MCQs for physiology Question 1
MCQs for physiology: T F For an MNE to exist, first foreign countries must provide location-specific advantages to attract the company to invest there, second the company must have ownership-specific advantages that counteract its liability of foreignness, third the company must have the organizational capability to leverage its strategic advantages more effectively internally than externally.
True
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False
MCQs for physiology Question 2
T F An MNE with an ‘international perspective’ will typically be managed as a coordinated federation.
True
False
Question 3
T F An MNE with a ‘multinational perspective’ will typically be managed as a coordinated federation.
True
False
Question 4
T F An MNE with a ‘global perspective’ will typically manage its operations centrally.
True
False
MCQs for physiology Question 5
T F An MNE with a ‘transnational perspective’ will typically be managed as an integrated network.
True
False
Question 6
T F Emerging motivations for internationalization include the desire to enhance the firm’s competitive position and the desire to develop global scanning capabilities.
True
False
Question 7
Which of the following correctly describes the sequential evolution in management thinking with respect to the strategic role of foreign operations in emerging MNEs?
a. global mentality, multinational mentality, international mentality, transnational mentality.
b. international mentality, global mentality, transnational mentality, multinational mentality.
c. multinational mentality, global mentality, international mentality, transnational mentality.
d. international mentality, multinational mentality, global mentality, transnational mentality.
e. all of the above
Question 8
An MNE is a(n):
a. import-export company that actively trades in foreign markets.
b. company that passively manages its substantial foreign direct investment.
c. import-export company that actively manages its foreign investment portfolio.
d. company that actively manages substantial foreign direct investment.
e. All of the above
Question 9
Which of the following constitutes a list of foreign entry modes that involve the MNE to make a foreign investment?
a. Greenfield, acquisition, joint venture and capital participation
b. Greenfield, acquisition, joint venture and license
c. Franchising, acquisition, joint venture and capital participation
d. Greenfield, acquisition, cooperation agreements and capital participation
e. none of the above
Question 10
One motivation behind internationalization is to sustain the firm’s competitive position. To pursue a sustainable competitive position relative to its rivals in the athletic clothing industry, Nike attempts to:
a. preempt markets, capture global scale, and secure raw materials
b. capture global scale, access scarce knowledge, and match competitors
c. match competitors, capture global scale, and preempt markets
d. exploit factor cost differences, preempt markets, and match competitors
e. all of the above
MCQs for physiology Question 11
_________ suggests that in the first stage innovations are produced in the home developed country; in the second stage they are exported to other similarly developed countries; in the third stage, they start being produced in these developed countries; in the fourth stage they start being produced in low-wage developing countries.
a. Vernon’s product cycle theory
b. Johanson and Vahlne’s stages theory
c. Dunning’s eclectic theory
d. Levitt’s globalization theory
e. none of the above
Question 12
A franchise, such as McDonald’s, is a _________ mode of foreign entry.
a. low commitment, low control
b. low commitment, moderate control
c. low commitment, high control
d. moderate commitment, moderate control
e. none of the above
Question 13
A joint venture is a _________ mode of foreign entry.
a. low commitment, low control
b. low commitment, moderate control
c. low commitment, high control
d. moderate commitment, moderate control
e. none of the above
Question 14
Three prerequisites that must be satisfied before a national firm can transform itself into a multinational firm include:
a. scale-based advantages, ownership-specific advantages and contractual capabilities.
b. location-specific advantages, ownership-specific advantages and organizational capabilities.
c. scale-based advantages, ownership-specific advantages and organizational capabilities.
d. location-specific advantages, knowledge advantages and organizational capabilities.
MCQs for physiology Question 15
Pashpa Co. is a new manufacturer of home appliances. Pashpa wants to go international. Some of the traditional motivations for pursuing internationalization include:
a. securing key supplies, seeking new markets, and raising global scanning and learning capabilities
b. securing key supplies, seeking new markets, and improving competitive positioning
c. securing key supplies, seeking new markets and accessing low-cost factors of production
d. securing key supplies, improving competitive positioning, and accessing low-cost factors of production
All of the above
Question 16
T F The search for global competitiveness is the major source of conflict between MNEs and host governments.
True
False
Question 17
T F Worldwide innovation and learning forces that are encountered by MNEs are driven by factor costs.
True
False
Question 18
T F In the emerging international environment, most industries can be categorized as multinational, global or international.
