Major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease

     
    Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

    Decision Point One

     
    Major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder (FTNCD)

    Decision Point Two

    Begin Citalopram 20 mg orally daily

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Mr. Wingate’s son returns with Mr. Wingate and informs you that the Citalopram had to be stopped because his father developed nausea, vomiting, and became confused and irritable. These symptoms began approximately 1 week after starting the citalopram. During the hospitalization, it was discovered that Mr. Wingate’s sodium had decreased to 124 mEq/L. He also reported that his father had developed some type of “heart problem,” which they treated during his hospitalization. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Decision Point Three

    Restart Citalopram at only 10 mg orally daily and increase to 20 mg in 7 to 10 days

    Guidance to Student

    In the case of Mr. Wingate, he meets the diagnostic criteria for major neurocognitive disorder as evidenced by a decline from a previous level of performance in more than one cognitive domain—in this case, complex attention and executive function. The decline is based on a knowledgeable informant, as well as a clinician (the patient’s primary care provider) who referred him to you, as well as substantial impairment in another quantified clinical assessment (the MMSE). Cognitive deficits that Mr. Wingate demonstrates interferes with independence in everyday activities and he requires help with complex instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) such as medication management and paying bills. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Nothing in the scenario suggests that delirium could be responsible for the cognitive decline, nor is anything in the scenario suggestive of another mental disorder.

    While one may be initially inclined to consider major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease (NDAD), probable Alzheimer’s would require evidence of a causative genetic mutation either from family history or genetic testing, and/or decline in memory and learning and at least one other cognitive domain, steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition without extended plateaus, and no evidence of mixed etiology (i.e., absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental, or systemic disease or condition likely contributing to the cognitive decline. Similarly, while there is some evidence of mild apathy, and decline in executive abilities, there is insufficient evidence of three or more behavioral symptoms that would be needed to make a diagnosis of major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder (e.g., behavioral disinhibition, loss of sympathy or empathy, perseverative, stereotyped or compulsive/ritualistic behavior, hyperorality and dietary changes, or prominent decline in social cognition and/or executive abilities) nor is there evidence of prominent decline in language ability, in the form of speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar, or word comprehension that would suggest major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    In Mr. Wingate’s case, there is clear evidence of fluctuating cognition, and spontaneous features of Parkinsonism, which had their onset subsequent to the development of cognitive decline. These symptoms, coupled with the presence of a rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder, are suggestive of major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies (MNDLB). Diagnostic testing should focus on determining the presence of a synucleinopathy.

    If Mr. Wingate did have FTNCD, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can be used to treat behavioral symptoms in older adults with FTNCD. However, they are used to treat symptoms such as disinhibition, compulsive behaviors, irritability, depressive symptoms, carbohydrate craving, and increased sexual drive- none of which Mr. Wingate appeared to be exhibiting in the case.

    If an SSRI was needed, citalopram was a poor first choice as Mr. Wingate already had a baseline hyponatremia. The PMHNP should not prescribe citalopram as it can worsen hyponatremia, and can cause QT prolongation and increases the risk for cardiac arrhythmia. Dosing above 20 mg is also discouraged in elderly patients.

    If modulation of Serotonin is required, then Trazodone may be a safer choice in some patients, but further studies are needed to confirm this. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Psychostimulants have been used with varying degrees of success in treating the pervasive apathy which occurs in many patients with FTNCD. Mr. Wingate is demonstrating apathy, and although the cause is from a different form of dementia, this strategy may still be beneficial.

    Decision Point Two

     

    Begin Donepezil 5 mg orally daily

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Upon his return to your office, Mr. Wingate’s son reported that Mr. Wingate seems to be tolerating the medication well, but he has not noticed any improvement in his father’s memory. He denies any worsening of other symptoms, but also reports no improvement either.

     Mr. Wingate’s son does report that Mr. Wingate’s nightmares appear to be getting worse.

    Decision Point Three

    Add Seroquel 50 mg orally at bedtime to treat nightmares

    Guidance to Student

    In the case of Mr. Wingate, he meets the diagnostic criteria for major neurocognitive disorder as evidenced by a decline from a previous level of performance in more than one cognitive domain—in this case, complex attention and executive function. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. The decline is based on a knowledgeable informant, as well as a clinician (the patient’s primary care provider) who referred him to you, as well as substantial impairment in another quantified clinical assessment (the MMSE). Cognitive deficits that Mr. Wingate demonstrates interfere with independence in everyday activities and he requires help with complex IADLs such as medication management and paying bills.

    Nothing in the scenario suggests that delirium could be responsible for the cognitive decline, nor is anything in the scenario suggestive of another mental disorder. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    While one may be initially inclined to consider major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, probable Alzheimer’s would require evidence of a causative genetic mutation either from family history or genetic testing; and/or decline in memory and learning and at least one other cognitive domain; steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition without extended plateaus; and no evidence of mixed etiology (i.e., absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental, or systemic disease or condition likely contributing to the cognitive decline). Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. Similarly, while there is some evidence of mild apathy, and decline in executive abilities, there is insufficient evidence of three or more behavioral symptoms that would be needed to make a diagnosis of major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder (e.g., behavioral disinhibition, loss of sympathy or empathy, perseverative, stereotyped or compulsive/ritualistic behavior, hyperorality and dietary changes, or prominent decline in social cognition and/or executive abilities) nor is there evidence of prominent decline in language ability, in the form of speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar, or word comprehension that would suggest major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.

    In Mr. Wingate’s case, there is clear evidence of fluctuating cognition, and spontaneous features of Parkinsonism, which had their onset subsequent to the development of cognitive decline. These symptoms, coupled with the presence of a rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder, are suggestive of major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Diagnostic testing should focus on determining the presence of a synucleinopathy.

    Since Mr. Wingate’s symptoms are more consistent with MNDLB, the addition of Seroquel may result in severe side effects that could be life threatening and include severe sedation, muscle rigidity, delirium, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and depending on the source of the study reviewed, neuroleptics may be associated with a 2- to 3-fold increase in mortality, including cerebral vascular accident. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. Also, although Seroquel can be used off-label to induce sleep in some patients, there is an FDA warning against the use of antipsychotics in older adults with dementia as they have been associated with an increase in mortality.

    Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be useful in the treatment of NDAD, but there is limited data of their efficacy with MNDLB. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. If the PMHNP decides to try an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, the PMHNP should always begin with the lowest starting dose, and then slowly titrate upward, being mindful of the development of side effects. Mr. Wingate and his son should be educated as to the fact that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may slow disease progression, but will not have a significant impact on existing cognitive deficits.

    The addition of low-dose Clonazepam (0.25 or even 0.125 mg) may be considered as a treatment for REM sleep disorders in individuals with MNDLB. Since Clonazepam has a long half-life, the PMHNP should begin at a low dose, and slowly titrate upward, being mindful to educate the client and family about potential side effects and therapeutic end-goals. Remember that safety is always the first priority with prescribing.

     
    Major neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies

    Decision Point Two

    Begin Rivastigmine 1.5 mg orally twice a day

    RESULTS OF DECISION POINT TWO

     Client returns to clinic in four weeks

     Upon his return to your office, Mr. Wingate’s son reported that Mr. Wingate seems to be tolerating the medication well, but he has not noticed any improvement in his father’s memory. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. He denies any worsening of other symptoms, but also reports no improvement either.

    Mr. Wingate’s son does report that Mr. Wingate’s nightmares appear to be getting worse in that he seems to “act out” his nightmares more.

