Category: Nursing

  • NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO

    Question 1:
     The lymphatic ducts drain into the:

    Question 2:
     While auscultating the patient’s heart, a medium, soft murmur is audible. It is pansystolic and heard loudest at the apex with radiation to the left axilla. These findings are consistent with:

    3:
     Which of the following group of symptoms would be suggestive of an infant experiencing a congenital heart defect associated with a decreased pulmonary blood flow pattern?

    4:
     Right atrial pressure can be determined by:

    5:
     When assessing the heart rate of a healthy 13-month-old child, which one of the following sites is the most appropriate for this child?

    6:
     The infraorbital or maxillary, buccinator, and supramandibular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:

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    7:
     The external iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the following areas except the:

    8:
     The amplitude of the pulse in a patient in cardiogenic shock would most likely appear:

    9:
     When auscultating the heart for aortic insufficiency, ask the patient to:

    10:
     The horizontal superficial inguinal lymph nodes are located in the anterior thigh below the inguinal ligament and drain lymphatic fluid from all of these areas except:

    11:
    When auscultating the point of maximal impulse (PMI), apex of the heart, in an adult, the stethoscope is placed at the: NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO.

    12:
     Deep cervical lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:

    13:
     Which of the following symptoms would necessitate the need for further evaluation in the newborn?

    14:
     Symptoms of acrocyanosis in the newborn include:

    15:
     A heart rate of 100-180 beats per minute in an adult is …..

    16:
     Tissue ischemia is usually …..when assessing a patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD). What other symptom could be …….?

    17:
     When performing a cardiovascular assessment on a healthy 2-year-old child:

    18:
     A disparity between the brachial and femoral pulses in a 4-month-old could indicate:

    19:
     The right lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the:

    20
    : When auscultating the apex of the heart in an 8-year-old, the bell of the stethoscope should be placed at the:

    21:
    In order to assess for varicosities in the lower extremities, position the patient: NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO.

    22:
     A patient complains of a tight, bursting pain in the calf that increases with walking. Elevation of the leg sometimes relieves the pain. These symptoms may be consistent with:

    23:
     Symptoms of orthostatic hypotension include all of the following except:

    24:
     A three-week-old infant presents with a generalized lacy, reticulated blue discoloration of the skin. This is suggestive of:

    25:
     The supraclavicular lymph nodes are located:

    26:
     In an adult patient, auscultate the sounds arising from the mitral valve by placing the stethoscope:The tonsillar lymph node is located:

    27:
     A bruit heard in the epigastric area with both systolic and diastolic components is suggestive of:

    28:
     Presence of a heart murmur in a child would be considered organic if the child:

    29:
     A patient complaints of a sharp, knifelike pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the tip of the shoulder and to the neck. This type of chest pain is suggestive of:

    30:
     In order to bring the ventricular apex closer to the chest wall when assessing the point of maximal impulse (PMI), ask the patient to:

    31:
     The preauricular lymph node is located:

    32:
     To auscultate the heart sounds arising from the pulmonic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:

    33:
     To assess aortic pulsations in patients with carotid obstruction, assess the pulse using the:

    34:
     When screening a patient for peripheral arterial disease (PAD), one risk factor would include a history of:

    35:
     The preauricular nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:

    36:
     The ankle-brachial index is a screening test used to assess a person’s risk for:

    37:
     The internal iliac lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:

    38:
     Causes of orthostatic hypotension in older adults may include all of the following except:

    39:
     A 5-year-old child presents with complaints of fever and headache. Examination reveals a heart rate of 157 beats/minute, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute, B/P 108/54, and a temperature of 102.6 °F. The increased heart rate is most likely related to:NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO.

    40:
     The posterior chest wall and portions of the arms are ……by which group of lymph nodes?

    41:
     A patient states that the only way he can sleep at night is to use several pillows or to sleep upright in a recliner. This sleep pattern is most consistent with:

    42:
     A disease that may present as indigestion, but is precipitated by exertion and ….by rest is most likely:

    Question 43:
     A patient …..of having chronic venous insufficiency, may present with:

    Question 44:
     The great saphenous vein enters the deep venous system by way of the:

    45:
     Warning signs of peripheral artery disease may include all of the following except:

    46:
     On assessment, which one of the following symptoms would be noted as a compensatory response to chronic hypoxia?

    47:
     A patient complains of some pain in the distal portions of her fingers on both hands. She states that it tends to occur more frequently with exposure to cold. These symptoms may be consistent with:

    48:
      The patient has had an internal pacemaker in place for five years. Pacemaker failure is being considered because over the past few days, the patient has been experiencing episodes of:

    49:
    The thoracic lymph duct drains lymphatic fluid from all the following areas except the: NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO.

    50:
     When auscultating the heart, the displacement of the point of maximal impulse (PMI) is greater than 10 cm lateral to the midsternal line. This finding is consistent with:

    51:
     A sudden, tearing, sharp pain that begins in the chest and radiates to the back or into the neck is usually ……:

    52:
     By placing the ball of the examiner’s hand firmly on the chest, the examiner would be checking for:

    53:
     Which lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from the stomach, duodenum, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas?

    54:
     When auscultating the heart of a 55-year-old patient, a loud murmur with a thrill is audible in the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotid arteries. Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch audible at the apex. The murmur is heard best with the patient sitting and leaning forward. This finding is consistent with:

    55:
     When auscultating heart sounds arising from the aortic valve in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:

    56:
     A patient describes chest pain as persistent, sharp, and knife-like. These symptoms are more characteristic of:

    57:
     A third heart sound (S3) is audible in a forty-five-year old. This S3 sound may be:

    58:
     Enlarged or tender lymph nodes are most often ……:

    59:
     A widened pulse pressure greater than or equal to 60 in an older patient is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, stroke, and:

    60:
     Characteristic symptoms of chronic venous insufficiency may include which one of the following?

    61:
     Widened pulse pressure (PP) is defined as systolic blood pressure (SBP):

    62:
    Characteristic symptoms of chronic arterial insufficiency may include which one of the following? NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO.

    63:
     Pain or cramping of the legs that occurs during exertion and is ……by rest is ……:

    64:
     In older adults, the presence of heart sound S3 suggests:

    65:
     To auscultate the tricuspid valve heart sounds in an adult patient, place the stethoscope:

    66:
     When auscultating the heart of a 50-year-old patient, a soft murmur is audible in the left second and third intercostal spaces and radiates to the left shoulder and neck. Also noted is a crescendo-decrescendo pitch to the murmur. This finding could be consistent with:

    67:
     The hemodynamic changes resulting from structural defects in children can lead to heart failure. The most common reason for these changes is related to:

    68:
     The posterior auricular lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the:

    69:
     While examining the heart, a pansystolic, blowing murmur is audible over the left sternal border with radiation to the right of the sternum. The intensity increased with inspiration. This finding is characteristic of:

    70:
     The axillary lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from all of the following areas except the:

    71:
    A patient complains of pain in the arch of the foot sometimes relieved by rest. Occasionally, he experiences intermittent pain in the toes, especially at rest. Exercise aggravates the pain in the arch. History reveals he smokes approximately a half pack of cigarettes per day. These symptoms may be consistent with nr 509 apea exam

    72:
     The occipital lymph node is located:

    73:
     A patient presents with chest pain that radiates to the left side of the neck and down the left arm when he chops wood. This type of pain could be suggestive of:

    74:
    A twelve-month-old has a history of heart failure related to his congenital heart defect. He is receiving aldactone (Spironolactone), enalapril (Vasotec), furosemide (Lasix), and acetaminophen (Tylenol). The infant’s potassium level is 3.1 meq/l. Which medication is most likely decreasing his potassium level? NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO

    75:
     The anterior cervical lymph node chain is located anterior and nr 509 apea exam

    76:
     The tonsillar, submandibular, and submental nodes drain the lymphatic fluid from portions of the:

    77:
     A condition that usually presents with numbness or tingling in the distal portions of one or more fingers aggravated by cold or emotional stress may be …….

    78:
     The sacral lymph nodes receive lymphatic fluid from all the following except the:

    79:
     Children presenting with congenital heart defects that result in right to left shunting would most likely exhibit which of the following symptoms?

    80:
     An otherwise healthy two-year-old presents with a heart rate that varies with inspiration and expiration. Which statement is true?

    81:
     Heart sounds produced by turbulence due to a temporary increase in blood flow in predisposing conditions, such as hyperthyroidism, is ……:

    82:
     The four classic structural defects of Tetralogy of Fallot include nr 509 apea exam

    83:
     A child presents with fever of 102.5 °F for the past five days. Kawasaki disease is ……if which of the following groups of symptoms is present?

    84:
     A finding suggestive of an inflamed lymph node would be one that is:

    85:
     The posterior auricular lymph node is located:

    86:
     Enlargement of which lymph nodes would be suggestive of metastasis from a thoracic or abdominal malignancy?

    87:
     The superior and inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the: nr 509 apea exam

    88:
    A male patient states that he has difficulty breathing when he is lying down but when he sits up, it improves. This is a classic description of: NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO

    89:
     Assessment findings in a newborn at birth include: irregular respirations without crying, heart rate of 105 beats/minute, grimaces with reflex stimulation, kicking of both feet, and moving of both arms. The body and face are pink and hands and feet are cyanotic. What is the APGAR score?

    90:
     A patient complains of increased pain in the calf muscles and buttocks especially after walking or riding his bicycle. He states that the pain stops after he sits still for about 2-3 minutes. This condition may be ……

    91:
     A condition that presents with symptomatic limb ischemia upon exertion is termed:

    92:
     Absent or diminished pulses in the wrist could be indicative of: nr 509 apea exam

    93:
     In older adults, the presence of heart sound S4 suggests:

    94:
     A patient describes chest pain as pressing, squeezing, and tight lasting between 1 and 3 minutes. These symptoms are more characteristic of:

    95:
     When auscultating the heart, a scratchy, continuous murmur is audible during atrial systole and ventricular systole and diastole. This finding may be indicative of a:

    96:
     The anterior mediastinal lymph nodes drain lymphatic fluid from the nr 509 apea exam

    97:
     To assess the murmur of aortic insufficiency, position the patient:

    98:
     A pediatric patient presents with erythema marginatum, chorea, and a heart murmur. These symptoms are consistent with:

    99:
     When auscultating the heart; S1 sound, is located at the apex of the heart and signifies:

    100:
     A patient with cirrhosis develops portal hypertension as indicated by the presence of: nr 509 apea exam

    101:
     Pain with walking or prolonged standing, radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, thighs, lower legs, or feet, may be seen with:

    102:
     Why would a newborn with patent ductus arteriosus receive a prostaglandin inhibitor (indomethacin)?

    103:
    When assessing a 3-year-old African American child, the most likely cause of black, dusky mucous membranes is related to: NR 509 APEA EXAM – CARDIO

  • Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness

    Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness

    Author:
     George Nixon, MD; Associate Editor: John B. Waits, MD, FAAFP; Case Editor: Lacy Smith, MD

    INTRODUCTION

    HISTORY

    You review the patient schedule with Dr. Wilson.

    It is late autumn and you are working at Dr. Wilson’s office.

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    Dr. Wilson looks over his patient schedule and asks you to see Mr. Glenn Wright, a 70-year-old man who has been a patient in Dr. Wilson’s practice for six years. Today, he is listed as a “walk-in” visit.

    You knock, and then enter to begin this patient encounter. It is 3:15 p.m.

    HISTORY OF PRESENT ILLNESS

    HISTORY

    You interview Mr. Wright.

    You introduce yourself and begin the interview while also reviewing the EMR which displays the following chief concern: “Fell down and couldn’t get up.” Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    “I understand that you are here for evaluation after falling yesterday. Can you tell me what happened?”

    “Did you lose consciousness or blackout?”

    “What happened next?”

    MEDICAL, FAMILY AND SOCIAL HISTORY

    HISTORY

    You ask,

    “At what time or how long has it been since this happened, Mr. Wright?”

    You are concerned Mr Wright may need urgent evaluation so you proceed rapidly with focused questions.

    You learn the following: Mr. Wright has some right knee soreness, but denies weakness, headache, current vision or speech problems, chest discomfort, palpitations, shortness of breath, nausea, abdominal pain, and incontinence of urine or stool.