True
False
Question 19
T F A multinational industry is characterized by low national responsiveness and high global integration.
True
False
Question 20
T F An international industry is characterized by low national responsiveness and moderate global integration.
True
False
3 points
Question 21
T F The three conflicting environmental forces that MNEs encounter are cross-border integration and coordination, national differentiation and responsiveness, and worldwide innovation and learning.
True
False
Question 22
What are the main forces that drive MNEs such as Nokia, the mobile communications company, to innovate and learn on a global scale?
a. Economic and political forces.
b. Political and social forces.
c. Social and informational forces.
d. Technological and informational forces.
e. none of the above
Question 23
A transnational industry is characterized by _____________.
a. low national responsiveness and low global integration
b. low national responsiveness and high global integration
c. high national responsiveness and low global integration
d. high national responsiveness and high global integration
e. none of the above
MCQs for physiology Question 24
In a transnational industry, MNEs are expected to
a. collaborate with their competitors to increase the prices of their products.
b. build the capability to learn from the many environments in which they operate.
c. acquire their competitors to increase their pool of resources.
d. decentralize decisions to better respond to local demands.
e. none of the above
Question 25
Philips, a multinational electronics corporation based in the Netherlands and diversified in the consumer electronics, domestic appliance, lighting, medical systems and medical technology industries would encounter the following forces of local responsiveness:
a. Cultural differences, government demands and economies of scope
b. Cultural differences, government demands and factor costs
c. Cultural differences, government demands and local competitors
d. Cultural differences, government demands and increasingly liberalized trade environments
e. none of the above
Question 26
What are the main forces that motivate MNEs such as Dell Computers to disaggregate their operations and activities to respond to national, regional and local needs and demands?
a. Social and economic forces.
b. Social and political forces.
c. Political and economic forces.
d. Economic and psychological forces.
e. None of the above
Question 27
The pressures that drive book publishers such as McGraw-Hill to integrate and coordinate their activities across national boundaries are primarily _________.
a. economic
b. political
c. social
d. organizational
e. all of the above
Question 28
An industry that is characterized by low national responsiveness and high global integration is a(n)
a. multinational industry.
b. global industry.
c. international industry.
d. transnational industry.
e. none of the above
Question 29
Which global integration and coordination forces would MNEs, such as Hewlett Packard, encounter?
a. Economies of scale, increasingly liberalized trade environments and government demands
b. Economies of scope, factor costs and increasingly liberalized trade environments
c. Economies of scale, expanding spiral of globalization and local competitors
d. Economies of scale, economies of scope and government demands
e. none of the above
Question 30
An industry that is characterized by moderate national responsiveness and moderate global integration is a(n)
a. international industry.
b. global industry.
c. transnational industry.
d. multinational industry.
e. multinational industry.
Question 31
T F The diversity of environments in which the MNE operates enables the firm to develop diverse capabilities and experience multiple learning opportunities.
True
False
3 points
Question 32
T F An MNE can maximize each of the following objectives independently – global scale efficiency, multinational flexibility and innovation development.
True
False
Question 33
T F Cost reductions due to scale-economies are static and constant over time and few dynamic benefits are associated with scale economies.
True
False
MCQs for physiology Question 34
T F Companies using multinational strategies are characterized by asset and capability configurations that are dispersed, interdependent and specialized.
True
False
Question 35
T F In addition to capturing cost advantages due to national differences in factor endowments, an MNE can also exploit markets by responding to customer needs and commanding higher prices.
True
False
Question 36
T F Since efficiency, flexibility and learning are conflicting goals, a transnational company should focus on only one of these goals and try to exploit it through the three sources of worldwide competitive advantage – national differences in both input and output markets, scale economies and scope economies.
True
False
Question 37
In order to secure worldwide competitive advantage, a multinational firm should pursue all of the following objectives, except:
a. the development of global-scale efficiencies.
b. the development of multinational flexibility.
c. the ability to develop innovation.
d. maximizing market share in all subsidiaries simultaneously.
e. Such a firm should pursue all of the above objectives
Question 38
Which of the following is not a benefit associated with higher production volumes?
a. exploiting scale economies.
b. enhancing innovation.
c. accumulating learning.
d. taking advantage of the learning curve effect to further reduce production costs.
e. All of the above are such benefits
Question 39
Which of the following describes the strategic orientation of a multinational company?
a. focused on developing global efficiency, flexibility and worldwide learning capability simultaneously.