    Decision Point Three

    Begin Clonazepam 0.5 mg orally at bedtime

    Guidance to Student

    In the case of Mr. Wingate, he meets the diagnostic criteria for major neurocognitive disorder as evidenced by a decline from a previous level of performance in more than one cognitive domain—in this case, complex attention and executive function. The decline is based on a knowledgeable informant, as well as a clinician (the patient’s primary care provider) who referred him to you, as well as substantial impairment in another quantified clinical assessment (the MMSE). Cognitive deficits that Mr. Wingate demonstrates interfere with independence in everyday activities and he requires help with complex IADLs such as medication management and paying bills.

    Nothing in the scenario suggests that delirium could be responsible for the cognitive decline, nor is anything in the scenario suggestive of another mental disorder. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    While one may be initially inclined to consider major neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease, probable Alzheimer’s would require evidence of a causative genetic mutation either from family history or genetic testing, and/or decline in memory and learning and at least one other cognitive domain; steadily progressive, gradual decline in cognition without extended plateaus; and no evidence of mixed etiology (i.e., absence of other neurodegenerative or cerebrovascular disease, or another neurological, mental, or systemic disease or condition likely contributing to the cognitive decline). Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. Similarly, while there is some evidence of mild apathy, and decline in executive abilities, there is insufficient evidence of three or more behavioral symptoms that would be needed to make a diagnosis of major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder (e.g., behavioral disinhibition, loss of sympathy or empathy, perseverative, stereotyped or compulsive/ritualistic behavior, hyperorality and dietary changes, or prominent decline in social cognition and/or executive abilities) nor is there evidence of prominent decline in language ability, in the form of speech production, word finding, object naming, grammar, or word comprehension that would suggest major frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.

    In Mr. Wingate’s case, there is clear evidence of fluctuating cognition, and spontaneous features of Parkinsonism, which had their onset subsequent to the development of cognitive decline. These symptoms, coupled with the presence of a rapid eye movement sleep behavior disorder, are suggestive of MNDLB. Diagnostic testing should focus on determining the presence of a synucleinopathy. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Since Mr. Wingate’s symptoms are more consistent with MNDLB, the addition of Seroquel may result in severe side effects that could be life threatening and include severe sedation, muscle rigidity, delirium, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, and depending on the source of the study reviewed, neuroleptics may be associated with a 2- to 3-fold increase in mortality, including cerebral vascular accident. Although Seroquel can be used off-label to induce sleep in some patients, there is an FDA warning against the use of antipsychotics in older adults with dementia as they have been associated with an increase in mortality. Therefore, in consideration of the probably diagnosis and presenting symptoms, antipsychotics would not be appropriate.

    Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be useful in the treatment of NDAD, but there is limited data of their efficacy with MNDLB. If the PMHNP decides to try an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, the PMHNP should always begin with the lowest starting dose, and then slowly titrate upward, being mindful of the development of side effects. Mr. Wingate and his son should be educated on the fact that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may slow disease progression, but will not have a significant impact on existing cognitive deficits. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    The addition of low-dose Clonazepam (0.25 or even 0.125 mg) may be considered as a treatment for REM sleep disorders in individuals with MNDLB. Since clonazepam has a long half-life, the PMHNP should begin at a low dose, and slowly titrate upward, being mindful to educate the client and family about potential side effects and therapeutic end-goals. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate. Remember that safety is always the first priority with prescribing.

    There is no evidence that Rivastigmine has any effect on REM sleep disorders; therefore, the PMHNP should not tell Mr. Wingate or his son that this is an expected outcome of the drug.

    For this Assignment, as you examine the client case study in this week’s Learning Resources, consider how you might assess and treat adult and older adult clients presenting symptoms of a mental health disorder.

    The Assignment:

    Learning Objectives

    Students will:

    Evaluate clients for treatment of mental health disorders

    Analyze decisions made throughout diagnosis and treatment of clients with mental health disorders

    Examine Case 3
    : You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the diagnosis and treatment for this client. Be sure to consider co-morbid physical as well as mental factors that might impact the client’s diagnosis and treatment.

    At each Decision Point, stop to complete the following:

    Decision #1: Differential Diagnosis

    Which Decision did you select?

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #2: Treatment Plan for Psychotherapy

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree – Charles Wingate.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the Decision. Why were they different?

    Decision #3: Treatment Plan for Psychopharmacology

    Why did you select this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    What were you hoping to achieve by making this Decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients and their family.

    Note:
     Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement. Neurocognitive Disorders Essay Case Study Decision Tree.

  • Foundation of nursing theories

    Foundation of nursing theories

    Assumptions, beliefs, and values are terminology used when describing the foundation of nursing theories. Theories are used to describe, explain, and predict nursing phenomena, that is, the nursing metaparadigm concepts. Nursing theory is the theorist’s 
    worldview
     or 
    personal perspective
     of how the nursing world works.

    Understanding the theorist’s assumptions, beliefs, and values is important to understanding the purpose of their theory as a whole. Knowing where the theorist is “coming from” helps you understand how the theory is constructed and why the pieces fit together.

    Understanding your own assumptions, beliefs, and values will help you devise your own personal philosophy of nursing and help you choose a nursing theory or theories from which to base your own professional practice. More on those topics in future posts. Foundation of nursing theories.

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    This post will define the terms assumptions, beliefs, and values that underlie nursing theory and provide examples related to the four nursing metaparadigm concepts.

    All these theory and philosophy terms confusing? I can help you! Download my free 8-page resource guide of nursing theory and philosophy terms and concepts. 

    Definitions

    Let’s start with identifying what I mean by assumptions, beliefs, and values as they relate to nursing theory and the metaparadigm concepts of person, health, environment, and/or nursing.

    Worldview 
    (from Thompson, 2016)
    :  
    An 
    individual’s perspective of their reality
     that 
    guides their thinking and being.

    Each theorist (nursing or otherwise) has 
    their own perspective
     that has then 
    shaped their beliefs, assumptions, and values and therefore their definitions of the paradigms/metaparadigms of their discipline
    .

    These views underlie their behaviors and decisions.

    Let me acknowledge again that there is overlap between these constructs – they are related. So read the definitions and then review the examples provided in the next section. Foundation of nursing theories.

    Assumptions
     can be thought of “givens” or a notion or fact that we take for granted, things we believe to be true, or the ways things are without us questioning the premise (Hernandez, 2009). An assumption is something that — is usually unspoken — you believe to be the TRUTH, but there is no hard proof.

    Assumptions denote beliefs and values (Masters, 2015). Beliefs and values are things that ground your practice – these are things that are fundamentally important to you.

    Merriam-Webster 
    defines belief 
    as “a state or habit of mind … something that is accepted, considered to be true, or held as an opinion.” Belief is a synonym for the term assumption, though there may be evidence for one’s beliefs. 
    Beliefs 
    regarding the metaparadigm concepts can be defined as the definitions and descriptions of each of the metaparadigm concepts from a personal viewpoint (i.e., your belief about each metaparadigm concept) (Hernandez, 2009). Individual belief statements about the metaparadigm concepts can also be made.

    Values
     are defined as 
    “a person’s principles or standards of behavior; one’s judgment of what is important in life.”

    Core values
     are generally global, that is, related to humankind as a whole (Denehy, 2001). 
    Personal values
     are the result of your unique life and circumstances. Your personal values are impacted by many factors including family dynamics, how you grew up (e.g., expectations of parents, friends, neighbors), education, employment, culture, the type of relationships you had, your religion, your experiences, etc. 
    Professional values
    are influenced by professional nursing associations, ethics, nursing roles, and other expectations of professional nursing. Foundation of nursing theories.