    You scan his chart in the EMR.

    Summary of most recent progress note:

    Date:
     Four months prior.

    Chief Concern:
     Follow-up hypertension & hyperlipidemia

    Subjective:
    Persistent stiffness in knees, but pain relieved with acetaminophen. Urine flow improved. Denies exertional chest discomfort, decreased stamina, headaches, dizziness and weakness. Occasionally omits diuretic and statin. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    ROS
    : Occasional dizziness and decreased energy for 2 to 3 months. Decreased night vision. Occasional heartburn, stiff back and knees. Denies fever, syncope, headache, weight loss, abdominal discomfort or change in bowel habits or stool.

    Past Medical History
    : Essential hypertension, osteoarthritis, peptic ulcer disease, benign prostatic hyperplasia, hyperlipidemia, cataracts, shingles. No surgery.

    Family History
    : Type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, glaucoma.

    Social History
    : Widowed for four years, retired railroad worker. Children: two daughters out-of-state and a son who lives nearby. Smoking – 1/2 pack per day resumed four years ago after ten-year abstinence. Alcohol – single shot whiskey most nights. Hobbies – quail hunting and fishing.

    Medications
    : Hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, doxazosin 2 mg every evening, simvastatin 20 mg every evening, over the counter ranitidine, acetaminophen.

    Allergies
    : No known allergies.

    Immunizations
    : H zoster, pneumococcal, Tdap, and influenza vaccines current.

    Objective:
    Blood pressure 166/80 mmHg. No carotid bruits. Lungs: Clear. Heart: Regular rhythm. Rate 70’s beats/minute, point of maximal impulse (PMI) laterally displaced. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Labs
    : Fasting lipid profile: total cholesterol 190 mg/dl, HDL 31 mg/dl, LDL 129 mg/dl, triglycerides 150 mg/dl.

    Assessment
    : Hypertension – poorly controlled, hyperlipidemia – poorly controlled, osteoarthritis of the knees, benign prostate hyperplasia. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Plan:
     Follow-up 6 to 8 weeks.

    Discussed importance of medication compliance, smoking cessation, and lifestyle changes on personal health risks for stroke, heart, and kidney disease. Given 
    DASH Diet brochure
     and prescription coupons.

    You confirm this past medical history, family history, and social history with Mr. Wright.

    Question

    Given Mr. Wright’s history of dizziness, visual symptoms, left arm numbness, and imbalance,

    TIA (transient ischemic attack)

    is on your differential along with several cardiovascular disorders. What risk factors does Mr. Wright have for cerebrovascular and cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)?

    The suggested answer is shown below.

     

    Letter Count: 965/1000

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    Age over 45 years

    Smoking history

    Hypertension

    Hyperlipidemia

    TEACHING POINT

    Risk Factors for Cerebrovascular Disease

    The risk factors for cerebrovascular disease are very similar to those for coronary artery disease.

    For more REQUIRED information on ASCVD risk factors and for lifestyle modifications for ASCVD prevention, see the 
    Aquifer Cholesterol Guidelines module
    .

    Due to this risk, the United States Preventive Services Task Force recommends:

    ALL adults >18 yrs be screened for hypertension

    Adults > 20 yrs should be screened for hyperlipidemia if at increased risk for CAD (i.e., diabetic, hypertensive, premature personal history of atherosclerosis or family history of CAD in males < 50 yrs or females < 60 yrs) All adults be asked about tobacco use, and all smokers be given tobacco cessation interventions. Clinicians should discuss aspirin chemoprevention with all men over 50 for primary prevention of myocardial infarction. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness. References Bibbins-Domingo K, et al.  Aspirin Use for the Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease and Colorectal Cancer: U.S. Preventive Services Task Force Recommendation Statement .  Ann Intern Med.  2016;164(12):836-845. Easton JD, Saver JL, Albers GW, et al. Definition and evaluation of transient ischemic attack: a scientific statement for healthcare professionals from the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association Stroke Council; Council on Cardiovascular Surgery and Anesthesia; Council on Cardiovascular Radiology and Intervention; Council on Cardiovascular Nursing; and the Interdisciplinary Council on Peripheral Vascular Disease. The American Academy of Neurology affirms the value of this statement as an educational tool for neurologists. Stroke 2009;40(6):2276-2293. ORTHOSTATIC VITALS PHYSICAL EXAM You perform the TUG test on Mr. Wright. While washing your hands, you tell Mr. Wright that you will be performing a physical and neurologic exam. You begin the exam testing for orthostatic changes. Orthostatic Vital Signs Position – Supine: Heart rate:  110 beats/minutes Blood pressure:  166/82 mmHg Position – Standing: Heart rate:  120 beats/minute Blood pressure:  162/80 mmHg TEACHING POINT Orthostasis A reduction of systolic or diastolic blood pressure of at least 20 or 10 mmHg respectively, measured three minutes after a patient who has accommodated to the supine position assumes a standing or sitting position. Some experts also consider the test to be positive when the pulse rate remains increased by 20 beats per minute or more (16 beats per minute in the elderly). Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness References Consensus statement on the definition of orthostatic hypotension, pure autonomic failure, and multiple system atrophy. Orthostatic changes.  J Neurol Sci.  1996;144:218-219. TIMED UP AND GO TEST PHYSICAL EXAM You perform the TUG test on Mr. Wright. You then proceed to assess Mr. Wright’s general balance, mobility, and risk for fall by having him perform the (TUG test) “Timed Up and Go” test. You know that it is important to screen rapidly patients who present with neurologic symptoms. Clinical findings can change quickly, and the establishment of a baseline provides a comparative benchmark. TEACHING POINT Timed Up and Go Test Measures mobility and fall risk in people who are able to walk on their own. The person may wear their usual footwear and can use any assistive device they normally use. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness. Instructions to the patient: Sit in the chair with your back to the chair and your arms resting in your lap. Without using your arms, stand up from the chair and walk 10 ft. (3m). Turn around, walk back to the chair, and sit down again. Timing begins when the person starts to rise from the chair, and ends when he or she returns to the chair and sits down. The person should be given one practice trial and then three actual trials. The times from the three actual trials are averaged. Prediction of Mobility Average Number of Seconds for TUG Mobility Prediction <10 Freely mobile < 20 Mostly independent 20-29 Variable mobility > 30

    Impaired mobility

    Note:
     This test is more discriminative in patients who are more debilitated.

    TEACHING POINT

    Initial Physical Exam of Neurologic Symptoms

    Exam of cranial nerve VII

    Facial asymmetry is not specific for stroke as it can also be caused by Bell’s Palsy or Horner’s syndrome. Weakness or asymmetry of the muscles of facial expression (CN VII) is a common presenting sign of stroke.

    Auscultation of carotids

    Listen for carotid bruits as emboli from carotid arteries are associated with TIA and stroke and these emboli may result in transient monocular blindness or visual field defects.

    Romberg

    Ischemic blood flow in the vertebrobasilar system is associated with ataxic gait and instability of balance that may be revealed with Romberg testing.

    Cardiopulmonary

    The presence of murmurs or irregular rhythms on thecardiovascular exam may signal valvular disease and intra-cardiac mural thrombi as sources for cardiac emboli.

    Gross visual fields

    Emboli from carotid bruits are associated with TIA and stroke and these emboli may result in transient monocular blindness or visual field defects.

    Proprioception

    Proprioceptive and spatial deficits are present in patients who have suffered brain ischemia affecting the sensory areas.

    Mental status exam & assessment of motor strength

    Documentation of mental status to include the level of alertness, orientation, comprehension (both receptive and expressive) and memory are essential, as are tests of gross motor strength and coordination.

    12 lead electrocardiogram

    An electrocardiogram can detect abnormalities of QT interval, conduction abnormalities, and ST changes suggestive of paroxysmal arrhythmia or myocardial ischemia producing transient central nervous system hypoperfusion.

    References

    Podsiadlo D, Richardson S. The timed ‘Up and Go’ Test: a test of basic functional mobility for frail elderly persons. 
    J of Am Geriatr Soc
     1991;39:142-148

    Discriminative ability and predictive validity of the timed up and go test in identifying older people who fall: systematic review and meta-analysis. J Am Geriatr Soc. 2013 Feb;61(2):202-8. doi: 10.1111/jgs.12106. Epub 2013 Jan 25.

    COMPLETING THE PHYSICAL EXAM

    PHYSICAL EXAM

    You check Mr. Wright’s carotids.

    You perform a complete examination and record the following in the EMR:

    Vital signs:

    Temperature:
     37 Celcius

    Heart rate:
     100 beats/minute

    Respiratory rate:
     16 breaths/minute

    Blood pressure:
     No orthostatic changes

    Weight:
     80 kgs

    Height:
     5′ 10″

    Pain:
     0

    Physical exam:

    General:
     70-year-old well-nourished man in no distress, alert, cooperative, fully oriented

    TUG test:
     Normal

    Head/Neck:
     Atraumatic, symmetric facies, no carotid bruit or neck vein distension.

    Eyes:
     Normal visual acuity, pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation (PERRLA), extraocular movements intact (EOMI), no nystagmus, normal visual fields, sub-optimal fundoscopic exam secondary to cataracts, but no evidence of papilledema.

    Ear/Nose/Throat:
     Unremarkable.

    Chest:
     Normal respirations and lung fields.

    Cardiovascular:
     Rate 118, irregularly irregular rhythm (not previously noted), no murmur, point of maximal impulse (PMI) 5th intercostal space laterally displaced 3cm.

    Abdomen:
     Unremarkable.

    Genitourinary:
     Deferred.

    Musculoskeletal:
     Strength 5/5 and equal in right upper and bilateral lower extremities, strength 4/5 in left upper extremity, osteoarthritic knee changes.

    Neurological:
     No dysphonia or dysphagia, gag intact. No sensory or proprioceptive deficit. No Babinski, normal Romberg. FAST test: Symmetric smile. No pronator drift. Able to repeat, ‘No ifs ands or buts’ without slurring or difficulty.

    TEACHING POINT

    Pronator Drift

    The pronator drift is one of the most sensitive tests for upper extremity weakness.

    The patient is asked to flex their arms 90 degrees at the shoulders, supinate their forearms, close their eyes, and hold the position. If a forearm pronates, then the patient is said to have pronator drift on that side.

    Pronator drift

    TEACHING POINT

    The National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS)

    A standardized comprehensive tool with proven utility for efficiently ensuring systematic documentation of key components of the neurologic exam in a patient with suspected stroke. Its application enables performance of a standardized exam for TIA and stroke patients which then can be subsequently used by examiners to more precisely evaluate neurologic improvement and deterioration.

    Use this scale
     to score components of the preceding examination which have been performed and to familiarize yourself with the components which ideally should have been included.

    You may also 
    view a video
     on the performance of the NIHSS exam.

    TEACHING POINT

    Face Arm Speech (FAST) Test

    Face Arm Speech (FAST) test used by ambulance paramedics and physicians for the rapid clinical assessment of patients with suspected transient ischemic or stroke symptoms.

    Developed in 1998 as a stroke identification instrument, to be used outside the hospital. Studies have demonstrated variable diagnostic accuracy of stroke by paramedics and emergency medical technicians with positive predictive values between 64% and 77%.

    Instructions

    References

    Nor AM, McAllister C, Louw SJ, et al. Agreement between ambulance paramedic – and physician-recorded neurological signs with Face Arm Speech Test (FAST) in acute stroke patients. 
    Stroke.
    2004;35:1355-1359. 
    http://stroke.ahajournals.org/cgi/reprint/35/6/1355

    Josephson SA, Hills NK, Johnston SC. NIH Stroke Scale reliability in ratings from a large sample of clinicians. 
    Cerebrovasc Dis.
     2006;22:389-395.

    Lyden P, Raman R, Liu L, Emr M, Warren M, Marler J. NationalInstitutes of Health Stroke Scale certification is reliable across multiple venues. 
    Stroke.
     2009;40:2507-2511

    University of Nebraska Medical Center. Pronator Drift (Video). Movies from the NeuroLogic Exam and PediNeuroLogic Examwebsites are used by permission of Paul D. Larsen, M.D., University of Nebraska Medical Center and Suzanne S. Stensaas, Ph.D., University of Utah School of Medicine. Additional materials were drawn from resources provided by Alejandro Stern, Stern Foundation, Buenos Aires, Argentina; Kathleen Digre, M.D., University of Utah; and Daniel Jacobson, M.D., Marshfield Clinic, Wisconsin. The movies are licensed under a Creative Commons Attribution-NonCommerical-ShareAlike 2.5 License.