b. focused on exploiting parent company knowledge and capabilities through worldwide diffusion and adaptation.
c. focused on building cost advantages through centralized, global scale operations.
d. focused on building flexibility to respond to national differences through strong, resourceful and entrepreneurial national operations.
e. none of the above
Question 40
Which of the following describes the strategic orientation of a transnational company?
a. focused on building flexibility to respond to national differences through strong, resourceful and entrepreneurial national operations.
b. focused on developing global efficiency, flexibility and worldwide learning capability simultaneously.
c. focused on building cost advantages through centralized, global scale operations.
d. focused on exploiting parent company knowledge and capabilities through worldwide diffusion and adaptation.
e. all of the above
Question 41
At the annual meeting of the board of directors of LabZaws Co., James Wilson, the CEO of the company, was directed to focus primarily on enhancing the firm’s efficiency. How could he achieve this objective?
a. focus on cost reduction alone.
b. focus on revenue enhancement alone.
c. focus on both cost reduction and revenue enhancement.
d. downsize and outsource many of the firm’s activities.
e. none of the above
Question 42
Lindux Co., intends to enhance its competitive advantage by exploiting the national differences that prevail in the countries that host its subsidiaries. Which of the following is consistent with this intention?
a. moving the manufacture of labor-intensive components to Vietnam in order to capitalize on the lower cost labor found in Vietnam.
b. hiring local managers for its foreign subsidiaries rather than employing expatriates.
c. centralizing the company’s R&D activities in the home country for reasons of strategic security.
d. using a common distribution channel for multiple products.
e. all of the above
MCQs for physiology Question 43
Which of the following best describes an international company’s asset and capability configuration?
a. assets and capabilities are decentralized and nationally self-sufficient.
b. assets and capabilities are centralized and globally scaled.
c. assets and capabilities are dispersed, interdependent and specialized.
d. sources of core competences are centralized, while other assets and capabilities are decentralized.
e. none of the above
Question 44
Which of the following best describes a global company’s asset and capability configuration?
a. assets and capabilities are centralized and globally scaled.
b. core competences are centralized, while other assets and capabilities are decentralized.
c. assets and capabilities are dispersed, interdependent and specialized.
d. assets and capabilities are decentralized and nationally self-sufficient.
e. none of the above
Question 45
Which of the following best describes scope economies?
a. cost advantage resulting from production, development or distribution in more than one country.
b. cost advantage resulting from large volume production, development or distribution.
c. cost advantage resulting from the joint production, development or distribution of more than one product.
d. cost advantage resulting from the production, development or distribution of very high quality products.
e. none of the above
3 points
Question 46
T F In a transnational organization, knowledge is developed at the headquarters and transferred to foreign units.
True
False
Question 47
T F The key strategic capability associated with the coordinated federation organizational model is global-scale efficiency.
True
False
Question 48
T F In a transnational organization, the asset and capability configuration can be described as dispersed, specialized and interdependent.
True
False
Question 49
T F Summit Corp. is transitioning from a multinational strategy to a transnational strategy. It would probably be more effective and less costly if the company commenced its accompanying organizational transition by focusing on changing employees’ attitudes and mentalities, than it would be if it led its efforts by engaging in structural change.
True
False
Question 50
T F In the transnational organization, capable managers situated in the national subsidiaries act as the primary source for sensing and analysing worldwide opportunities and threats.
True
False
Question 51
T F Companies that pursue a multinational strategy are inclined to adopt the decentralized federation organizational model.
True
False
Question 52
T F MNEs that adopted a centralized hub organizational model were able to develop competitive advantage through their ability to transfer knowledge and expertise and adapt it to markets worldwide.
True
False
Question 53
Which of the following strategy-structure pairs cannot be associated?
a. Coordinated federation and multinational strategy.
b. Centralized hub and global strategy.
c. Decentralized federation and multinational strategy.
d. Integrated network and transnational strategy.
e. All of the above such pairs can be associated.
Question 54
Isatis Co. has successfully transitioned from a global strategy to a transnational strategy. Which of the following describes the likely configuration of assets and capabilities that now most likely prevails at Isatis?
a. Decentralized and nationally self-sufficient.
b. Centralized and globally scaled.
c. Dispersed, specialized, and interdependent.
d. Core competencies are centralized; other assets and capabilities are decentralized.
e. None of the above.