    Values guide and direct behavior, as well as decision-making. 

    Examples of Assumptions, Beliefs, and Values Related to the Nursing Metaparadigm Concepts

    The four metaparadigm concepts reflect a general understanding of the discipline or the 
    concepts that identify the phenomena of central interest to a discipline. 
    In nursing, these phenomena are identified as the nurse, person, environment, and health.

    In these examples, I’ll present examples of statements of assumptions, beliefs, and values related to each of the nursing metaparadigm concepts. Foundation of nursing theories. I won’t link the statements to any specific theorist, I just want you to get an idea of how to recognize assumptions, beliefs, and values.

    Person: Definition and Description: The recipient of care and others important to person

    Assumptions (A): What does one assume or take for granted about Persons? 

    Beliefs (B): What does one believe about Persons? (with or without evidence)

    Values (V): What is desirable, good, worthy, or honorable about Persons?

    Since assumptions contain beliefs and/or values, I’ll identify these aspects of the assumption statements.

    A: “Persons are social beings.”

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good to be around other people.

    A belief associated with this statement is that people like to be around, and need, other people.

    A: “Persons are biopsychosocial beings.”

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good for persons to pay attention to all aspects of their lives.

    A belief associated with this statement is that persons are multidimensional and influenced by physical, psychological, and social aspects of their being. The nurse would need to think about what constitutes the identified components (biological, psychological, and the social components in this assumption) so you can assess and plan care accordingly.

    A: “Persons are worthy of respect.”

    A value associated with this statement is that all people should be respected.

    A belief associated with this statement is that persons have inherent worth.

    A: “Persons have worth, value, and should be honored.“

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good to treat people with dignity.

    A belief associated with this statement is that all persons have inherent worth and should be treated accordingly.

    A: “People have a right to make decisions about their medical care.”

    A value associated with this statement is that people are autonomous individuals with inalienable rights.

    A belief associated with this statement is that persons should be able to make their own decisions.

    A: “People want to be a part of healthcare planning.”

    A value associated with this statement is that people should participate in their own care planning.

    A belief associated with this statement is that people desire to be included in planning regarding their healthcare.

    B: Persons seek treatment when they are ill.

    B: People should be involved in decisions about their health.

    B: Patients should be emotionally and mentally stable before discharge. Foundation of nursing theories.

    B: Health promotion education provides patients with knowledge to stay healthy.

    V: People should be involved in decisions about their health.

    V: A person’s definition of health should be respected.

    V: Persons have the right to refuse care.

    Health: Definition and Description: The continuum of health/wellness to illness; access to care.

    Assumptions (A): What does one assume or take for granted about Health? 

    Beliefs (B): What does one believe about Health? (with or without evidence)

    Values (V): What is desirable, good, worthy, or honorable about Health?

    A: Health is defined by the Person.

    A value associated with this statement is that the determination of what is healthy or quality of life should be made by the person.

    A belief associated with this statement is that healthy vs. not healthy is subjective and that only the person can define what health means for them.

    A: Health is dynamic.

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good that health status is not static.

    A belief associated with this statement is that one’s health status is constantly changing; multiple internal and external factors that interact and influence health status and therefore health can be improved.

    A: Health promotion will prevent disease.

    A value associated with this statement is that people should do what they can to promote health and prevent disease.

    A belief associated with this statement is that educating patients with health-promoting information will make people choose healthier lifestyles and therefore prevent disease. Foundation of nursing theories.

    B: Health is a state of complete wellbeing.

    B: Personal values influence and determine health behaviors.

    B: Pregnant women should get prenatal care.

    B: Patients should feel taken care of by the healthcare team.

    B: Health is what the person says it is.

    V: Access to health care providers should be available to all people.

    V: Health should not be taken for granted.

    V: Cultural values and beliefs about health should be respected.

    V: People value a healthy lifestyle.

    Environment: Definition and Description: Internal, external, and social factors that influence the patient and their health status.

    Assumptions (A): What does one assume or take for granted about Environment? 

    Beliefs (B): What does one believe about Environment? (with or without evidence)

    Values (V): What is desirable, good, worthy, or honorable about Environment?

    A: The environment can be modified to improve health status.

    A value associated with this statement is that the environment should be conducive to health.

    A belief associated with this statement is that environmental factors can be modified.

    A: Interactions with family and friends are good for personal health.

    A value associated with this statement is that the personal relationships (part of the external environment) are good for one’s health; they contribute to wellness.

    A belief associated with this statement is that environmental factors affect health status.

    A: Information found in a patient’s chart is valid.

    A value associated with this statement is that information recorded in the patient’s chart should be accurate.

    A belief associated with this statement is that hospital charts contain accurate information about the patient.

    B: The nurse-patient relationship creates a trusting environment.

    B: Nurses should provide comfort to patients and families.

    B: A quiet environment is conducive to good patient care.

    B: Patient experiences impact their views of health.

    B: Supportive relationships positively affect health.

    V: Cultural views should be respected.

    V: The environment should be quiet and comfortable.

    V: The environment should be kept clean and free of clutter.

    V: Physical, mental, and spiritual health are valued equally.

    Nursing: Definition and Description: Remember that the Nursing metaparadigm is all about what nurses DO; their characteristics and how he/she applies knowledge and skills to patient care. Foundation of nursing theories.

    Assumptions (A): What does one assume or take for granted about Nurses/Nursing? 

    Beliefs (B): What does one believe about Nurses/Nursing? (with or without evidence)

    Values (V): What is desirable, good, worthy, or honorable about Nurses/Nursing?

    A: “Nurses want to help people.”

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good to help others.

    A belief associated with this statement is that, fundamentally, nurses are nurses because they want to help people.

    A: “Nurses care about the well-being of their patients”

    A value associated with this statement is that it is good or desirable to be caring. Foundation of nursing theories.

    The belief or view of nurses, in general, is that because they want to help people they obviously care about their patients.

    A: “Nurses can reliably assess a patient.” Foundation of nursing theories.

    Values associated with this statement are that reliability/consistency and competence are desirable. Nurses should be reliable and competent.

    A belief associated with this statement is that nurses are technically competent. Their skills in assessment are assumed because of what is known about nursing education and training.

    A: “Nurses are skilled in physical and psychological assessment.”

    A value associated with this statement is that of skill or competence. Nurses should be skilled in nursing procedures such as assessment.

    A belief associated with this statement is that nurses need to be competent in certain skills (in this case technical/intellectual/communication skills) to be nurses. Their skills in assessment include interpreting the physical and psychological data they’ve gathered through history, review of systems, and physical/psychological assessment procedures and exams.

    B: Nurses administer medications accurately.

    B: Nurses follow physician orders.

    B: Nurses treat patients the way they would want to be treated.

    B: Nurses are good patient advocates.

    V: Nurses should be competent.

    V: Nurses should use best practices and evidence to inform their nursing care.

    V: Nurses should develop a treatment plan with the patient’s involvement.

    V: Nurses are trustworthy.

    How to Identify Your Assumptions, Beliefs, and Values

    Critical thinking and reflective clinical practice are hallmarks of advanced nursing practice and nurse experts.  By critically examining your practice, you’ll have a deeper understanding of how theorists develop theories (Hernandez, 2009). Foundation of nursing theories. When you critically examine your personal practice, the abstract world of philosophy and theory becomes more concrete – more understandable. Foundation of nursing theories.