    SUMMARY STATEMENT

    CLINICAL REASONING

    At 3:25 p.m., Dr. Wilson knocks, enters the exam room and greets Mr. Wright just as you are concluding your exam. Aware that Mr. Wright is here for an acute care visit, Dr. Wilson has come to assess whether Mr. Wright’s visit might require his immediate attention.

    Question

    Based on what you know about the patient so far, write a one- to three- sentence summary statement to communicate your understanding of the patient to other providers.

    Guidelines for summary statements.

    Your response is recorded in your student case report.

     

    Letter Count: 513/1000

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    Mr. Wright is a 70-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia who presents after an episode of lightheadedness that resulted in a fall. There was associated left hand numbness and visual disturbance but no loss of consciousness and all symptoms resolved after 15 minutes. Physical exam is remarkable for elevated blood pressure, irregularly irregular heart rhythm, and tachycardia.

    The ideal summary statement concisely highlights the most pertinent features without omitting any significant points. The summary statement above includes:

    Epidemiology and risk factors: 70-year-old man with poorly controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia.

    Key clinical findings about the present illness using qualifying adjectives and transformative language:

    associated left hand numbness

    associated visual disturbance

    symptoms resolved after 15 minutes

    elevated blood pressure on exam

    irregularly irregular heart rhythm

    tachycardia

    DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

    CLINICAL REASONING

    ELECTROCARDIOGRAM

    TESTING

    Mr. Wright’s electrocardiograph

    Question

    After you have finished discussing your current differential diagnosis with Dr. Wilson, the nurse returns to the hallway and gives you Mr. Wright’s electrocardiograph. Dr. Wilson asks you, “What is your interpretation of this?” Your interpretation statement should include descriptions of rate, rhythm, axis (normal or abnormal), hypertrophy, and ST segment.

    The suggested answer is shown below.

     

    Letter Count: 0/1000

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    Irregularly irregular rate of 168 beats/minute. Rhythm of supraventricular origin with normal but leftward axis, left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH), Inferior and lateral ST depression. Dx: Atrial fibrillation with LVH, inferior & lateral ST depression.

    TEACHING POINT

    Atrial Fibrillation – Definition, Epidemiology, & Characterization

    Definition

    Atrial fibrillation is rapid, irregular, and chaotic atrial activity without definable p waves on electrocardiogram. Its presence should be suspected in individuals presenting with dizziness, syncope, dyspnea, or palpitations. While palpation of an irregular pulse or auscultation of an irregular heart rate may raise suspicion of atrial fibrillation, the diagnosis requires confirmation with electrocardiogram.

    Epidemiology

    Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common arrhythmia physicians face in clinical practice, accounting for about one-third of hospitalizations for arrhythmia. The prevalence of AF increases with age and the severity of congestive heart failure or valvular heart disease. Furthermore, in most cases, AF is associated with the cardiovascular diseases of hypertension, coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy, and mitral valve disease. Pulmonary disorders of COPD, obstructive sleep apnea, and pulmonary embolism are associated and predisposing factors. Other associated conditions include surgery, excess alcohol intake, hyperthyroidism, and febrile illnesses.

    Distinguishing persistent vs. paroxysmal

    Atrial fibrillation less than 72 hours total duration would be classified as new onset. Chronic atrial fibrillation may be either persistent or paroxysmal. In the paroxysmal form, atrial fibrillation may recur and then revert back to normal rhythm spontaneously, with variable periods of normal sinus rhythm between episodes. The presence of normal rhythm does not rule out the existence of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia can occur episodically without clinical detection or significant symptoms for several months.

    In this case example, atrial fibrillation may have contributed to the fall, and spontaneously reverted to sinus rhythm before the ambulance arrived, later recurring prior to your examination of the patient.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    January CT, Wann LS, Alpert JS, Calkins H, Cigarroa JE, Cleveland JC Jr, et. al. 2014 AHA/ACC/HRS guideline for the management of patients with atrial fibrillation: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines and the Heart Rhythm Society. 
    J Am Coll Cardiol
    .
     2014;64:e1–76.

    Page RL. Newly diagnosed atrial fibrillation. 
    N Engl J Med.
     2004;351:2408-2416.

    Rathore S, Berger A, Weinfurt K, et al. Acute myocardial infarction complicated by atrial fibrillation in the elderly: Prevalence and outcomes. 
    Circulation
    . 2000;101;969-974.

    MECHANISMS OF TIAS OR POSSIBLE STROKE

    TEACHING

    “So, let’s see if we can fit our findings together into something that makes sense. Mr. Wright presented with numbness, vision changes, transient weakness, and incoordination that occurred yesterday but has since resolved. What are the four cardiovascular or cerebrovascular mechanisms of TIA or stroke that we have to consider in the evaluation of these symptoms?” prompts Dr. Wilson.

    Question

    List the four cardiovascular or cerebrovascular mechanisms of TIAs or possible stroke which should be considered in Mr. Wright.

    The suggested answer is shown below.

     

    Letter Count: 148/1000

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    Embolic

    Thrombotic

    Cardiogenic

    Hemorrhagic

    TEACHING POINT

    Mechanisms of TIAs or Possible Stroke

    Cardiovascular or Cerebrovascular Mechanisms:

    1.Embolic

    Most commonly from the heart or carotid artery– arrhythmias may produce emboli from mural thrombi, atrial appendages, or from diseased heart valves

    2.Thrombotic

    Native clot within the intracranial vasculature — 85% of strokes are caused by vascular occlusion (thrombotic)

    3.Cardiogenic

    Secondary to a decrease in cerebral perfusion caused by decreased cardiac output (e.g.: anginal event associated with coronary artery disease), severe hypotension, or hypoxemia related to severe anemia or poor oxygen saturation

    4.Hemorrhagic

    Secondary to pathologic cerebrovascular changes within the brain attributable to aging, smoking, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.

    Hematologic and Vascular Mechanisms:

    Hematologic

    Hyperviscosity or myleoproliferative syndromes (polycythemia, leukemias, or thrombocytosis), vascular obstruction (sickle cell anemia), severe anemia and conditions associated with hypercoagulable states (lupus anticoagulant or antiphospholipid antibody; presence of Factor V Leiden; or deficiencies of protein C, protein S, or antithrombin III).

    Vascular mechanisms

    Hypertension leading to thrombosis or bleeding, atherosclerotic emboli from carotid or vertebral plaques, extrinsic compression of cranial vessels (cervical osteophytes, or rotational kinking, tumor), vasospasm (migraine, cocaine) and vasculitis.

    “Let’s go tell Mr. Wright what we are thinking,” urges Dr. Wilson. “And, you know… we probably need to mention to him that we’re recommending transport to the hospital…”

    DISCUSSION OF DISPOSITION

    CARE DISCUSSION

    Dr. Wilson explains the results of the ECG.

    You and Dr. Wilson return to Mr. Wright’s room. Dr. Wilson sits down and says, “Mr. Wright, I am concerned that you may have had a TIA. Also, your electrocardiogram shows atrial fibrillation, which is an irregular heart beat or rhythm. Your fall may have been caused by a brief loss of blood flow to the brain due to your irregular heart rhythm, or it may have been related to a TIA. I am therefore recommending admission to the hospital for additional diagnostic testing and monitoring.”

    Mr. Wright responds:

    “I feel fine, I don’t understand why I have to be admitted into the hospital?”

    “How long do you figure I’ve had this irregular heart beat? You said my heart was ok at my last exam.”

    Dr. Wilson asks Mr. Wright if he has any other questions to which Mr. Wright answers “No.” You then exit to make arrangements for Mr. Wright’s transfer to the hospital.

    TEACHING POINT

    TIA Symptoms Preceding Stroke

    Individuals experiencing TIA symptoms have been shown to have an 8% to 12% chance of having a stroke within one week and an 11% to 15% chance of having a stroke within one month.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    AHA. American Heart Association 2005 Guidelines for Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation and Emergency Cardiovascular Care- Part 9: Adult Stroke, 
    Circulation
    . 2005;112:IV-111-IV-120.

    Edward C. Jauch, Jeffrey L. Saver, Harold P. Adams et.al. “Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients with Acute Ischemic Stroke.” 
    Stroke
     2013, published online January 31, 2013.

    TRANSPORT TO THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT

    MANAGEMENT

    Pending hospital transfer, you help the nurse place Mr. Wright on nasal oxygen and a continuous heart monitor. Dr. Wilson observes as you place a catheter in an antecubital fossa for IV access. You are successful on your first attempt, and your technique demonstrates familiarity with the precepts of universal precautions.

    Before the EMTs arrive to transport Mr. Wright to the hospital, you discuss with Dr. Wilson that you would like to follow and to observe how the emergency room physician will evaluate and manage Mr. Wright. Dr. Wilson thinks this an excellent idea, and you agree to meet at the hospital in the morning to make rounds and follow up on Mr. Wright.

    When you arrive at the emergency room, the staff physician Dr. Powell has already been filled in about Mr. Wright. His initial evaluation includes: repeating vital signs, a neurologic exam using the NIH stroke scale, and exam of the carotids, lungs, and heart. His exam is unchanged from what you found at Dr. Wilson’s office

    TEACHING POINT

    Stroke Systematic Assessment and Outcomes

    The 
    National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS)
     is a systematic assessment tool that provides a quantitative measure of stroke-related neurologic deficit. Originally designed as a research tool to measure baseline data on patients in acute stroke clinical trials. Now, the scale is also widely used as a clinical assessment tool to evaluate acuity of stroke patients, determine appropriate treatment, and predict patient outcome.

    Patients with symptoms highly suggestive of stroke are preferentially routed to a hospital that has been certified as a stroke center, as patients with symptoms of stroke who receive treatment at hospitals with this certification have been shown to have improved outcomes among patients treated for stroke.

    TEACHING POINT

    Universal Precautions

    Universal precautions are safety procedures designed to prevent transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and other blood borne pathogens when providing first aid or health care. Under universal precautions, blood and certain body fluids of all patients are considered potentially infectious for HIV, HBV and other blood borne pathogens. Implementation involves the use of protective barriers such as gloves, gowns, aprons, masks, or protective eyewear, which can reduce the risk of exposure of the health care worker’s skin or mucous membranes to potentially infective materials. Proper disposal and precautions to prevent injuries caused by needles, scalpels, and other sharp instruments or devices are also a part of this medical safety practice.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Brott T, Adams HP, Olinger CP, et al. Measurements of acute cerebral infarction: a clinical examination scale. 
    Stroke.
     1989;20:864-70.

    CDC. Universal Precautions for Prevention of Transmission of HIV and Other Bloodborne Infections. 1987. Updated 1996.

    Edward C. Jauch, Jeffrey L. Saver, Harold P. Adams et.al. “Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients with Acute Ischemic Stroke.” 
    Stroke
     2013, published online January 31, 2013.

    LABORATORY EVALUATION

    THERAPEUTICS

    Dr. Powell discusses stroke testing with you.

    Dr. Powell finishes his exam, then the two of you briefly discuss the evaluation protocol.

    TEACHING POINT

    Evaluation of a Patient with Suspected Ischemic Stroke

    Time is crucial in evaluation of a patient with suspected ischemic stroke because if given within four-and-a-half hours, intravenous t-PA has proven benefit in salvaging hypoxic brain tissue. Intra-arterial therapy improves functional outcomes if it can be given within six hours.

    Since time is so critical, there is an organized protocol for the emergency evaluation of patients with suspected stroke. The goal is to complete an evaluation and to decide treatment within 60 minutes of the patient’s arrival in the emergency department. A designated acute stroke team includes physicians, nurses, and laboratory/radiology personnel. All patients with suspected acute stroke are triaged with the same priority as patients with acute myocardial infarction or serious trauma, regardless of the severity of the deficits.