Question 55
Which of the following is not a core characteristic of the decentralized federation structure?
a. Most key assets and resources are decentralized.
b. Subsidiaries are highly autonomous.
c. Corporate management regards subsidiaries as largely independent national operations.
d. Reporting and oversight conflicts prevail.
e. All of the above are core characteristics of such a structure
Question 56
Which of the following describes the preferred sequencing of changes associated with implementing the typically more effective emerging change process model?
a. Change in individual attitudes and mentalities; then, change in interpersonal relationships and processes; and finally, change in the formal structure and responsibilities
b. Change in the formal structure and responsibilities; then, change in interpersonal relationships and processes; and finally, change in individual attitudes and mentalities
c. Change in interpersonal relationships and processes; then, change in the formal structure and responsibilities; and finally, change in individual attitudes and mentalities.
d. Change in individual attitudes and mentalities; then, change in the formal structure and responsibilities; and finally, change in interpersonal relationships and processes.
e. None of the above
MCQs for physiology Question 57
Which of the following is not a core characteristic of the coordinated federation structure?
a. Most assets and resources are decentralized but well controlled by the headquarters.
b. Subsidiaries are regarded as key sources of knowledge and expertise.
c. Subsidiary control exercised by the headquarters is usually quite formal and rigorous.
d. Corporate managers tend to regard offshore subsidiaries as extensions of domestic operations.
e. All of the above are core characteristics of such a structure
Question 58
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transnational strategy?
a. Multiple diverse perspectives are developed and legitimized.
b. Physical assets and management capabilities are internationally distributed, yet c. interdependent.
c. Integrative processes are flexible and robust.
d. Knowledge is developed centrally and adapted locally.
e. All of the above are characteristics of such a strategy
Question 59
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the centralized hub structure?
a. Most of the key assets and resources are concentrated in the home country.
b. Tight strategic and operational controls are maintained over the subsidiaries.
c. Most of the manufacturing and product development is executed by the subsidiaries.
d. Corporate management regards its subsidiaries as delivery pipelines to the global market.
e. All of the above are characteristics of such a structure
Question 60
Which of the following statements regarding knowledge diffusion is correct?
a. In a decentralized federation, knowledge is developed in national subsidiaries and diffused throughout the organization
b. In a centralized hub, knowledge is developed and retained at the center.
c. In a coordinated federation, knowledge is developed and retained within each unit.
d. Knowledge diffusion is independent of structure, such that knowledge diffuses in a quite similar manner in all organizational structures.
e. All of the above.
Question 61
Cool-Colas Ltd. is a national beverage manufacturer situated in India. During the past few years, the company has suffered intense competition from major multinationals such as Coca Cola, Nestlé and Pepsi. What can Cool-Colas do to protect its domestic market?
Question 62
What is the key lesson behind the metaphor that develops an organizational change model based on a framework related to anatomy, physiology, and psychology?
Physiology assignment-MCQs
Physiology assignment-MCQs: Question 1 A nurse is working in a women’s hospital where she is caring for a new mother who is experiencing postpartum urinary retention. Bethanechol (Urecholine) has been ordered. The nurse will observe for which of the following?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypertension
C) Hypotension
D) Decreased salivation
Question 2 A woman is receiving magnesium sulfate for intrapartum eclampsia. The patient is perspiring and her blood pressure is 88/50. The serum magnesium level is 10 mg/dL. The nurse will interpret these manifestations as
A) common adverse effects of magnesium sulfate
B) magnesium sulfate toxicity
C) a hypersensitivity reaction to magnesium sulfate
D) an idiosyncratic reaction from the magnesium sulfate
Question 3 A male patient is taking finasteride for BPH.Which of the following will the nurse evaluate at each clinic visit?
A) Serum cholesterol levels
B) Bone growth
C) Hemoglobin levels
D) Urinary elimination patterns
Question 4 A 71-year-old man has just been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). Which of the following complaints by this patient most likely indicated a need for this drug?
A) “My urine is extremely concentrated lately and it smells strong.”
B) “To be honest, I find that I can’t get an erection for the past few months.”
C) “My urine’s been cloudy for the last little while and it burns when I go to the bathroom.”
D) “Lately, I have to get up three or four times a night to go to the bathroom.”
Question 5 After 6 months of unsuccessfully trying to conceive, a 31-year-old woman and her husband have sought a referral to a fertility specialist in order to explore their options. A nurse at the clinic should recognize that the woman may benefit from
A) clomiphene
B) conjugated estrogen
C) progesterone
D) mifepristone
MCQs for physiology Question 6 A 59-year-old man with a recent history of erectile dysfunction has been assessed and prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). When providing patient education to this man, the nurse should tell him which of the following?