    So if you want to identify your beliefs, assumptions, and values (BAVs), critically reflect on your clinical practice (Hernandez, 2009). Think about patient care experiences that you’ve had. If you can write a few of them out, with as much detail as possible, it may help you to specifically identify your BAVs.

    These narratives should be a 
    detailed
     description of interactions between you and a client/client and family.  Try to be as comprehensive about the separate interactions as your memory will allow — add in details about the client situation, the gist of conversations, what you did, what they did, what happened, etc.

    Then examine each clinical story you wrote, sentence by sentence. As you reflect on your stories, identify which phenomena are being discussed (i.e., metaparadigm concepts of nursing, person, environment, or health) and then identify if each sentence is a belief, assumption, or value.

    To identify assumptions, it might help to say, I assume that nurses …. I assume that health is …. I assume that environment …. I assume that persons are ….

    To identify beliefs, it might help to say, I believe that nurses are …. I believe that health is …. I believe that environment is …. I believe that persons are ….

    To identify values, it might help to say, it is good for nurses to …. or nurses should/ought to …. It is good for persons to …. or persons should/ought to …. Environment should/ought to be …. Health should/ought to ….

    When you collate your BAVs under each metaparadigm concept, you’ll become clear on what you believe in and value because the way you practice nursing is what you believe is important (i.e., your beliefs and values).

    Explicating 
    your own
     assumptions, beliefs, and values will help you become more self-aware of what really underlies your professional practice. It will also help you to have a deeper understanding of how theorists develop theories: they look at the way nursing practice is or should be, identify their assumptions, explain the concepts of the nursing metaparadigm according to their worldview, and ultimately propose the relationships between the concepts in their theories or models.

    You will be one step closer to articulating your own personal philosophy of nursing!

     In the previous post, I gave you examples of how selected theorists define each of the metaparadigm concepts. Go back to that post and see if you can identify the assumption, belief, and/or value being represented in the theorist statements. 

    How to Cite this Blogpost in APA*:

    Thompson, C. J. (2017, October 10). What are assumptions, beliefs, and values in nursing theory? *Citation should have hanging indent

    References

    Denehy, J. (2001). Articulating your philosophy of nursing. 
    The Journal of School Nursing, 17
    (1), 1-2.

    Hernandez, C. A. (2009). Student articulation of a nursing philosophical statement: An assignment to enhance critical thinking skills and promote learning. 
    Journal of Nursing Education, 48
    (6), 343-349. Foundation of nursing theories.

    Masters, K. (2015). 
    Nursing theories: A framework for professional practice
     (2nd ed.). Burlington, MA: Jones & Bartlett Learning.

    Thompson, C. J. (2016). 
    Nursing theory and philosophy: Terms & concepts guide!
     [eGuide]. Retrieved from Free Nursing Theory Guide.

  • Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605

    Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605

    Personality
     Disorders Case Study Presentation: PCN 605

    Marge has lived alone during her adult life

    Choose and read any one case study from Chapter 13 (Personality Disorders) in DSM-5 in Action.

    Research the specific personality disorder from your chosen case study. Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605.

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    Create a 10-15-slide PowerPoint presentation about your selected case study.

    Include the following in your presentation:

    A brief description of the selected case study

    Explanation and rationale for the Personality Disorder Diagnosis using the latest version of the DSM as a reference.

    Information on the course of treatment for the disorder.

    Identification of which cluster (A, B, or C) this personality disorder belongs to and an explanation of your rationale.

    Information on the prognosis and prevalence of the disorder. Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605.

    A minimum of five scholarly references including your textbook and the latest version of the DSM. Be sure to only use current and scholarly references for this assignment.

    Detailed speaker notes that represent what you would say if giving the presentation in person.

    While APA format is not required for the body of this Personality Disorders Case Study Presentation: PCN 605 assignment, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

    Personality Disorders Case Study Presentation: PCN 605

    CASE STUDY: MARGE

    Marge has lived alone during her adult life. She wears clothes that would have been popular in the 1920s, and her make up causes her to stand out when she is in public (CriterionA7) She is currently suspicious of her neighbor, who she thinks is watching her (A5). The neighbor has left his apartment the same time Marge has for the past 2 weeks, and she think she is plotting to take advantage of her (A1). Marge has no friends and says she fears people, even thoses he has known casually for a long time (A8). She thinks acquaintances may one day snap and take advantage of her (A9). Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605. She has three large dogs in her back yard that she says are there for protection and to keep people away from her. Marge has been known to hold odd beliefs as reported by her acquaintances (A2). She believes she is clairvoyant and makes predictions about the future that are not accurate, according to her coworkers. She recently went to a priest to discuss her psychic gifts but was vague and circumstantial when the priest pressed her for a clear explanation of how her psychic abilities work (A2). She was unsatisfied with her consult with the parish priest. She states openly that she does not date and does not want to have any children as she is not sure she could love a child. Marge meets six of the diagnostic criteria (A1,A2,A4,A5,A7,andA9)for a diagnosis of STPD. Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605. Marge is uncomfortable with interpersonal relationships, entertains perceptual distortions, and appears eccentric o those around her. Treatment options for Marge depend on what she is willing to tolerate. Psychotherapy, especially if resistive,is not always considered the treatment of choice and can be contraindicated for individuals who are diagnosed with STPD (Dobbert,2007).

    Cluster A

    GENERAL PERSONALITY DISORDER

    (Odd- ECCENTRIC)

    301.0 Paranoid PD

    301.20 Schizoid PD

    301.22 Schizotypal PD

    1. Ideas of reference (excluding delusions of reference).

    2. Odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with subcultural norms (e.g., superstitiousness, belief in clairvoyance, telepathy, or “sixth sense”; in children and adolescents, bizarre fantasies or preoccupations). Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605.

    3. Unusual perceptual experiences, including bodily illusions.

    4. Odd thinking and speech (e.g., vague, circumstantial, metaphorical, over elaborate, or stereotyped).

    5. Suspiciousness or paranoid ideation.

    6. Inappropriate or constricted affect.

    7. Behavior or appearance that is odd, eccentric, or peculiar.

    8. Lack of close friends or confidants other than first-degree relatives

    9. Social anxiety that tends to be associated with paranoid fears rather than negative judgments about self. Personality Disorders – Marge Case Study DSM-5 – PCN 605.

  • PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay

    PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay

    Case Study: Ted

    PCN 605 Case Study: A single man of 40 years of age named Ted

    safety plan for a client similar to Ted

    A single man of 40 years of age named Ted cut his carotid artery at home. He had suffered from chronic schizophrenia, dominated by paranoid symptoms, for 20 years. During his illness, Ted had spent a total of 12 years in mental hospitals; individual hospitalizations had varied in duration. PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay. While he was hospitalized, his bizarre delusions of altered body states and his experiences of being controlled by external, often invisible, agents rapidly disappeared. He had death wishes and suicidal thoughts since the onset of his schizophrenia. Death wishes also stopped soon after hospitalization. safety plan for a client similar to Ted. PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay.

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    Over the years, opinion about Ted changed and his condition began to be regarded as hopeless. He was difficult to treat; he accused personnel, was unreliable, acted pretentiously, and reacted by acting out. Four years before committing suicide, he had to be transferred to another mental hospital. Two years before his death, he was transferred to a halfway house belonging to the hospital, because the staff feared that his dependence on the hospital might become excessive. After his transfer to outpatient care, his suicidal tendencies increased. Six months before committing suicide, he lost his long-term nurse. PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay. Subsequent treatment consisted of occasional office visits with a psychologist or psychiatrist. safety plan for a client similar to Ted

    Just before committing suicide, Ted tried to enter the hospital where he had been during the initial phases of his illness. He had suffered increasingly for a few months from paranoid fears of being murdered. He threatened to commit suicide unless he was admitted to the hospital, but the threat was considered demonstrative and hospitalization was brief.