    As for all critically ill patients, the initial evaluation follows the path evaluation and stabilization of the patient’s CABs (
    c
    irculation, 
    a
    irway, 
    b
    reathing). This is quickly followed by a secondary assessment of neurological deficits and possible comorbidities with the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS).

    The overall goal is not only to identify people with possible stroke, but also to exclude stroke mimics, identify other conditions requiring immediate intervention, and determine potential causes of the stroke for early secondary prevention.

    A limited number of hematologic, coagulation, and biochemistry tests are recommended during the initial emergency evaluation of a patient with suspected acute ischemic stroke.

    Although it is desirable to know the results of these tests before giving recombinant tissue Plasminogen Activator (rtPA), thrombolytic therapy should not be delayed while awaiting the results unless:

    there is clinical suspicion of a bleeding abnormality or thrombocytopenia

    the patient has received heparin or warfarin

    use of anticoagulants is not known

    Question

    Several tests are recommended to be performed routinely in patients with suspected ischemic stroke to identify systemic conditions that may mimic or cause stroke or that may influence therapeutic options. If you were to imagine that Mr. Wright were presenting with symptoms of an acute stroke, which studies would you order now for Mr. Wright? Select all that apply.

    The best options are indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. Toxicology screen

    B. Blood alcohol level

    C. Noncontrast brain CT or brain MRI

    D. Blood glucose

    E. Serum electrolytes/renal function tests

    F. ECG

    G. Markers of cardiac ischemia

    H. Complete blood count, including platelet count

    I. Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (INR)

    J. Activated partial thromboplastin time

    K. Oxygen saturation

    L. Chest radiography

    M. Lumbar puncture

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answers are C, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L.

    TEACHING POINT

    Recommended Tests for the Initial Emergency Evaluation of a Patient with Suspected Acute Ischemic Stroke

    The American Heart Association/American Stroke Association Stroke Council, Clinical Cardiology Council, Cardiovascular Radiology and Intervention Council, and the Atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease and Quality of Care Outcomes in Research Interdisciplinary Working Groups have all come together to create 
    guidelines for the early management of adults with ischemic stroke
    . The following tests are recommended.

    CT and MRI

    Imaging of the brain is recommended before initiating any specific therapy to treat acute ischemic stroke. Multimodal 
    CT and MRI 
    may provide additional information that will improve diagnosis of ischemic stroke.

    Class I, Level of Evidence A

    Renal function
     / 
    electrolytes

    Abnormalities of 
    renal function
     or 
    electrolyte disturbances
     are prevalent in patients who have risk factors for stroke and should be assessed.

    Class I, Level of Evidence B

    Electrocardiogram (ECG)

    An 
    electrocardiogram (ECG)
     is recommended because of the high incidence of heart disease in patients with stroke.

    General agreement supports the use of cardiac monitoring to screen for atrial fibrillation and other potentially serious cardiac arrhythmias that would necessitate emergency cardiac interventions. It is generally agreed that cardiac monitoring should be performed during the first 24 hours after onset of ischemic stroke.

    Class I, Level of Evidence B

    Markers for cardiac ischemia

    Markers for cardiac ischemia
     are important for all patients with suspected ischemic stroke, as myocardial ischemia is a potential complication of acute cerebrovascular disease.

    CBC and PT/PTT

    Abnormalities of the 
    CBC and PT/PTT
     provide information that should prompt consideration of infectious, hypoxic/hypoperfusion, thrombotic and hemorrhagic etiologies.

    Oxygen saturation

    Stroke etiology maybe due to underlying CAD and the extent of brain injury may be lessened by maintaining normal 
    oxygen saturation
     . Hypoxic patients with stroke should receive supplemental oxygen.

    Class I, Level of Evidence C

    Chest x-rays have not been found to significantly alter the clinical management of patients presenting with acute ischemic stroke. In patients who may have chronic lung or cardiovascular disease chest x-rays are recommended. Chest x-rays (L) would be appropriate in Mr. Wright’s case due to his hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and atrial fibrillation.

    A blood glucose should be checked to rule out hypoglycemia and, if present, treated in patients with acute ischemic stroke (Class I, Level of Evidence C). The goal is to achieve normoglycemia avoiding extremes of low or elevated blood glucose levels.

    In selected patients defined by their clinical history and the circumstances of their presentation alcohol and toxicology screens may be indicated.

    Lumbar puncture should be performed if there is suspicion of meningitis, endocarditis, CNS vasculitis, and when the possibility or subarachnoid hemorrhage is not eliminated by a normal or negative head CT.

    Other tests that may be warranted in selected patients include: hepatic function tests, pregnancy test, arterial blood gas tests (if hypoxia is suspected), and electroencephalogram (if seizures are suspected).

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    CVA Management. Family Practice Notebook website. 
    http://www.fpnotebook.com/Neuro/CV/CvMngmnt.htm
    . Updated August 6, 2016. Accessed March 9, 2017.

    Jauch E, Saver J, Adams H, Brunk A, Connors JJ, et. al. Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke. 
    Stroke.
     2013; 44(3). 
    http://stroke.ahajournals.org/content/44/3/870
    . Accessed March 9, 2017.

    Powers WJ, Derdeyn CP, Biller J, et. al. 2015 American Heart Association/American Stroke Association Focused Update of the 2013 Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke Regarding Endovascular Treatment: A Guideline for Healthcare Professionals From the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Stroke. 2015 Oct;46(10):3020-35. 
    https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26123479
    . Accessed March 9, 2017.

    NEW NEUROLOGICAL FINDINGS

    PHYSICAL EXAM

    You discover new weakness in Mr. Wright’s left arm.

    You order the labs, and Mr. Wright is taken for a CT scan.

    When Mr. Wright returns from CT, you and Dr. Powell visit him together. Dr. Powell asks you to repeat the neurological exam to assess Mr. Wright’s current status.

    Neurological exam:
     New left arm weakness has developed since his initial evaluation in the emergency room and is his muscle strength is now 2/5. Mr. Wright is oriented and denies any chest discomfort, nausea, or shortness of breath. He is slower in responding to questions.

    Vital signs:
     Heart rate was initially in the 70s on ER arrival and has now risen to 120 to 140 beats/minute, and his respirations have increased from 18 to 26 breaths/minute.

    Labs:

    cardiac biomarkers: indeterminate

    beta-natriuretic peptide (BNP): slightly elevated.

    TEACHING POINT

    Cardiac Biomarkers

    Troponins
     and other substances are released into the blood by ischemic or infarcting myocytes.

    B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
     is 32-amino-acid polypeptide secreted by the cardiac ventricles in response to ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload. The levels of BNP are elevated in patients with left ventricular dysfunction, and the levels correlate with both the severity of symptoms and the prognosis.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Mueller C, Scholer A, Laule-Kilian K. Use of B-Type Natriuretic Peptide in the evaluation and management of acute dyspnea. 
    New Engl J Med
    . 2004;350:647-654.

    Reeder GS, Kennedy HL. Diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. 
    Up To Date
    . 2002.

    ATRIAL FIBRILLATION WITH RVR

    TESTING

    Dr. Powell points out that Mr. Wright’s atrial fibrillation is likely episodic or intermittent with rapid ventricular response. He recognizes that Mr. Wright’s heart rate needs to be slowed and decides to use intravenous diltiazem.

    TEACHING POINT

    AF with Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR) – Etiology, Complications, & Treatment

    AF with Rapid Ventricular Response (RVR) is the presence of physiologic or non-physiologic (electrical) ventricular tachycardia in the presence of AF.

    Etiology

    Fever, myocarditis, pericarditis, volume contraction, thyrotoxicosis, endogenous catecholamines, and AV nodal dysfunction are causative.

    Complications

    In the presence of a diminished cardiac output at baseline, AF with RVR predisposes to hemodynamic instability, functional impairment, heart failure and ischemia.

    Treatment

    Rate control:
     Controlling the heart rate with intravenous diltiazem, beta-blockers, or verapamil improves blood flow and does not delay immediate need for emergency stroke treatment.

    Rhythm control:
     Cardioversion either via electric shock to the heart with the patient under sedation or via medications given orally or intravenously. Both methods carry a risk of stroke which is greatest in patients who have had atrial fibrillation for more than 48 hours, or who have not been given three weeks of prior anticoagulant therapy.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Vincenza S, Weiss KB, LeFevre M, etl al. Management of newly detected atrial fibrillation: A Clinical Practice Guideline from the American Academy of Family Physicians and the American College of Physicians. 
    Ann Intern Med
    . 2003;139:1009-1017.

    2014 AHA/ACC/HRS Guideline for the Management of Patients With Atrial Fibrillation. 
    J Am Coll Cardiol.
     2014;64(21).

    January CT, Wann LS, Alpert JS, et al. 2014 AHA/ACC/ HRS guideline for the management of patients with atrial fibrillation: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines and the Heart Rhythm Society. 
    J Am Coll Cardiol.
     2014;64:e1–76.

    THROMBOLYTIC THERAPY WITH RTPR

    THERAPEUTICS

    Dr. Walston and Dr. Powell discuss whether to initiate thrombolytic therapy.

    Earlier Dr. Powell had notified Dr. Walston, the head of the stroke unit, that Mr. Wright was in the ED, and Dr. Walston has now arrived. You remain present as Dr. Powell informs Dr. Walston of Mr. Wright’s history and status. You hear Dr. Walston say that he feels Mr. Wright has indications for thrombolytic therapy. You approach Dr. Walston: “Mr. Wright appears to have had a TIA yesterday, which is clearly more than four-and-a-half hours ago. What time should we consider our starting point for counting time in the context of decisions for rtPA?”

    Dr. Walston reminds you: “Although it has been more than four-and-a-half hours since his fall yesterday, Mr. Wright had no neurologic or functional impairment when he arrived to the hospital. Because his initial hospital exam was normal, the development of new and progressing weakness in his left arm means we should consider his new symptoms a distinct new episode that started with his first appearance of symptoms here in the ED. This would have been his exam prior to having his CT scan.”

    Dr. Walston tells you he’s had a chance to look at the CT scan, and the scan is negative for any evidence of acute intracranial bleed, cerebral sinus thrombosis, or prior stroke. Thus, there are no contraindications to anticoagulation in Mr. Wright’s case.

    TEACHING POINT

    Emergency CT Scanning and Decision to Treat with rtPA

    Emergency CT scanning is done to identify most cases of intracranial hemorrhage and help discriminate nonvascular causes of neurological symptoms, like a brain tumor. The CT scan can also be examined for evidence of early signs of infarction, as widespread signs of early infarction are correlated with a higher risk of hemorrhagic transformation after treatment with thrombolytic agents. But, even so, data is insufficient that any specific CT finding (with the exception of hemorrhage) should preclude treatment with rtPA within four-and-a-half hours of stroke onset.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Jauch E, Saver J, Adams H, Brunk A, Connors JJ, et. al. Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke. Stroke. 2013; 44(3). 
    http://stroke.ahajournals.org/content/44/3/870
    . Accessed March 9, 2017.

    Powers WJ, Derdeyn CP, Biller J, et. al. 2015 American Heart Association/American Stroke Association Focused Update of the 2013 Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients With Acute Ischemic Stroke Regarding Endovascular Treatment: A Guideline for Healthcare Professionals From the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association. Stroke. 2015 Oct;46(10):3020-35. 
    https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/26123479
    . Accessed March 9, 2017.

    STROKE NEGLECT

    PHYSICAL EXAM

    Mr. Wright is showing signs of confusion.

    You and Tom Wright accompany Mr. Wright to the entrance of the stroke unit where he will receive his rtPA. As Mr. Wright is being taken through the entrance Tom takes his dad’s left hand and says, “Keep the faith. You know your kids will be praying for you.” Mr. Wright turns his head to his right and asks you, “Where’s my son? I thought I heard his voice.”

    You explain to Mr. Wright’s son that you will head home for the night, but you will be back in the morning with Dr. Wilson to check on his father.

    Question

    Right-hand dominant patients who have strokes in the area of the brain that contributes to the behavior of Mr. Wright are likely to also have which of the following associated behaviors or functional impairments? Select all that apply.

    The best options are indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. Left hemiplegia

    B. Impairment of spontaneous respirations

    C. Receptive aphasia

    D. Expressive aphasia

    E. May attempt to read while holding books upside down

    F. Inattention to areas of a room

    G. Denial of stroke disability

    H. Left facial weakness

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answers are A, E, F, G, H.