A) “You might find that your face becomes flushed or you get a headache after you take Viagra.”
B) “You should take your Viagra at the same time each morning, ideally on an empty stomach.”
C) “Make sure that you don’t take any other prescription medications while you’re using Viagra.”
D) “If you get some heart palpitations or dizziness after you take Viagra, know that this is normal and will pass with time.”
Question 7 A 66-year-old man has made an appointment with his primary care provider to discuss his recent erectile dysfunction (ED) and has requested a prescription for tadalafil (Cialis) based on television commercials he has seen. What characteristic of this patient would most likely contraindicate the use of tadalafil for his ED?
A) The patient takes allopurinol for the treatment of gout
B) The patient has a family history of osteoporosis and has undergone bone density testing
C) The patient has unstable angina and uses a nitroglycerin patch
D) The patient often takes ginseng when he gets a common cold
Question 8 A pregnant patient who has diabetes has been admitted to the hospital to begin labor.Since the patient has diabetes, the physician has decided to use oxytocin (Pitocin) to initiate labor contractions. When talking to the patient about the adverse effects of the drug, the nurse should understand that the most common adverse effects of the drug include
A) metabolic alkalosis
B) uterine tachysystole
C) electrolyte imbalances
D) water intoxication
Question 9 A 73-year-old woman has osteoporosis and is prescribed alendronate. She takes calcium and vitamin D supplements, drinks lots of water, and has just quit smoking. The nurse should advise the patient to also
A) include adequate amounts of vitamin C in the diet
B) drink at least 6 to 8 oz of milk daily
C) stop using artificial sweeteners while taking alendronate
D) perform light-weight exercises and go for walks
Question 10 A 29-year-old pregnant patient is extremely upset about having to take medication for a pre-existing medical condition. She is consumed with fear that her baby will be born with a physical deformity or a congenital anomaly but knows that she has to take the medication. She talks constantly about this and is unable to sleep most nights. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient is?
A) Injury, Risk to the fetus related to adverse effects of maternal drug therapy
B) Injury, Risk to the patient related to failure to receive needed drug therapy
C) Anxiety related to perceived danger of drug therapy to fetus or infant
D) Noncompliance with Drug Therapy
Question 11 The nurse practitioner has recommended that a breast-feeding woman take her prescribed medications just before her infant takes his longest nap of the day. The woman does not understand and asks the nurse to explain. The nurse will tell the woman that the recommendation was made to
A) increase the blood concentrations of the drug in the breast-feeding infant
B) reduce neonatal drug exposure
C) reduce the half-life of the drug
D) evaluate the drug’s potential adverse effects on the neonate
MCQs for physiology Question 12 A nurse is instructing a 19-year-old female patient on the use of fluconazole for candida vaginitis. A teaching priority will be to
A) take an antiemetic or antidiarrheal for adverse GI effects
B) use an alternative form of birth control, if taking an oral contraceptive
C) use an aspirin for relief of minor discomforts
D) take the drug with food
Question 13 A pregnant patient asks the nurse what over-the-counter medication she can take for recurring headaches. The nurse should recommend
A) aspirin
B) advil
C) tylenol
D) motrin
Question 14 A 38-year-old pregnant patient admits to the nurse that she is an alcoholic and has been consuming alcohol during her pregnancy. The nurse knows that using alcohol during pregnancy may result in a child who presents with
A) a high-pitched cry
B) microcephaly.
C) an electrolyte imbalance
D) thrombocytopenia
Question 15 A 68-year-old man is being treated for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and began treatment with finasteride (Proscar) 3 months ago. When planning the care of this patient, what desired outcome should the nurse prioritize?
A) The patient will remain free of sexual side effects related to drug therapy
B) The patient will experience complete bladder emptying
C) The patient will remain free of urethral pain
D) The patient will not experience hematuria
Question 16 A male patient with a medical background tells the nurse that he is not satisfied with the oral synthetic testosterone that has been prescribed for him and he would like to try a natural form of oral testosterone. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) “Natural testosterone undergoes a high first-pass effect and is not used orally.”
B) “Natural testosterone poses a higher risk of gynecomastia.”
C) “Natural testosterone undergoes a short first-past effect and is less extensively metabolized than what has been prescribed for you.”