    The day before he committed suicide, he visited his childhood home and became afraid that a group of men had surrounded the house. He repeated his wish to enter a mental hospital. During his final night, his state changed. According to his father, the Ted was exceptionally calm on the day of his death. The father said, “He no longer seemed afraid of anything.”

    safety plan for a client similar to Ted Adapted from:

    Saarinen, P. I., Lehtonen, J., & Lönnqvist, J. (1999). Suicide risk in schizophrenia: An analysis of 17 consecutive suicides. 
    Schizophrenia Bulletin, 25
    , 533-542.

    PCN 605 Case Study: A single man of 40 years of age named Ted

    Question Description

    Create a 1,200-1,500-word safety plan for a client similar to Ted, who had been diagnosed with schizophrenia that addresses potential depression and suicidality.

    Include the following in your safety plan:

    What symptoms would a client with schizophrenia exhibit? What symptoms did Ted display?

    How would you have addressed Ted’s symptoms related to delusions, hallucinations, and depression?

    What other diagnosis might Ted have been misdiagnosed with and why? PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay

    Describe which theories would have been most effective and which theories would have been least effective for treating Ted’s schizophrenia. Explain your rationale.

    Describe treatment options for addressing all of Ted’s symptoms.

    Explain how a client’s religious or spiritual beliefs come into play during the process of dealing with depression and suicide.

    Include at least five scholarly references in addition to the textbook in your paper.PCN 605 Case Study: A single man of 40 years of age named Ted. PCN 605 Ted Case Study – chronic schizophrenia Essay.

  • PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay

    PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay

    Case Study: Mark

    You are the intake clinician at a large acute inpatient psychiatric facility, which includes a sizable detoxification unit. It is an unusually busy day and the lobby is full of patients seeking treatment. Half an hour before lunch, you pick up another clipboard from the 
    “pending
    ” rack and quickly scan the intake information filled in by the prospective patient and receptionist. Mark is a 45-year-old male who has been waiting since 8:15 AM. He is requesting alcohol detox. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay. You notice that Mark has been waiting for over three hours and you are frustrated because you will have to begin yet another interview with an apology for the long wait. You notice that the blood pressure assessed by the receptionist is somewhat elevated you make a mental note to inform the nurse: BP = 149/97, pulse 104, respiration rate 18. You invite Mark into one of the free interview rooms and you notice that he appears much older than his 45 years. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay. He’s dressed casually and is a bit disheveled; his skin looks old/tanned and flushed; in his right hand, he holds an emesis bag. He apologizes and he states that he has been having dry heaves since yesterday evening but he tells you that he is able to keep down some fluids.

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    You observe that Mark does not look too good and since he’s been waiting in your lobby for three hours, you think it’s a good idea to assess another set of vitals. The receptionist obliges and reports the new vital signs as BP = 154/103, pulse 114, respiration rate 20, oxygen saturation 98% at room air. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay. You become a little concerned by the increase in blood pressure and pulse and you note that while previously Mark’s shirt was dry, he now has sweat stains on his back and chest; visible sweat beads are also noticeable on his forehead and neck. You noticed that Mark speaks softly now when the door to the interview room is closed to cut down on the noise from the hallway. He asks you if you can turn off the bright ceiling lights and to keep on only the lamp on your desk. You oblige. Mark tells you that he started drinking at the age of 16 simply because it was popular and the fun thing to do on the weekends in high school. His social drinking increased somewhat in his 20s but it became problematic in his early 30s. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.

    Mark works as a plumber, and along with his older brother, he owned his own plumbing business. Somewhat embarrassed, he tells you that for the past 15 years, he has been more drunk than sober. His longest period of sobriety was seven years ago, after a detox and rehab program he managed to stay clean for nine months. Slowly he relapsed into drinking, believing that he is one of the few who can only drink socially. For the past 15 years, he has had several DUIs. Several times, his wife of 20 years threatened divorce; now they have come to a truce of sorts, but he describes a disengage relationship. His brother continues to be very loyal to him, but Mark tells you that this is both a blessing and a curse. On one hand, his brother has “covered” for him when his drinking and the hangovers made him an unreliable worker. On the other hand, he regrets the fact that had his brother been stricter with him he may have sought serious help a long time ago. Mark tried to quit drinking several times on his own. He reports that on one such occasion when he went “cold turkey” after a religious conversion of sorts, he experienced a grand mal seizure and had to be taken to the emergency room. The ER doctor strongly advised him to never stop drinking abruptly or you have another seizure. The past two years, Mark has been averaging a six-pack of beer and a pint of vodka every day. This is enough to lead to intoxication. He starts with the beers in the morning and after work, he switches to the vodka. On the weekends, he can drink up to a gallon of vodka per day. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay. Those binges lead to blackouts because he often cannot remember most of his Sundays. He often goes out with his brother to a local casino where he gambles $500 to $1000 each weekend. His wife stopped nagging him about it when he insisted that he works hard for his earned money and that he always pays the bills first. Mark has decided to stop drinking because during a routine doctor’s visit, his liver enzymes were significantly elevated. His primary care physician warned him seriously about liver cirrhosis. On several occasions during the interview, Mark quickly turns away from you and leans into his emesis bag heaving heavily. He apologizes. You offer him a bottle of water and he takes small sips occasionally. You ask Mark to stand up and to stretch out his arms: you notice visible tremors in both his arms and his shoulders. He reports a headache of 5 out of 10 (subjective units of distress) and he tells you that normally a few Advils help. His last full drink was yesterday morning before going to his doctor’s office and he had only a sip of beer at lunch. You calculate that by now he has been without any alcohol for approximately 24 hours. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay. He reports mild anxiety, but you observe him to fidget during the interview. You complete the CIWA scale (attached) and you observed that with a score of 25 he is in severe alcohol withdrawals. You notify the nurse immediately, urging her to come and have a look at Mark and to call the doctor for admitting orders.

    PCN 605 Case Study: Mark

    CIWA scale for Mark

    Assessment Protocol
    a. Vitals, Assessment Now.
      

    b. If initial score ³ 8 repeat q1h x 8 hrs, then

    if stable q2h x 8 hrs, then if stable q4h.

    c. If initial score < 8, assess q4h x 72 hrs.     If score < 8 for 72 hrs, d/c assessment. If score ³ 8 at any time, go to (b) above. d. If indicated, (see indications below) administer prn medications as ordered and record on MAR and below. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.   Date Today’s date Time 11:30am Pulse 114 RR 20 O 2 sat 98% BP 154/103 Nausea/vomiting   (0 – 7)0 – none; 1 – mild nausea ,no vomiting; 4 – intermittent nausea; 7 – constant nausea , frequent dry heaves & vomiting. 7 Tremors   (0 – 7)0 – no tremor; 1 – not visible but can be felt; 4 – moderate w/ arms extended; 7 – severe, even w/ arms not extended. 4 Anxiety   (0 – 7)0 – none, at ease; 1 – mildly anxious; 4 – moderately anxious or guarded; 7 – equivalent to acute panic state 1 Agitation  (0 – 7)0 – normal activity; 1 – somewhat normal activity; 4 – moderately fidgety/restless; 7 – paces or constantly thrashes about 4 Paroxysmal Sweats  (0 – 7)0 – no sweats;    1 – barely  perceptible sweating,  palms moist; 4 – beads of sweat obvious on forehead;     7 – drenching sweat 4 Orientation   (0 – 4)0 – oriented; 1 – uncertain about date; 2 – disoriented to date by no more than 2 days; 3 – disoriented to date by  > 2 days;