    TEACHING POINT

    Symptoms of Right Parietal Infarct

    Right-hand dominant patients with strokes in the area of the brain are likely also to have left hemiplegia. Patients with right middle cerebral infarcts affecting the right parietal hemisphere may have difficulties with their spatial and perceptual abilities, which causes them to misjudge distances, or they may attempt to read holding books upside down. They may ignore people or objects in their left visual field or not pay attention to that area of the room. They may also not recognize their functional impairments (denial of stroke disability). Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Stroke Symptoms of Other Regions:

    Strokes that occur in the brain stem would likely be the cause of respiratory impairment and affect vital functions of blood pressure, heartbeat and consciousness.

    Expressive and receptive aphasia and right facial weakness are classically associated with a left middle cerebral artery stroke.

    A central nerve injury such as a stroke often spares involvement of the portion of the facial nerve that controls the forehead. This is because there is bilateral central control of this portion of the facial nerve.

    A peripheral injury to the facial nerve (such as Bell’s Palsy) causes facial weakness of the forehead.

    A more extensive listing of stroke symptoms correlating with functional neuroanatomy can be found at:
    http://www.fpnotebook.com/neuro/CV/IschmcStrk.htm
    .

    Mr. Wright’s ignoring of his son and his symptoms of left upper extremity weakness are clues to the anticipated location of his evolving stroke and the functional deficits that he may develop.

    STROKE UNIT

    CARE DISCUSSION

    Mr. Wright says he is feeling well.

    The following morning you arrive at the hospital and meet Dr. Wilson at the nursing station of the stroke service where Mr. Wright has been roomed. Dr. Wilson informs you that he has seen Mr. Wright and he found him alert and stable, but with clear weakness of his left upper extremity.

    You and Dr. Wilson meet up with Dr. Walston, and the three of you go into the room to see Mr. Wright. Mr. Wright’s son, Tom, is also present. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    You perform an exam:

    Vital signs:

    Temperature:
     37 Celsius

    Heart rate:
     80s beats/minute; irregular rate and rhythm on the heart monitor

    Respiratory rate:
     18 breaths/minute

    Blood pressure:
     158/88 mmHg

    Mr. Wright is alert, oriented to person, place, time and circumstance. No cranial nerve deficit is noted. When directed to raise his arms, he raises only the right arm even though you repeat this instruction. When noxious stimulus is applied (you press the nail of your thumb onto the base of a fingernail of the left hand), he exhibits delayed withdrawal with inattention to the cause of the discomfort. Mr. Wright volitionally moves his left leg less than his right, but, with encouragement, he demonstrates normal and equal lower extremity strength.

    Dr. Walston explains, “Dr. Wilson and I think that you had a stroke affecting the right side of your brain, Mr. Wright, which would have been more severe and disabling if you had not gotten the clot dissolving medication. Tomorrow you will have a repeat CT scan of your brain which will show us how much of your brain was affected by the stroke.” Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Drs. Wilson and Walston say goodbye, and leave the room. You stay an extra minute to chat with Mr. Wright and his son. As you turn to leave, Mr. Wright’s son asks if you would remain while he prays for his father.

    Question

    Which of the following would be an appropriate response for a clinician who is not religious? Choose the single best answer.

    The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. I would like to, but Dr. Wilson is waiting for me to join him.

    B. I don’t think I should as my faith and beliefs may differ from yours.

    C. I will join you.

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answer is C.

    TEACHING POINT

    Overcoming Religious Discordance in the Clinical Setting

    Doctors don’t need to be religious or share the beliefs of their patients to recognize the importance of spirituality in the lives of their patients. Patients and their families who find themselves during hospitalizations under a great deal of emotional stress commonly turn to their faith to provide a context for their crisis and for emotional strength. The patient and family may judge the doctor for lack of compassion if he/she refuses to accept a request to join in prayer. Perceptions of spiritual or compassionate care are often tagged to physician behaviors such as active listening, availability, and understanding. Physician presence can lead to more effective care as it provides insight into what motivates or may inspire a patient. If the provider feels conflicted about praying with patients, he or she need only stand by quietly as the patient prays in his or her own tradition.

    References

    Ghosh N. The Secular Physician and the Religious Patient: Overcoming Religious Discordance in the Clinical Setting. 
    Einstein J Biol Med
    . 2007;23:33-36. 
    http://www.aecom.yu.edu/uploadedFiles/EJBM/23page33-36.pdf
    . Accessed April 25, 2017.

    Hebert RS, MD; Jenckes MW, MPH; et al. Patient Perspectives on Spirituality and the Physician Patient Relationship. 
    Einstein J Biol Med.
     2007;23:33-36. 
    http://www.pubmedcentral.nih.gov/picrender.fcgi?artid=1495274
    . Accessed April 25, 2017.

    SECONDARY STROKE PREVENTION

    THERAPEUTICS

    Two days later, you are sitting with Dr. Wilson in his office and he says, “The results of Mr. Wright’s repeat CT are back and they confirm the presence of a right parietal infarct. That’s consistent with our clinical impression based upon the presenting history, clinical exam, and his hospital course.”

    Dr. Wilson tells you, “Although the CT can confirm the clinical diagnosis, it can’t distinguish whether the cause of Mr. Wright’s ischemic stroke was 
    thrombotic
     or 
    embolic.
    Because of the presence of atrial fibrillation, which is associated with emboli formation in the atria and atrial appendage, this case may well have been embolic.” Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    TEACHING POINT

    American Heart Association (AHA) / American Stroke Association (ASA) Recommendations for Stroke Prevention

    Prevention of a First Stroke

    There are multiple pharmacologic choices to use to prevent stroke in patient with AF. To make this decision, utilize a risk calculator like CHADS-VASc score to determine if the patient should utilize an anti-platelet versus an anticoagulant to reduce their risk.

    1. Adjusted-dose warfarin (target INR, 2.0-3.0)

    Recommended for all patients with nonvalvular AF deemed to be at high risk and many deemed to be at moderate risk for stroke who can receive it safely (Class I; Level of Evidence A).

    2. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin

    Recommended for low-risk and some moderate-risk patients with AF on the basis of patient preference, estimated bleeding risk if anticoagulated, and access to high-quality anti­coagulation monitoring (Class I; Level of Evidence A).

    3. Dual-antiplatelet therapy with clopi­dogrel and aspirin

    Offers more protection against stroke than aspirin alone but with an increased risk of major bleeding and might be reasonable f or high-risk patients with AF deemed unsuitable for anticoagulation (Class IIb; Level of Evidence B).

    4. Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) such as dabigatran (Class I; Level of Evidence B), apixaban (Class I; Level of Evidence B), and rivaroxaban (Class IIa; Level of Evidence B) are all indicated for the prevention of first and recurrent stroke in patients with nonvalvular AF. These agents have compared favorably to warfarin in some studies, but they can be very expensive and they require careful adherence to prevent lapses in anticoagulant protection. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Prevention of Stroke in Patients With a History of Stroke or TIA

    1. For patients with ischemic stroke or TIA with parox­ysmal (intermittent) or permanent AF

    Anticoagulation with a vitamin K antagonist (target INR, 2.5; range, 2.0-3.0) or DOAC is recommended (Class I; Level of Evidence A).

    2. For patients unable to take oral anticoagulants

    As­pirin alone (Class I; Level of Evidence A) is recom­mended. The combination of clopidogrel plus aspirin carries a risk of bleeding similar to that of warfarin and therefore is not recommended for patients with a hemorrhagic contraindication to warfarin * (Class III; Level of Evidence B).

    The selection of an antithrom­botic agent should be individualized on the basis of risk factors, cost, tolerability, patient preference, potential for drug interactions, and other clinical characteristics, including time in INR therapeutic range if the patient has been taking warfarin.

    Question

    Which of the following are appropriate therapies for thrombotic TIA and stroke? Select all that apply.

    The best options are indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. Aspirin

    B. Aspirin with dipyridamole (Aggrenox)

    C. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answers are A, B, C.

    Aspirin alone, aspirin with dipyridamole (Aggrenox), and clopidogrel (Plavix) are all used in the treatment of both embolic and non-embolic TIA and CVA. For aspirin, a low dose of 81 mg is recommended as higher doses (eg. 325 mg) increase side effects without substantially decreasing the risk of stroke. The addition of clopidogrel to aspirin is not recommended for stroke prevention as evidence shows that it dramatically increases gastrointestinal bleeding without a large enough benefit to warrant the addition. Most providers use aspirin as the first choice for platelet inhibitors, reserving clopidogrel for patients unable to tolerate aspirin. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    References

    January CT, Wann LS, Alpert JS, et al. 2014 AHA/ACC/HRS guideline for the management of patients with atrial fibrillation: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines and the Heart Rhythm Society. J Am Coll Cardiol 2014;64:e1–76. Kernan WN, Black HR, Bravata DM, Chimowitz MI, et al. Guidelines for the prevention of stroke in patients with stroke and transient ischemic attack: A Guideline for healthcare professionals from the American Heart Association/American Stoke Association. ​Stroke ​2014;45:2160-2236

    REHABILITATION

    THERAPEUTICS

    You and Dr. Wilson discuss rehabilitation therapy for Mr. Wright.

    You ask Dr. Wilson if Mr. Wright should be started on anticoagulation for his atrial fibrillation. Dr. Wilson responds, “That is a very good question. It is important always to weigh the benefits and risks of anticoagulation for a patient with atrial fibrillation. It is fairly clear in the case of Mr. Wright that warfarin or a DOAC would be beneficial. In other patients, however, the decision can be more difficult.” (See the CHA2DS2-VASc Score)

    Dr. Wilson goes on, “Certain types of stroke are associated with an increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage at the site of the infarct with early anticoagulation. Current guidelines recommend delaying starting anticoagulation. I would recommend he start anticoagulation in two weeks.”

    “Now that we’ve dealt with that, this is a good time for us to start thinking about rehabilitation therapy for Mr. Wright,” Dr. Wilson tells you.

    TEACHING POINT

    Common Stroke Complications

    Aspiration pneumonia

    Malnutrition/dehydration

    Pressure sores

    TEACHING POINT

    Stroke Rehabilitation Therapy

    Rehabilitative therapy begins in the acute-care hospital after the patient’s medical condition has been stabilized, often within 24 to 48 hours after the stroke. The first steps involve promoting independent movement because many patients are paralyzed or seriously weakened. Patients are prompted to change positions frequently while lying in bed and to engage in passive or active range-of-motion exercises to strengthen their stroke-impaired limbs. Patients progress from sitting up and transferring between the bed and a chair to standing, bearing their own weight, and walking, with or without assistance.

    Rehabilitation nurses and therapists help patients perform progressively more complex and demanding tasks, such as bathing, dressing, and using a toilet, and they encourage patients to begin using their stroke-impaired limbs while engaging in those tasks. Beginning to reacquire the ability to carry out these basic activities of daily living represents the first stage in a stroke survivor’s return to functional independence.

    Post-stroke rehabilitation involves physicians; rehabilitation nurses; physical, occupational, recreational, speech-language, and vocational therapists; and mental health professionals. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    TEACHING POINT

    CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Atrial Fibrillation Stroke Risk

    The 
    CHA2DS2-VASc score
     is a validated instrument that applies known cardiovascular risk factors to provide calculated guidance to help weigh the benefits and risks of anticoagulation. A new version of the CHADS2, the CHA2DS2-VASc, is currently being evaluated.

    Certain types of stroke are associated with an increased risk of intracranial hemorrhage at the site of the infarct with early anticoagulation. Current guidelines recommend delaying starting anticoagulation.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Adams HP Jr, del Zoppo G, Alberts MJ, et al. American Heart Association, American Stroke Association Stroke Council, Clinical Cardiology Council, Cardiovascular Radiology and Intervention Council, Atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease and Quality of Care Outcomes in Research Interdisciplinary Working Groups. Guidelines for the early management of adults with ischemic stroke: a guideline from the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association Stroke Council, Clinical Cardiology Council, Cardiovascular Radiology and Intervention Council, and the Atherosclerotic Peripheral Vascular Disease and Quality of Care Outcomes in Research Interdisciplinary Working Groups: the American Academy of Neurology affirms the value of this guideline as an educational tool for neurologists. 
    Stroke.
     2007;38(5):1655-711.