D) “Natural testosterone would be more effective for you.”
Question 17 A nurse is caring for a patient who is at 28 weeks’ gestation and is receiving terbutaline (Brethine) to control preterm labor. Which of the following assessment parameters should the nurse prioritize?
A) Maternal body temperature
B) Fetal heart rate (FHR)
C) Correct fetal position
D) Fetal blood pressure
MCQs for physiology Question 18 A nurse is working with a patient in the clinic who has erectile dysfunction. The patient has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). The patient wants to do everything he can to promote effectiveness of the drug. The nurse will instruct him to
A) avoid taking the drug with a high-protein meal
B) avoid taking the drug with a high-fat meal
C) drink plenty of fluids
D) take a double dose of the drug
Question 19 A patient is being discharged from the hospital and will be taking oxybutynin (Ditropan) for overactive bladder. The nurse will instruct the patient that she will be taking a medication
A) that will be provided in pill form and which may cause lightheadedness
B) that will be administered as a weekly IM injection in an outpatient setting
C) that may be prescribed as a patch and which may cause dry mouth
D) that can be inhaled and that may cause occasional heart palpitations
Question 20 A nurse is discussing with a 58-year-old male patient the causes of erectile dysfunction in men over 50 years of age. Which of the following will the nurse inform the patient is the primary physical cause of erectile dysfunction of men in this age group?
A) Emotional stress
B) Atherosclerosis of the penile artery
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Decrease in testosterone levels
Question 21 A nurse is working with a 16-year-old pregnant teen and assessing for behavior that may put the baby at risk. The most important assessment the nurse can make is
A) whether the pregnant woman uses illegal substances
B) whether the pregnant woman has health insurance
C) the pregnant woman’s exercise habits
D) the pregnant woman’s dietary habits
Question 22 A man has a demonstrated history of androgen deficiency and the consequences of this health problem include an inability to maintain an erection. Which of the following medications would best address this patient’s erectile dysfunction (ED)?
A) Sildenafil (Viagra)
B) Tamsulosin (Flomax)
C) Exogenous testosterone
D) Tadalafil (Cialis)
Question 23 Which of the following would the nurse include in a teaching plan about the signs and symptoms of thrombophlebitis and thromboembolism that should be reported by a patient taking estrogen?
A) Cholestatic jaundice
B) Amenorrhea
C) Headaches and chest pain
D) Breast tenderness
Question 24 A 36-year-old patient comes to the clinic and tells the nurse that she suspects that she is pregnant. During the initial assessment, the nurse learns that the patient is currently taking medications for diabetes, hypertension, and a seizure disorder. The nurse would be most concerned about which of the following medications?
A) Insulin
B) Ibuprofen (Advil)
C) Phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) Furosemide (Lasix)
Question 25 A woman is receiving prolonged drug therapy during her complicated pregnancy, and it may pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. The primary care physician has made dosage adjustments to minimize adverse effects and prevent toxicity. The nurse should make sure
A) that serum levels of the drug are being monitored
B) that the FDA is informed that the woman is receiving drug therapy
C) to check the drug’s FDA pregnancy category to determine safety
D) that only nonpharmacologic alternatives are being used
Question 26 A 56-year-old woman will soon begin treatment of her overactive bladder with tolterodine (Detrol). What patient teaching should the nurse provide to this woman?
A) “It’s good to measure your heart rate before you take your Detrol each day, and withhold it if your heart rate is below 60 beats/minute.”
B) “You’ll probably need to stop taking your hormone replacement therapy when you’re taking Detrol.”
C) “You’ll likely find that you have scant amounts of blood in your urine for the first few days, but this is not unusual or problematic.”
D) “You might find that you get a dry mouth or a headache from this drug, but this does not mean it has to be discontinued.”
Question 27 The nurse has established peripheral IV access and begun an infusion of magnesium sulfate on a 29-year-old antepartum patient who is 35 weeks pregnant. Which of the following assessment findings most likely prompted the patient’s physician to order magnesium sulfate for this patient?
A) Decreased level of consciousness with a sudden onset
B) The presence of rales and rhonchi and oxygen saturation less than or equal to 80% on room air
C) Maternal bradycardia accompanied by a prolonged QT interval
D) Systolic blood pressure readings in excess of 190 mmHg
Question 28 The nurse recognizes that the potential for teratogenic drug effects is not static throughout the prenatal and postnatal periods. The potential for teratogenic effects is highest during
A) breast-feeding of the neonate
B) the first 2 months of pregnancy.