    4 – disoriented to place and / or  person

    0

    Tactile Disturbances
     (0 – 7)0 – none; 1 – very mild itch, P&N, ,numbness; 2-mild itch, P&N, burning,  numbness; 3 – moderate itch,  P&N, burning ,numbness;  4 – moderate  hallucinations; 5 – severe  hallucinations;

    6 – extremely severe hallucinations; 7 – continuous hallucinations

    0

    Auditory Disturbances
     (0 – 7)0 – not present; 1 – very mild harshness/ ability to startle; 2 – mild harshness, ability to startle; 3 – moderate harshness, ability to startle; 4 – moderate hallucinations; 5 severe hallucinations;

    6 – extremely severe hallucinations; 7 – continuous.hallucinations

    1

    Visual Disturbances
     (0 – 7)0 – not present;    1 – very mild sensitivity;      2 – mild sensitivity;   3 – moderate sensitivity;       4 – moderate hallucinations;   5 – severe hallucinations;        6 – extremely severe hallucinations;   7 – continuous hallucinations

    1

    Headache
      (0 – 7)0 – not present; 1 – very mild; 2 – mild; 3 – moderate; 4 – moderately severe; 5 – severe; 6 – very severe; 7 – extremely severe

    3

    Total  CIWA-Ar score:

    25

    PRN Med: (circle one)Diazepam     Lorazepam

    Dose given (mg):

    Route:

    Time
     of PRN medication administration:

    Assessment of response (CIWA-Ar score 30-60 minutes after medication administered)

    RN Initials. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.

     

    Scale for Scoring:
    Total Score =

    0 – 9: absent or minimal withdrawal

    10 – 19: mild to moderate withdrawal

    more than   20: severe withdrawal

    Indications for PRN medication
    :
    a.  Total CIWA-AR score 8 or higher if ordered PRN only (Symptom-triggered method).

    b.  Total CIWA-Ar score 15 or higher if on Scheduled medication. (Scheduled + prn method)

    Consider transfer to ICU for any of the following
    : Total score above 35, q1h assess. x more than 8hrs required,  more than 4 mg/hr lorazepam x 3hr 
    or
     20 mg/hr diazepam x 3hr required, or resp. distress. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.

    PCN 605 Case Study: Mark Question Description

    To complete this assignment, access the links above regarding alcohol withdrawal treatments and the CIWA. Read the case study of “Mark,” which also includes Mark’s CIWA at the bottom of the case study. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.

    Write a 750-1,000-word essay response to the following questions:

    What are the significant diagnostic markers (“red flags”) that indicate acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome for Mark?

    What is the most appropriate/safest course of action for Mark? Support your response.

    Assess the appropriate DSM diagnoses for Mark.

    Include at least three to five scholarly references in your paper.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

    Refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. PCN 605 Case Study: Mark – acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome essay.

  • NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers

    NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers

    When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:

    most of the abdomen.

    emphysemic lungs.

    the liver.

    healthy lung tissue.

    an empty stomach.

    The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of:

    crepitus.

    thrills.

    texture.

    vibration.

    temperature.

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    A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Strabismoscope

    Red-free filter

    Slit lamp

    Small aperture

    Grid

    The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of:

    variations in skin color.

    enlarged tonsils.

    foreign objects in the nose or ear.

    variations in contour of the body surface.

    variations in texture and mobility.

    Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure:

    vibratory sensations.

    hearing from bone conduction.

    hearing range of normal speech.

    noise above the threshold level.

    peripheral motor nerve damage.

    Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy?

    The new patient who has no chronic illness and has never been hospitalized

    The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries

    The patient who is allergic to eggs

    The patient who is allergic to contrast dye

    The patient who is a vegetarian

    A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following?

    Brush and needle

    Tuning fork and cotton swab

    Penlight and goniometer

    Ruler and bell

    Transilluminator

    Transillumination functions on the principle that:

    infrared radiation is easily detected.

    black light causes certain substances to fluoresce.

    converging and diverging light brings structures into focus.

    tangential light casts shadows that illuminate contours.

    air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially.

    Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture?

    Physical characteristics should be used to identify members of cultural groups.

    There is a difference between distinguishing cultural characteristics and distinguishing physical characteristics.

    To be a member of a specific culture, an individual must have certain identifiable physical characteristics.

    Gender and race are the two essential physical characteristics used to identify cultural groups. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    All cultural traits can be viewed as static whereas physical traits are dynamic.

    A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated:

    when the patient tells you the weight is not correct.

    by a qualified technician at regularly scheduled intervals.

    each time it is used.

    when necessary, with the patient standing on the scale.

    only by the manufacturer.

    Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys?

    Finger percussion

    Only indirect percussion techniques are ever used to elicit tenderness.

    Fist percussion

    Thumb percussion

    Palmer percussion

    A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to:

    prevent the transmission of static electricity.

    avoid cold metal from touching the patient.

    prevent the sharp edge of the stethoscope from damaging the patient s skin.

    allow firm pressure to be applied without discomfort.

    ensure secure contact with the body surface.

    In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients.

    emphasize attitudes and feelings

    maintain eye contact

    come quickly to the point

    use silence comfortably

    speak more softly than other cultures

    For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum.

    plastic Graves

    Pederson

    pediatric

    nasal

    metal Graves

    During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the:

    wrist.

    forearm.

    shoulder.

    interphalangeal joint.

    elbow.

    You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment? NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Anticipate the next sounds.

    Isolate each cycle segment.

    Listen to all sounds together.

    Move the stethoscope clockwise.

    Ask the patient to whisper his name.

    Expected normal percussion tones include:

    dullness over the lungs.

    hyperresonance over the lungs.

    tympany over an empty stomach.

    flatness over an empty stomach.

    resonance over the liver.

    During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by:

    asking patients to describe their symptoms.

    listening through the patient s clothing.

    closing your eyes.

    performing palpation before percussion.

    turning out the lights in the examination room.

    Standard Precautions apply to all patients:

    with bloodborne infections.

    with infected, draining wounds.

    in intensive care units.

    receiving care in hospitals.

    believed to have an infectious disease.

    Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator?

    Ritual

    Rite

    Race

    Norm

    Ethos

     

    Course

    NURS-6512N-28,Advanced Health Assessment.2017 Fall Qtr 08/28-11/19-PT27

    Test

    Quiz – Week 2

    Started

    9/9/17 11:22 AM

    Submitted

    9/9/17 11:53 AM

    Due Date

    9/11/17 1:59 AM

    Status

    Completed

    Attempt Score

    40 out of 40 points

    Time Elapsed

    30 minutes out of 30 minutes

    Instructions

    Click
    Begin
    to begin: Quiz – Week 2. Click
    Cancel
    to go back.

    Results Displayed

    Feedback

    Question 1

    2 out of 2 points

     

    When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Dull tones are expected over more dense areas such as the liver.

    Question 2

    2 out of 2 points NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers

     

    The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of:

     

    Response Feedback:

    The dorsal surface, or back of the hand, can best feel for warmth.