    National Institute of Health. NINDS. Post-Stroke Rehabilitation Fact Sheet, NIH Publication No. 08-4846 October 2008.

    NIH Stroke Scale. National Institutes of Health website. 
    https://stroke.nih.gov/resources/scale.htm
    . Accessed March 9, 2017.

    ACTIVITIES OF DAILY LIVING

    MANAGEMENT

    Mr. Wright’s hospital course proceeds without complication and he is transferred from the stroke unit to Dr. Wilson. Dr. Wilson asks you to review the record and to develop a management plan for discharge and follow-up. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    When you review his record, you note that the physical and occupational therapy notes reveal that functionally Mr. Wright is independent in basic activities of daily living (BADLs) and performs very well in skills that test instrumental or community ADLs.

    TEACHING POINT

    Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)

    Basic activities of daily living (BADLs)

    Bathing

    Dressing and undressing

    Eating

    Transferring from bed to chair, and back

    Voluntarily control urinary and fecal discharge

    Using the toilet

    Walking (not bedridden)

    Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) are not necessary for fundamental functioning, but enable the individual to live independently within a community

    Light housework

    Preparing meals

    Taking medications

    Shopping for groceries or clothes

    Using the telephone

    Managing money

    Question

    You know that survivors of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke have an increased risk of another stroke, and much of the long-term treatment is aimed at secondary prevention of another stroke. You have already prescribed antithrombotic therapy. What else do you want to consider in your management and follow-up plan for Mr. Wright? Select all that apply.

    The best options are indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. Moderate-intensity statin therapy

    B. Blood pressure lowering to a goal of 130/80 mmHg

    C. Blood pressure lowering to a goal of 150/90 mmHg

    D. Smoking cessation

    E. Mediterranean diet

    F. Exercise counseling

    G. Stroke education

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answers are B, D, E, F, G.

    TEACHING POINT

    Secondary Stroke Prevention

    The disease management program called: “Preventing Recurrence of Thromboembolic Events through Coordinated Treatment” (PROTECT) implements eight secondary prevention goals at the time of discharge. Four of these goals are aimed at treatable risk factors, and four of these goals are aimed at modifiable lifestyle risk factors of recurrent thromboembolism.

    You decide to model your treatment plan after this program coordinated with recommendations from the American Heart Association and American Stroke Association.

    Recommendation

    Level of Evidence

    Hyperlipidemia

    All patients with a history of TIA or CVA should be placed on high-intensity statin such as atorvastatin 40 or 80 mg or rosuvastatin 20 mg.

    Class I, Level A

    Hypertension

    Antihypertensive treatment is recommended for prevention of recurrent stroke and other vascular events in persons who have had an ischemic stroke and are beyond the hyperacute period.

    Recent guidelines suggest that setting a blood pressure goal of 130/80 mmHg is appropriate. Given his age, one should be cautious about lowering his blood pressure too aggressively, leading to orthostasis and a subsequent fall.

    The older JNC8 guidelines had suggested a blood pressure goal of 150/90 mmHg for adults over age 60, but more recent evidence from the SPRINT trial argues that a lower goal in high risk patients (such as Mr. Wright, who has had a stroke already) decreases cardiovascular outcomes, particularly stroke.

    JNC-8 guidelines also recommend utilizing an ACEi and a diuretic for recurrent stroke prevention.

    For more 
    REQUIRED
     information about hypertension management, see the 
    Aquifer Hypertension module
    .

    Class I, Level A

    Smoking

    All ischemic stroke or TIA patients who have smoked in the past year should be strongly encouraged not to smoke.

    Class I, Level C

    Diet

    The ACC/AHA Lifestyle Guidelines recommend all adults consume a Mediterranean diet to reduce their risk of ASCVD.

    Furthermore, patients with hypertension should limit sodium intake to 2,400 mg per day or less. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Class I, Level A

    Physical activity

    On the basis of moderate quality evidence, all adults are encouraged to engage in moderate-to-vigorous intensity physical activity 3-4 times per week for 40 minutes per session. For those with disability after ischemic stroke, a supervised therapeutic exercise regimen is recommended.

    Class IIb, Level C

    Stroke education

    Stroke education including knowledge of stroke warning signs and need to call 911 in the event of a cerebrovascular event as well as awareness of individual’s own risk factors.

    You decide to discontinue Mr. Wright’s simvastatin and initiate atorvastatin at 40 mg po daily instead and to keep Mr. Wright’s hydrochlorothiazide and amlodipine at their current doses and to add metoprolol 25 mg po twice daily to both control his hypertension and his heart rate.

    References

    Eckel RH, Jakicic JM, Ard, JD, Hubbard VS, et al. 2013 AHA/ACC guideline on lifestyle management to reduce cardiovascular risk: a report of the American College of Cardiology American/Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines. 
    Circulation.
     2013;00:000–000.

    Ovbiagele B, Saver JL, Fredieu A, et al. PROTECT: A coordinated stroke treatment program to prevent recurrent thromboembolic events. 
    Neuro
    . 2004;63:1217-1222.

    Sacco RL, Adams R, Albers G, et al. Guidelines for Prevention of Stroke in Patients With Ischemic Stroke or Transient Ischemic Attack. 
    Stroke.
     2006;37:577-617.

    The SPRINT Research Group. A Randomized trial of intensive versus standard blood-pressure control. 
    NEJM.
     2015;373:2103-2116.

    Stone NJ, Robinson J, Lichtenstein AH, Bairey Merz CN, et al. 2013 ACC/AHA guideline on the treatment of blood cholesterol to reduce atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk in adults: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Practice Guidelines. 
    Circulation.
     2013;00:000–000.

    Whelton PK, Carey RM, Aronow WS, Casey DE Jr, Collins KJ, Dennison Himmelfarb C, et. al. 2017 ACC/AHA/AAPA/ABC/ACPM/AGS/APhA/ASH/ASPC/NMA/PCNA guideline for the prevention, detection, evaluation, and management of high blood pressure in adults: a report of the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association Task Force on Clinical Practice Guidelines. 
    Hypertension.
     November 13, 2017. 
    http://www.acc.org/latest-in-cardiology/ten-points-to-remember/2017/11/09/11/41/2017-guideline-for-high-blood-pressure-in-adults
    . Accessed January 29, 2018. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    DISCHARGE

    MANAGEMENT

    Tom Wright feels it would be best if his father stayed with him after discharge.

    Today Mr. Wright is being discharged. Dr. Wilson has asked that you take the lead in discussing issues pertaining to preventive health maintenance and discharge medications. You discuss all of the plans you have outlined with the Wrights regarding treatable risk factors (hypertension and lipid therapy) as well as modifiable lifestyle risk factors (smoking cessation, diet, exercise, stroke education). You also consider living arrangements and plans for continuing rehabilitation therapy.

    Mr. Wright’s son says, “My sisters and I think it would be best if Dad stays with me and my family for a while since he has new medications. Plus, it’s more convenient while he completes his occupational and physical therapy.” Mr. Wright grumbles that he hates to be a bother, but he agrees to this arrangement. You arrange for an office follow-up appointment for Mr. Wright in one week.

    TEACHING POINT

    Role of Primary Care Physicians in Primary and Secondary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

    Primary care physicians play a central role in the detection and management of cardiovascular disease risk factors, including poor nutrition, excessive alcohol intake, smoking, obesity, insufficient physical activity, hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, in addition to secondary effects of cardiovascular disease, cancer, and stroke. Effective communication between physicians, students, patients, and families for both the primary and secondary prevention of disease requires a persistent effort. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    TEACHING POINT

    Coronary Heart Disease and Stroke in African Americans

    African Americans have the highest rates of coronary heart disease (CHD) of any ethnic group in America, and stroke mortality rates are strikingly high in this population group in general.

    DEEP DIVE

    References

    Cholesterol Guidelines. Aquifer. 
    /documents/796
    . Accessed March 7, 2017.

    Cooper R, Cutler J, Desvigne-Nickens P, et al. Trends and disparities in coronary heart disease, stroke, and other cardiovascular diseases in the United States: findings of the national conference on cardiovascular disease prevention. 
    Circulation.
     2000;102:3137-3147.

    National Institute of Health. NINDS. October 2008. Post-Stroke Rehabilitation Fact Sheet. NIH Publication No. 08-4846.

    FOLLOW-UP VISIT

    MANAGEMENT

    The Wrights return for the follow-up visit.

    Three days following hospital discharge Mr. Wright presents to Dr. Wilson’s office for follow up.

    He has no concern of headache, dizziness or weakness; denies any shortness of breath, chest discomfort or palpitations; and has no bleeding or bruising; but his son relates the following concerns:

    “As you know, since his discharge, Dad has been staying with me and my family. He has been progressing well with his physical therapy, and his ignoring the left side is much improved, but he’s not acting like himself. His appetite is poor, and he is easily annoyed by my sons who think he’s the world’s greatest grandpa. Yesterday, he refused to cooperate with the occupational therapist.”

    On your exam you notice:

    Although Mr. Wright is alert, oriented, and cooperative — the sparkly wit and spontaneity that you had observed previously is absent. His blood pressure is 136/82 mmHg, heart rate irregular at 72 beats per minute, and left arm weakness is minimal. The exam is otherwise unremarkable. a

    Question

    Which of the following diagnoses do you consider most likely for Mr. Wright? Choose the single best answer.

    The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    A. Progression of stroke

    B. Stroke related dementia

    C. Post-stroke depression

    D. Major depression

    E. Dysthymia

    F. Personality disorder of aging

    G. Side effect of medication

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answer is C.

    Mr. Wright has 
    post-stroke depression (C)
    . His symptoms of depressed mood, decreased appetite, and irritability have been present for one week and do not appear to be severe; his lack of a prior history of depression is also supportive.

    Incorrect options:

    There is no new neurological finding suggesting progression of stroke (A) and he is improved by report of the son and your exam.

    There is no report of confusion, disorientation, memory difficulty or delusions to support the presentation of dementia (B).

    Major depression (D) is usually associated with a prior history of depression, which Mr. Wright does not have. Major depression would be considered if a patient has five or more major depressive symptoms during at least a two week period and is characterized by a level of severity that interferes with the individual’s ability to normally function or one or more activity of daily living. 
    Note:
     The episode is not considered major depression if it is attributable to the direct physiological effects of a substance or to another medical condition.

    Dysthymia (E) is a state of chronic depressed mood present for two or more years on most days of the week. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Personality disorder of aging (F) is a fictitious diagnosis.

    Side effects of medication (G) must always be considered and there is some reported association with beta-blockers.

    Major Depressive Symptoms

    (1) Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day.

    (2) Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day.

    (3) Significant weight loss when not dieting or weight gain (e.g., a change of more than 5% of body weight in a month), or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day.

    (4) Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day.

    (5) Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day.

    (6) Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day.

    (7) Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day.

    (8) Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness, nearly every day.

    (9) Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide.

    TEACHING POINT

    Post-Stroke Depression – Epidemiology, Definition, Cause, Complications, Management

    Epidemiology

    One third of stroke survivors experience post-stroke depression.

    Definition

    DSM 5 defines this the occurrence of a mood disorder judged to be due to the direct physiological effects of another medical condition.

    Cause

    The precise cause of depression following stroke is unknown and its development is thought to be due to multiple factors which include lesion location, individual adjustment to disability, and levels of family or social support.

    Complications

    Untreated post-stroke depression can impede rehabilitation progress and lead to impaired functional outcome, cognitive decline, and increased mortality.

    Management

    SSRIs are accepted first-line therapy and have been proven to improve clinical outcomes in suffers of post-stroke depression. Selection of a particular SSRI is guided by the potential for drug-drug interactions and patient tolerance.

    References

    Dafer RM, Rao M, Shareef A, Sharma A. Poststoke depression. (Clinical report).
    Top Stroke Rehabi
    l. 2008;15:13-21.