C) the two to 3 weeks prior to delivery
D) the second trimester
MCQs for physiology Question 29 Alendronate (Fosamax) is prescribed for a 67-year-old postmenopausal woman. In order to help prevent gastrointestinal distress, the nurse will advise the patient to
A) stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate..
B) avoid drinking water with the drug
C) lift weights in the gym at least five times a week
D) take calcium and vitamin D supplements
Question 30 A female patient is taking oral cyclophosphamide therapy for breast cancer. Because of possible adverse effects of the drug, the nurse will instruct the patient to do which of the following?
A) Drink a lot of water
B) Limit fluid intake
C) Take the medication at bedtime
D) Increase the protein in her diet
Question 31 A patient is taking flavoxate hydrochloride (Urispas) to help control an overactive bladder. On a follow-up visit to the clinic, the nurse will question the patient about which of the following?
A) Chronic diarrhea
B) Dental hygiene practices
C) Headaches
D) Diet
Question 32 Alprostadil (Caverject), a drug used to treat erectile dysfunction, has been prescribed to a 42-year-old patient. When providing education to the patient and his wife, the nurse should inform the wife about which of the following adverse effects?
A) Low blood pressure
B) Vaginal burning
C) Increased heart rate
D) Reduced desire for sexual activity
Question 33 A male patient is trying to decide if he should use finasteride (Proscar) to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). When providing information about the drug, the nurse will include which of the following as a risk associated with finasteride therapy?
A) Excess fluid volume related to potential effects of drug therapy
B) Hypercalcemia related to drug therapy, immobility, and breast cancer
C) Sexual dysfunction related to erectile dysfunction
D) Prostatic neoplasia
Question 34 A 20-year-old woman has been prescribed estrogen. As with all women taking estrogen, the nurse will carefully monitor the patient for which of the following?
A) Lack of secondary sexual characteristics
B) Cardiovascular complications
C) Early epiphyseal closure
D) Decreased libido
Question 35 A nurse is providing patient education to a 50-year-old woman who is taking methotrexate (MTX) for breast cancer. The nurse will instruct the patient to avoid which of the following drugs?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Salicylates
C) Furosemide
D) Digoxin
Question 36 A patient is taking etoposide for a testicular tumor refractory to treatment. The nursing assessment reveals that he is also taking warfarin. The nurse must carefully monitor for which of the following?
A) Decreased heart rate
B) Increased serum drug levels of etoposide
C) Elevated prothrombin time
D) Lower liver enzymes
Question 37 A nurse is caring for a 46-year-old female patient who is taking paclitaxel for ovarian cancer. Two or three days after the infusion of the drug, the nurse must closely monitor for which of the following?
A) Cardiotoxicity
B) Constipation
C) Neurotoxicity
D) Asthma
Question 38 A nurse is performing patient education for a woman who has just been prescribed a bisphosphonate. Which of the following diagnostic and history findings would have prompted the woman’s care provider to prescribe a bisphosphonate?
A) Height in the lowest quartile of the population and a history of joint pain
B) Low bone density and a family history of osteoporosis
C) Complaints of cold intolerance, recurrent constipation, and evidence of diverticular disease
D) Labile moods and short-term memory deficits
Question 39 A nurse is explaining to a pregnant 21-year-old college student why she cannot continue to take ibuprofen (Advil) for her headaches. The nurse draws a picture depicting drug molecules crossing the placental membrane and entering into the fetal circulation. The nurse tells the patient that the main reason this happens is because
A) there is a 40% increase in blood volume during pregnancy
B) the mother’s heart rate is 10 to 15 beats per minute faster during pregnancy
C) drugs compete with the hormones of pregnancy for albumin-binding sites
D) hemodilution of plasma albumin occurs
Question 40 A 36-year-old woman with a history of dysmenorrhea has begun treatment with progesterone, which she will be receiving by the intramuscular route. The nurse participating in the woman’s care should prioritize which of the following potential nursing diagnoses?
A) Incontinence, Functional, related to neurosensory and musculoskeletal changes
B) Fluid Volume Deficit related to metabolic changes secondary to drug therapy
C) Confusion, Chronic, related to CNS changes resulting from adverse drug effects
D) Risk for Injury related to loss of vision or thrombotic events MCQs for physiology