    Question 3

    2 out of 2 points

     

    A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient? NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers

     

    Response Feedback:

    The red-free filter permits recognition of hemorrhages. The grid estimates the size of lesions; the slit lamp examines the anterior eye and assesses the elevation of lesions; and the small aperture is used with small pupils. The strabismoscope is used for detecting strabismus.

    Question 4

    2 out of 2 points

     

    The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Tangential lighting is used to cast shadows in order to best observe contours and variations in body surfaces. All of the other choices are best observed with direct lighting that does not cast shadows.

    Question 5

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Normal speech has a range of 300 to 3000 Hz; therefore, the 500- to 1000-Hz fork is most often used because it can estimate hearing loss in the range of normal speech. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 6

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Which patient is at the highest risk for the development of latex allergy?

     

    Response Feedback:

    The patient who has had multiple procedures or surgeries has a higher exposure rate to rubber gloves and to equipment and supplies that contain latex and therefore is at a higher risk for developing an allergic response.

    Question 7

    2 out of 2 points

     

    A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following?

     

    Response Feedback:

    The neurologic hammer unscrews at the handle to reveal a soft brush and the knob on the head unscrews, to which is attached a sharp needle.

    Question 8

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Transillumination functions on the principle that:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Transillumination functions to differentiate between various media in a cavity. It can distinguish between air, fluid, and tissue. It consists of a strong light in the visible spectrum with a narrow beam. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 9

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Which statement is true regarding the relationship of physical characteristics and culture?

     

    Response Feedback:

    Physical characteristics do not symbolize cultural groups; there is a difference between the two, and they are considered separately. Cultures are dynamic in their evolution.

    Question 10

    2 out of 2 points

     

    A scale used to assess patients weight should be calibrated:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Obtaining weight begins with a manual calibration of the scale before the patient stands on the scale. Electronic scales are automatically calibrated before each reading.

    Question 11

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys?

     

    Response Feedback:

    The fist percussion is a direct percussion technique used to elicit tenderness over organs such as the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys.

    Question 12

    2 out of 2 points

     

    A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell end-piece of a stethoscope to:

     

    Response Feedback:

    The ring around the bell portion of the stethoscope functions to secure contact with body surfaces when placed lightly on the skin. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 13

    2 out of 2 points

     

    In terms of cultural communication differences, Americans are more likely to _____ than are other groups of patients.

     

    Response Feedback:

    In the United States, individuals are very direct in conversation and come to the point quickly. They also tend to talk more loudly and to worry less about being overheard.

    Question 14

    2 out of 2 points

     

    For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum.

     

    Response Feedback:

    The Pederson speculum has blades that are as long as those of the Graves speculum but are both narrower and flatter and therefore more comfortable for women with small vaginal openings. Pediatric or nasal speculums would be too small for adult use. Plastic speculums are similar in uses to the metal counterparts. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 15

    2 out of 2 points

     

    During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the:

     

    Response Feedback:

    The dominant hand s middle finger strikes the stationary finger with a wrist motion and is lifted quickly off the striking surface.

    Question 16

    2 out of 2 points

     

    You are auscultating a patient s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment?

     

    Response Feedback:

    If you are hearing everything at once, it is more difficult to distinguish different sounds. Try isolating each segment and listen to that segment intently, then move on to another segment. For example, listen only to breath sounds, then only to inspiratory breath sounds, then only expiratory breath sounds. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 17

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Expected normal percussion tones include:

     

    Response Feedback:

    A normal lung produces resonance percussion tones while an empty stomach is expected to produce tympany. Dull percussion tones are heard over the liver.

    Question 18

    2 out of 2 points

     

    During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by:

     

    Response Feedback:

    By closing your eyes, your sense of hearing becomes more acute and it increases your ability to isolate sounds.

    Question 19

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Standard Precautions apply to all patients:

     

    Response Feedback:

    Although all of the statements are true, the best answer is 4. Standard Precautions were developed with the intent of application in the care of all hospitalized patients; however, the standard has merit to be applied to all cases of patient care regardless of the environment in which care is delivered. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Question 20

    2 out of 2 points

     

    Which of the following describes a physical, not a cultural, differentiator?

     

    Response Feedback:

    Race is a physical, not a cultural, differentiator.

    Saturday, September 9, 2017 11:53:16 AM EDT

     

    Guidelines for Standard Precautions indicate that mask and eye protection or a face mask should be worn while performing

    trachea care and suctioning.

     

    Standard Precautions apply to all patients

    receiving care in hospitals.

     

    According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions

    the caregiver’s hands should be washed after touching any body fluids and contaminated items regardless of whether gloves are worn.

     

    One recommendation to prevent latex allergy is to

    wash hands with mild soap after removing gloves and then dry the hands thoroughly.

     

    Which patient position is useful for auscultating heart tones?

    Left lateral recumbent

     

    Which technique is used during the history taking and the physical examination process?

    Inspection

     

    Which examination technique should be used first?

    Inspection

     

    The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection of

    variations in contour of the body surface. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

     

    A nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient tells the female nurse that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?

    Drape the patient and observe the rectal area.

     

    You are conducting a head to toe examination as part of a patient’s preventive health assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination?

    To the right side of the patient

     

    Which part of the examiner’s hand is best for palpating vibration?

    Ulnar surface and base of the fingers

     

    The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of

    temperature.

     

    When conducting the abdominal examination, after you inspect, you proceed next to

    auscultation.

     

    Expected normal percussion tones include

    tympany over an empty stomach.

     

    When percussing, a dull tone is expected to be heard over

    the liver.

     

    During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the

    wrist. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

     

    Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys?

    Fist percussion

     

    During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by

    closing your eyes.

     

    You are auscultating a patient’s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. What technique can you use to facilitate your assessment?

    Isolate each cycle segment.

     

    When examining the abdomen, which technique should be used first?

    Inspection

     

    Auscultation should be carried out last except when examining

    the abdomen.

     

    Which of the following statements is true regarding tympanic membrane temperature?

    It is an accurate measurement of body temperature because the tympanic membrane shares its blood supply with the hypothalamus. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

     

    A scale used to assess a patient’s weight should be calibrated

    each time it is used.

     

    The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled out

    before the patient steps on the scale.

     

    An infant should be placed in which position to have his or her height or length measured?

    Supine on a measuring board

     

    The stethoscope’s diaphragm is most useful in the assessment of _____ sounds.

    high-pitched

     

    A rubber or plastic ring should be around the bell endpiece of a stethoscope to

    ensure secure contact with the body surface.

     

    Which technique should be used to stabilize the stethoscope during auscultation?

    The endpiece should be held between the second and third fingers.

     

    A patient in the emergency department has a concussion to the head. You suspect that the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient?

    Red-free filter

     

    The Tumbling “E” vision acuity chart would most likely be used for _____ patients.

    preschool

     

    The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate

    tympanic membrane movement.

     

    The patient tells you that his ears are “stopped up.” An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using a(n)

    tympanometer. NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

     

    Tuning forks with a frequency of 500 to 1000 Hz are most commonly used to measure

    hearing range of normal speech

     

    To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should

    briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer.

     

    A variant of the percussion hammer is a neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following?

    Brush and needle

     

    When monitoring serial measurements, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time?

    Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen.

     

    Transillumination functions on the principle that

    air, fluid, and tissue transmit light differentially.

     

    When performing transillumination of a body cavity, the use of which of the following could be harmful to the patient?

    Halogen bulb

     

    For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a _____ speculum.