    Ansell J, Hirsh J, Hylek E, Jacobson A, Crowther M, Palareti G ANTITHROMBOTIC AND THROMBOLYTIC THERAPY, 8TH ED: ACCP GUIDELINES: Pharmacology and Management of the Vitamin K Antagonists: American College of Chest Physicians Evidence-Based Clinical Practice Guidelines (8th Edition). 
    Chest
     June 2008 133:160S-198S; doi:10.1378/chest.08-0670

    Robinson RG, Roy J, .Lucille A, Poststroke depression: prevalence, diagnosis, treatment, and disease progression. 
    Biol Psychiatry.
     2003;54:376-87.

    Whyte EM, Mulsant BH. Post stroke depression: epidemiology, pathophysiology, and biological treatment. 
    Biol Psychiatry.
    2002;52:253-264. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    POST-STROKE DEPRESSION

    THERAPEUTICS

    Dr. Wilson discusses post-stroke depression with the Wrights.

    Dr. Wilson sits down and tells both of the Wrights, “Many people who survive a stroke feel fear, anxiety, frustration, anger, sadness, and a sense of grief for their physical and mental losses. These feelings are a natural response to the psychological trauma and physical disability of stroke. The physical effects of brain damage case some emotional disturbances and personality changes. Clinical depression, which is a sense of hopelessness that disrupts an individual’s ability to function, appears to be the emotional disorder most commonly experienced by stroke survivors. Post-stroke depression can be treated with antidepressant medications and psychological counseling.”

    Dr. Wilson recommends a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for Mr. Wright.

    Mr. Wright replies, “I’m on enough medication Dr. Wilson, I’ve had a stroke and now you want to say I’m crazy too”.

    You observe as Dr. Wilson explains the chemical changes that take place in a person with depression and how in fact these changes can be precipitated by stroke. You also observe that Dr. Wilson also encourages Mr. Wright to talk about his fears associated with his recent illness.

    It becomes apparent to you that Mr. Wright’s greatest fear is not the fact that he has medical conditions that potentially threaten his life. He is more concerned about his loss of independence and the burden that might place on his family. Dr. Wilson indicates that he understands that position and encourages Mr. Wright to do all he can for himself, including taking an SSRI.

    Dr. Wilson also indicates to Mr. Wright that he will discuss with him the construction of a living will at a near future visit as an additional act to relieve his family of a potentially emotional burden.

    At the end of the visit, both of the Wrights seem to feel better as they shake hands with you and wish you luck in the future.

    References

    Jorge RE, Robinson RG, Arndt S, Starkstein S. Mortality and poststroke depression: a placebo-controlled trial of antidepressants. 
    Am J Psychiatry.
     2003;160:1823-1829.

    National Institute of Health. NINDS. Post-Stroke Rehabilitation Fact Sheet, NIH Publication No. 08-4846 October 2008.

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    RELEASE NOTES

    RELEASE NOTES

    January 29, 2019

    Updated time reference to “yesterday” instead of “today”

    Updated to TIA from stroke

    Added new content to the Diagnostic Network area

    Added new USPSTF content

    Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness

    LEARNING OBJECTIVES

    LEARNING OBJECTIVES

    The student should be able to:

    Assess signs and symptoms of transient ischemic attack (TIA) and stroke.

    Interpret laboratory data related to patients with new onset neurological symptoms, particularly numbness or weakness in an extremity with or without accompanying speech difficulty.

    Interpret target goals for cholesterol and lipoproteins using the best available guidelines (e.g., National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel [NCEP ATP] III guidelines).

    Describe the appropriate therapy for acute stroke and primary and secondary prevention of stroke.

    Discuss the evidence for the role of lifestyle changes in prevention of stroke.

    Describe the importance of effective communication between physicians, students, patients, and families in the management of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease.

    Demonstrate the ability to care for patients with coronary artery disease from diverse patient backgrounds and at different points in their illness.

    Discuss depression with a patient appropriately.

    Perform at least two commonly used tests to determine the functional ability of an elderly patient, e.g., the “Timed Up and Go” (TUG) test, and the Mini–Mental State Examination (MMSE).

    QUESTION 1

    SAQ

    Question

    You are seeing a 72-year-old woman in a family medicine office who presents reporting having had a period of facial drooping and left upper extremity weakness that lasted approximately two hours the prior day. She currently has no symptoms. She has a past medical history of hypertension and Type 2 diabetes, for which she takes losartan and metformin daily. Her family history is positive for coronary artery disease in her father. She is a daily smoker, and she does not drink alcohol. On exam, she has normal vital signs including a blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg. Her cardiac exam reveals a regular rate without murmurs. Her neurological exam is completely normal. Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiology for her presenting symptoms? Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness

    The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A.Hemorrhage of a cerebral vessel

    B. Transient hypotension leading to cerebral ischemia

    C. Hypertensive urgency that has since resolved

    D. Acute hypoglycemia

    E. Blood clot in a cerebral vessel

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answer is E.

    This patient is presenting having had a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The most common cause of a TIA is an acute clot in a cerebral vessel (most commonly embolic, but also may be due to plaque rupture in a small cerebral vessel). If the clot resolves and circulation is restored soon enough, the stereotypical cerebrovascular ischemic symptoms resolve and we deem the episode a TIA.

    Cerebral hemorrhage can produce the symptoms this patient experienced. However, hemorrhage is unlikely to lead to symptoms that resolve as hers have. Once the bleeding has happened, patients typically experience the more permanent deficits of a stroke. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    Transient hypotension can cause neurologic symptoms, but these are not focal in nature (as this patient experienced) and typically involve changes in a patients overall sensorium.

    A hypertensive urgency can cause generalized neurologic symptoms such as agitation or stupor, or it can cause an acute ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke with focal findings. It is a conceivable explanation for a TIA, but it is less likely in this patient with very well-controlled hypertension on only one medication.

    Acute hypogycemia causes generalized neurologic findings and delirium which quickly resolve with the correction of the serum glucose. Focal neurologic findings such as this patient’s would not be caused by hypoglycemia. Furthermore, metformin used alone does not cause hypoglycemia as an adverse reaction.

    QUESTION 2

    SAQ

    Question

    A 57-year-old man presents for follow-up after suffering an ischemic stroke with residual weakness on the left. His past medical history includes type II diabetes. He smokes 1/2 pack per day of tobacco and he does not drink alcohol. He reports no medication allergies. He has at times found the costs of his medications and test strips to be a barrier to adherence. What pairing of an anti-platelet agent and its rational is the best choice for this patient? Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. Aspirin 81 mg; more effective at preventing subsequent strokes than higher doses

    B. Aspirin 325 mg; more effective at preventing subsequent strokes than lower doses

    C. Aspirin 325 mg; fewer bleeding complications

    D. Aspirin 81 mg; fewer bleeding complications

    E. Clopidogrel 75 mg; optimal for patients with diabetes

    SUBMIT

    Answer Comment

    The correct answer is D.

    Although in the past it was believed that patients on a 325 mg dose of aspirin compared to those on an 81 mg dose where conferred more protection from ischemic stroke, studies now show that increasing the dose of aspirin, while increasing the risk of hemorrhage, does not confer more benefit than the 81 mg dose. For that reason, the 81 mg dose of aspirin, is sufficient to help prevent a stroke in a patient with a TIA or other risk factors for stroke. Clopidogrel is an option for patients who have experienced stroke or TIA. It is considerably more expensive than aspirin, and thus is likely to be a barrier for this patient. Clopidogrel has not been found to be clinically superior to aspirin in general patients or those with diabetes.

    QUESTION 3

    SAQ

    Question

    You are seeing a 68-year-old woman who has presented to the emergency department with left sided facial droop, aphasia, and left sided weakness in her arm and leg. These symptoms began while she was having lunch two hours earlier. On exam, she is hypertensive and afebrile. Her neurologic exam reveals left-sided hemiparesis with expressive aphasia and left-sided hyperreflexia. When evaluating a person with a possible stroke, when might it be acceptable to administer t-PA? Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

    The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes.

    A. If onset of neurologic symptoms was < 8 hrs prior to presentation B. If emergent CT head shows a hemorrhagic stroke C. If onset of neurologic symptoms was < 4.5 hours prior to presentation D. If emergent CT head shows multilobar infarction E. If the patient awoke from an 8-hour sleep with stroke symptoms of uncertain duration SUBMIT Answer Comment The correct answer is C. When assessing a patient who presents acutely with symptoms suggestive of a stroke, one possible treatment option is using recombinant tissue plasminogen activator. When used in the appropriate patient, this medication can help minimize the damage done related to suffering an acute ischemic injury to the brain. However, it is only acceptable to administer t-PA in select situations. These include when onset of neurologic symptoms has been within 4.5 hours of the onset of symptoms, emergent CT head does not show an intracranial bleed, an early acute infarct, or a brain mass. Patients with an unknown duration of stroke symptoms due to sleep should not be given t-PA. QUESTION 4 SAQ Question Which of the following therapies are recommended as first-line therapy for secondary prevention of noncardioembolic TIA or noncardioembolic stroke? Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness. The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes. A. Aspirin B. Warfarin (Coumadin) C. Pravastatin (Pravachol) D. Recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) E. Ticlopidine (Ticlid) SUBMIT Answer Comment The correct answer is A. For noncardioembolic (or atherothrombotic, lacunar) strokes, possible first-line therapies for secondary prevention include aspirin, aspirin in combination with extended-release dipyridamole (aggrenox), and clopidogrel (Plavix). For cardioembolic strokes, aspirin may potentially be desirable in patients with a contraindication for anticoagulation, but most people will need to be on coumadin for secondary prevention of stroke. High-intensity statins are recommended to help treat high cholesterol in patients who have had a stroke or have risk factors for stroke. Pravastatin is a low-intensity statin, which would not be recommended in a patient with prior atherosclerotic disease such as this. T-PA is used in the acute management of a stroke and not as secondary prevention of noncardioembolic stroke. Ticlopidine is an antiplatelet agent that is not as effective as aspirin or clopidogrel. It is, in fact, no longer available in the U.S. QUESTION 5 SAQ Question A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with acute headache and numbness of the left arm for the past six hours. Past history includes hypertension and diabetes. She takes amlodipine, chlorthalidone, metformin, and rosuvastatin, but ran out of all her medications recently. Her vitals are: Heart rate: 80 beats/minute Blood pressure: 205/110 mmHg Respirations: 16 per minute Body Mass Index: 30 kg/m2 An EKG reveals normal sinus rhythm with a rate of 82 and no ischemic changes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis The best option is indicated below. Your selections are indicated by the shaded boxes. A. Transient ischemic attack B. Hypertensive emergency C. Embolic stroke D. Brain tumor E. Hypoglycemia SUBMIT Answer Comment The correct answer is B. This patient is presenting with an acute hypertensive emergency. While there is no exact threshold at which hypertensive emergency is universally defined, typically the patient has to experience severely elevated blood pressures (eg. >185/110 mmHg) and an acute elevation above the patient’s baseline. Both features are true in this case. Additionally the patient must be experiencing acute end-organ damage such as neurologic symptoms, cardiac injury or acute kidney injury. A TIA is possible in this patient, though the context of her running out of her medications and experiencing headache makes hypertensive emergency more likely. An embolic stroke is not 
    as
    likely a diagnosis given that she is not in atrial fibrillation. It is still a possibility however, as the patient could have paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and only be in sinus rhythm at the time of presentation. Given her markedly elevated blood pressure, a hypertensive emergency is a more likely explanation for her current presentation. Hypoglycemia is unlikely in a diabetic who has run out of her medications. A brain tumor is a possible but not a likely explanation in this patient. Family Medicine 22: 70-year-old male with new-onset unilateral weakness.

  • APEA Exam Questions & Answers

    APEA Exam Questions & Answers

    APEA 3P (physical, pathophysiology, and pharmacology)  exam emphasizes the importance of the’

    ability to evaluate health and illness experiences of clients, to assess an individual’s response to pharmacologic management of illness, and have the basic understanding of pharmacologic principles, which includes the cellular response level.

    Certification Review Study Plan Assignment

    Guidelines with Scoring Rubric

    Purpose: 
    The purpose of this assignment is to identify the student’s potential weaknesses for the future national FNP certification exam and NP practice. A certification review study plan will be created to address the student’s weaknesses, and help prepare them to pass the national FNP certification exam and the APEA Predictor exam. This study plan should be used throughout the course to guide the student APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

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    Course Outcomes:

    4. Demonstrate a command of essential knowledge needed for safe, quality primary care practice as a family nurse practitioner.