    Pederson

     

    You are performing a vaginal examination on a patient with a history of spina bifida. As you insert the metal speculum, the patient suddenly feels nauseated and is sweating, and her skin turns blotchy. What is your most immediate reaction to this situation? NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Remove the speculum.

     

    Mr. Walder is a 56-year-old man who has been complaining of chest palpitations. Which position is useful for auscultating heart sounds?

    Left lateral recumbent

     

    Which technique is used during both the history taking and the physical examination process?

    Inspection

     

    Ms. Jones is a 31-year-old female patient who presents for a routine physical examination. Which examination technique will be used first?

    Inspection

     

    The use of secondary, tangential lighting is most helpful in the detection

    variations in contour of the body surface.

     

    You are caring for a nonambulatory 80-year-old male patient and he tells you, a female nurse, that he feels like he is having drainage from his rectum. Which initial nursing action is appropriate?

    Drape the patient and observe the rectal area.

     

    Mrs. Smalls is a 42-year-old woman who has presented to the office for a head to toe examination as part of her preventive health care assessment. The room has adequate lighting, and you have access to both sides of the examining table. What position should you assume while conducting this examination? NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    Either side of the patient

     

    You are planning to palpate the abdomen of your patient. Which part of the examiner’s hand is best for palpating vibration?

    Ulnar surface

     

    Mrs. Berger is a 39-year-old woman who presents with a complaint of epigastric abdominal pain. You have completed the inspection of the abdomen. What is your next step in the assessment process?

    Auscultation

     

    The degree of percussion tone is determined by the density of the medium through which the sound waves travel. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between density of the medium and percussion tone?

     

    The less dense the medium, the louder is the percussion tone.

    Expected normal percussion tones include:

    tympany over an empty stomach.

     

    During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:

    the liver.

     

    When using mediate or indirect percussion, which technique is appropriate?

    Place the palmar surface of the nondominant hand on the body surface, with the fingers slightly spread apart.

     

    During percussion, the downward snap of the striking fingers should originate from the:

    wrist.

     

    During auscultation, you can limit your perceptual field best by:

    closing your eyes.

     

    You are auscultating a patient’s chest. The sounds are not clear, and you are having difficulty distinguishing between respirations and heartbeats. Which technique can you use to facilitate your assessment?

    Isolate each cycle segment.

     

    Auscultation should be carried out last, except when examining the:

    abdomen.

     

    Tympanic thermometers measure body temperature when a probe is placed:

    in the auditory canal.

     

    The height-measuring attachment of the standing platform scale should be pulled up:

    before the patient steps on the scale.

     

    Which of the following occurs when firm pressure is used to apply the stethoscope’s bell endpiece to the skin?

    It functionally converts to a diaphragm endpiece.

     

    Weak pulses, fetal heart activity, and vessel patency are all best assessed with which type of stethoscope?   Ultrasonic

     

    You are using an ophthalmoscope to examine a patient’s inner eye. You rotate the lens selector clockwise and then counterclockwise to compensate for: NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers.

    myopia.

     

    A patient in the emergency department has a concussion. You suspect the patient may also have a retinal hemorrhage. You are using the ophthalmoscope to examine the retina of this patient. Which aperture of the ophthalmoscope is most appropriate for this patient?

    Red-free filter

     

    Which type of speculum should be used to examine a patient’s tympanic membrane?

    The largest speculum that will fit comfortably in the ear

     

    The pneumatic attachment for the otoscope is used to evaluate:

    tympanic membrane movement.

     

    Mr. Walters, a 32-year-old patient, tells you that his ears are “stopped up.” An objective assessment of this complaint is achieved by using the:

    tympanometer.

     

    To perform a deep tendon reflex measurement, you should:

    briskly tap the tendon with the rubber end of the hammer.

     

    When monitoring serial measures, such as head circumference or abdominal girth, which procedure is best to ensure that the tape measure is placed in the same position each time?

    Mark the borders of the tape at several intervals on the skin with a pen.

     

    The Pederson speculum has blades that:

    are narrower and flatter.

     

    Which of the following are causes of hyperreflexia? (Select all that apply.)

    Cold stirrups

    Insertion of a speculum

    Pressure during bimanual exam

     

    The Snellen E vision acuity chart would most likely be used for __________.

    preschool children

     

    The stethoscope’s diaphragm is most useful for the assessment of __________ sounds.

    high-pitched

     

    For a woman with a small vaginal opening, the examiner should use a __________ speculum.

    Pederson NURS 6512 Advanced Health Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning WK 2 QUIZ with answers

  • Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study

    Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study

    Case Study from Chapter 13 (Personality Disorders) in DSM-5 in Action: PCN 605

    CASE OF LEON: Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD)

    Choose and read any one case study from Chapter 13 (Personality Disorders) in DSM-5 in Action.

    Research the specific personality disorder from your chosen case study. Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study.

    Create a 10-15-slide PowerPoint presentation about your selected case study.CASE OF LEON: Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD)

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Include the following in your presentation:

    A brief description of the selected case study

    Explanation and rationale for the Personality Disorder Diagnosis using the latest version of the DSM as a reference.

    Information on the course of treatment for the disorder.

    Identification of which cluster (A, B, or C) this personality disorder belongs to and an explanation of your rationale.

    Information on the prognosis and prevalence of the disorder.

    A minimum of five scholarly references including your textbook and the latest version of the DSM. Be sure to only use current and scholarly references for this assignment. Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study.

    Detailed speaker notes that represent what you would say if giving the presentation in person.

    While APA format is not required for the body of this assignment on Case Study from Chapter 13 (Personality Disorders) in DSM-5 in Action: PCN 605, solid academic writing is expected, and documentation of sources should be presented using APA formatting guidelines, which can be found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center.CASE OF LEON: Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study. Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD)

    Case Study from Chapter 13 (Personality Disorders) in DSM-5 in Action: PCN 605

    CASE EXAMPLE-CASE OF LEON Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD)[301.0(F60.0)]

    Leon has gotten up late this morning and suspects that someone who was meaning him harm interfered with his alarm clock so that he would be late for work (CriterionA1). He thinks it is Morgan at work, who he believes wants to make him look bad before his boss so that he will be fired (A6). When he arrives an hour late at work, he is greeted by the receptionist, Mary, who says, “Good morning, Leon” (A4). She was trying to be friendly, but Leon thinks she is trying to get him in trouble with the boss by making a scene, so the boss will know he is late. Morgan, who believes she is a good friend of Leon, greets him. He ignores Morgan and goes to his work station. He is thinking of how disloyal Morgan has been (A2). Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study. Leon notices his boss, Jacob, and Morgan were whispering about something. Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study. He believes they are discussing his tardiness this morning and plotting to write him up (A1andA2). He cannot contain himself any longer and confronts his boss about his conversation with Morgan. The boss tells him they were planning a surprise for a coworker who was celebrating her 50
    th
     birthday. Leon does not believe his boss. Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study. This incident adds to his grudge against Morgan, whom he cannot forgive for meddling with his alarm clock(A5). Interviewing this case, Leon meets five of the diagnostic criteria (A1, A2, A4, A5, and A6) for a diagnosis of PPD. People with PPD commonly blame others for their own failures. Cultural considerations in diagnosing this disorder may have to do with immigrant groups who do not understand the dominant culture, may experience language barriers, or may not understand rules and regulations of the new country. Several ethnic groups may also display behaviors that might be incorrectly misinterpreted as paranoia (APA,2013). Persons with PPD can be very difficult to treat in psychotherapy because of the chronic suspiciousness and perception of attacks on their character(Dobbert,2007). Paranoid Personality Disorder(PPD) Essay Assignment case study.