    5. Demonstrate competencies essential of the family nurse practitioner role as leaders and advocates of holistic, safe, and quality care.

    Due Date: 
    This assignment is due by 11:59 pm MT Sunday of Week 1.

    Total Points Possible: 10

    Requirements:

    – The student should review their APEA Pre Predictor exam results from the NR 603 course in detail. APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

    – Results from the following knowledge areas must be reviewed: cardiovascular, dermatology, endocrine, EENT, gastroenterology, health promotion, hematology, men’s health, neurology, orthopedics, pediatrics, pregnancy, professional issues, psychiatry, respiratory, sexually transmitted infections, urology, and women’s health.

    In addition the results from the following testing domains must be reviewed: assessment, diagnosis, evaluation, pharmacotherapeutics, and planning and intervention.

    There must be a minimum of four knowledge areas and two testing domains included in the study plan (additional weak areas are encouraged to be included). At a minimum, the student should select the lowest scored four knowledge areas and the lowest scored two testing domains.

    The study plan must include: at least six total learning goals based on the knowledge areas and testing domains (see above), and each goal must have at least four associated learning activities, a timeline for completion (within the current class timeframe), and a reflection.

    Learning activities must be clearly identified and detailed. Learning activities may include:

    · Practicing with subject specific and additional150 question exams in the APEA myQbank

    · Additional time studying specific areas of the APEA review modules

    · Watching a webinar

    · Reading specific journal articles

    · Attending a conference or workshop

    · Working with preceptor in clinical setting to address identified weaknesses

    · Reviewing case studies

    · Going through a practice simulation

    · Studying from the certification review textbook APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

    · Attending a live certification review course

     

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY

     

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – UROLOGY

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – WOMEN’S HEALTH

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – HEENT

    Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion

     

    APEA NURSING NR 509

    Cardio APEA

    NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM

     

    NR 509 Week 1 Quiz

    APEA Exam Questions & Answers

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz

     

    NR 509 Week 3 Quiz

     

    NR 509 WEEK 4 QUIZ

     

    NR 509 Week 6 Quiz

    NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

    Preparing the Assignment:

    The assignment may be completed in a table format (see below) or organized in such a way that each learning goal is clearly separated and easily identifiable. All parts of this assignment must be the student’s original work. APA format is not required.

    Sample Study Plan:

    Learning Goal (Identified from Pre Predictor exam)

    What do you want to accomplish?

    Learning Activities

    How are you going to accomplish your goal?

    Timeline

    When do you want to accomplish your goal?

    Reflection

    How will accomplishing your goal improve your certification preparation or make you a better nurse practitioner?

    Improve my knowledge of 
    respiratory 
    function and diseases.

    1. Complete respiratory subject specific exams in the APEA myQbank. I will continue to practice with these until I consistently score at least 90%.

    2. Review respiratory/pulmonary in the Clinical Guidelines in Primary Care textbook APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

    3. Read at least 4-advanced practice nursing/medical journal articles related to respiratory.

    4. Ask my preceptor to guide me through a detailed lung assessment at my clinical site.

    5. Attend the on ground FNP Intensive week 7 of this course, and focus on respiratory during the review.

    The majority of this goal will be accomplished by week 5, ahead of the first Predictor exam, and will be reviewed as necessary through week 8 of this course. Learning activity number 5 will be accomplished by week 8.

    Improving my respiratory assessment and diagnosis skills will ensure that I have the knowledge to make the best care decisions for my patients. Increasing my understanding about the disease process and medications will help me communicate with my colleagues, and recognize changes in my patients that I may not have recognized without this knowledge. Additionally, increasing my knowledge in this area will better prepare me to be successful on my national certification exam. APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

    NR661 Certification Review & Study Plan Grading Rubric

    Discussion Topic 1

    Comments

    Learning Goals

    The assignment contains a minimum of 6 learning goals (4 based on the student’s lowest scored Pre Predictor knowledge areas, and 2 from the lowest scored testing domain areas).

    * 5-point deduction for each missing goal. Additionally, if there are not at least 4 goals from knowledge area and 2 from the testing domain area then a 10-point deduction will apply APEA Exam Questions & Answers.

    30

    Learning Activities

    Learning activities support the learning goals. There must be at least 4 separate learning activities clearly identified for each learning goal.

    * 5-point deduction for each learning goal not supported by at least 4 separate clearly identified learning activities (up to 30 point maximum).

    30

    Reflection

    Reflection identifies how accomplishing the learning goal will improve certification preparation or make the student a better nurse practitioner.

    * 5-point deduction for each missing reflection, or a reflection that does not include the above criteria (up to 30 point maximum).

    30

    Timeline

    Timeline clearly identifies when the learning goal will be accomplished. All goals must be accomplished within the current class timeframe.

    *1-point deduction for each missing timeline, or a timeline that does not include the above criteria (up to 6 point maximum).

    6

    APEA Exam Questions & Answers

    Organization

    Study plan is organized and grouped by learning goals in a table or other format that aligns all components of the study plan under each learning goal (see sample Study Plan in assignment instructions).

    * 4-point deduction if the above criteria is not met. Entire assignment must be organized this way or full deduction applies. No partial deductions.

    4

    Late Deductions

    The student must submit this assignment by Sunday, 11:59 p.m. MT of week 1. APEA Exam Questions & Answers. Late assignments will incur a 10% daily deduction. An assignment will not be accepted after it exceeds three days late, and a zero grade will be assigned.

    Total Quality Points Earned per Thread APEA Exam Questions & Answers

    /100

  • Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion

    Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.

    Week 3: Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment

    Using a friend, family member, or colleague, perform a 
    neurovascular (include all cranial nerves), musculoskeletal, and cardiopulmonary (includes the heart, lungs, and peripheral vasculature) exam
    . Document the physical examination findings in the SOAP note format.

    Even though your patient may have abnormal findings, you must document the expected normal exam findings for the system. If you would like to include the abnormal findings they should be noted in parenthesis next to the normal expected findings. The complete 
    subjective
     and 
    objective
     sections must be included.  You may include the assessment and plan portion of the SOAP note, but these sections will not be graded.

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    You should devise a chief complaint so that you may document the OLDCART (HPI) data. 
    You must use the chief complaint of headache, back pain, and cough.
    You should also focus the ROS based on the patient’s chief complaint and the body systems being examined. Refer to the SOAP Note Format document in Course Resources as necessary. This will be the same format that faculty will follow during the immersion weekend. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.

    * There are videos of the exams to be performed at immersion in Modules → Introduction and Resources→ Immersion section. Also the immersion evaluation forms are located in the Course Resources section. They should be reviewed and practiced often.

     

    This topic was locked Jul 23 at 11:59pm.

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    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 16, 2017Jul 16 at 7:20pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Class, Welcome to week Three! This week, we are focusing on neurological, musculoskeletal and cardiopulmonary exams. Please follow the discussion question and grading rubric closely, I have also posted additional helpful guidance.  Please remember what goes in the ROS (Subjective) vs. the Physical Exam (Objective).

    Here are the following course outcomes to assist in focusing this week:

    3: Demonstrate knowledge required to perform a focused health history and examination for developmental, gender-related, age-specific, and special populations. (PO 1, 5)

    6: Differentiate normal from abnormal findings. (PO 1, 4)

    8: Adapt history and physical examination to the needs of the patient, i.e., pediatric versus geriatric patient (PO 1,4,7)

    Class, I wish to give some extra guidance to practicing, performing the assessments and posting your assessment for Neurological, Musculoskeletal and Cardiopulmonary systems. These systems should include 
    detail
    of what all findings (normal or if your patient is with abnormal findings) would include for each of the assigned systems. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.

    When assessing the neurological system one area for example of detail would be cranial nerves which should include listing each one of them with some identification that shows that you know the assessment test for each cranial nerve. This detail should also be applied to other aspects of the Neurological examination such as finger to nose, heel to shin test, reflexes, level of consciousness, motor function etc…
    many more to include
    …please refer to both texts for other areas to be included.

    Cranial Nerve example (not all inclusive): no deficit to sense of smell (Olfactory CN1) upon the patient patent nares through ability of sniffing bilateral nares, able to identify odors such as coffee and peppermint.

    For Musculoskeletal, it goes beyond inclusion of range of motion and should include 
    all maneuvers
     that show no deficits/deficits (upper and lower extremities, cervical spine- as well as other aspects of the MS exam).

    MS example (not all inclusive): ballottement, bulge sign, phalen test, ROM all areas (with degrees), McMurray, valgus, drawer, noted or not noted Genu varum etc…..please refer to both texts for other areas to be included.

    Cardiovascular example (not all inclusive): physical exam to the thorax, lungs, and vascular system. Many of you will be more comfortable with these areas because you have been wielding a stethoscope for some time.  However, learning things like whispered pectoriloquy and broncophony (not all inclusive items to include) take practice.

    Please ensure to read assigned readings and watch the video for this week. Doing this assignment in such detail will help at Immersion weekend when you have to show knowledge of these assessments and how to perform each test!

    Note about diagnosis/differential diagnoses: the primary diagnosis should be included in the assessment while if there are any other differential diagnoses being considered; students should list them in the treatment plan.

    Dr. Lunsford

     

    Collapse Subdiscussion
    Sarah Gray

    Sarah Gray

    Jul 17, 2017Jul 17 at 3:16pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford and Classmates

    Patient Information:

    JNG,38, Male, Caucasian, United Healthcare

    S.

    CC
     “Headache, back pain and cough”

    HPI
    :

    Headach
    e:

    Onset: 1 week ago

    Location: temporal area

    Duration: on and off

    Characteristics: throbbing and pressure feeling behind eyes

    Aggravating Factors: reading and too much screen time

    Relieving Factors: dark and quit room

    Treatment: ibuprofen

    Back pain
    :

    Onset: 3 weeks ago

    Location: Lumbar area both side of spine

    Duration: present most of the time, worse in the morning

    Characteristics: ache tight feeling, difficult to bend over at times, non-radiating

    Aggravating Factors: sedentary time

    Relieving Factors: going for a walk and stretching

    Treatment: ibuprofen

    Cough:

    Onset: 3 days ago

    Location: chest

    Duration: on and off throughout day

    Characteristics: dry nonproductive, self-limiting

    Aggravating Factors: talking too much

    Reliving Factors: rest and hydration

    Treatment: none

     

    Current Medications
    :

    Nexium 2o mg daily for acid reflux

    Chantix 0.5 mg per day for smoking cessation with 2 weeks left

    Ibuprofen 400 mg every 6 hours as needed for back pain and headache

     

    Allergies:
     no known allergies to food or drugs and no know allergy to a specific environmental allergy.

    PMHx:

    questionable GERD with no official diagnosis

    appendectomy 30 years ago

    wisdom teeth removed approx. 20 years ago

    positive history of chicken pox, no other hospitalizations,

    hepatitis B vaccine up to date, unknown last DTap

    refused flu vaccine

    high school graduate

    every 6 month dental cleanings

    Soc Hx
    :
    JNG is a waiter at a restaurant and a culinary arts student, playing guitar and writing music are JNG hobbies, rescued a puppy one year ago, he is a recovering alcoholic for 4 years and is working toward quitting smoking with Chantix, no other elicit drugs, JNG is married with no children, JNG states dinking an adequate amount of water and eats a healthy diet including fruits and vegetables, JNG used to run 3 miles 4 days a week but is no longer able to. He wears his seatbelt all the time, He lives in an apartment and smoke detectors and co2 detectors are in working order. JNG is red headed, fair complexion and has many freckles and regular use of sunscreen encouraged. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.

    Fam Hx:

     

    paternal grandfather: Barrett’s esophagus, PVD with amputation

     

    Paternal grandmother: passed from unknown cancer

    Maternal grandparents: unknown health history

    Father: no health issues

    Mother: alcoholic, tremors with undiagnosed reason, anxiety

    Brothers: adopted with no health issues

    ROS:

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, sleep disturbances, night sweats, weakness or fatigue.

    HEENT
    :

    Head: 
    no trauma or dizziness, headache present

    Eyes
    :  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclerae glasses present.

    Ears:
     no hearing loss, dizziness, pain or discharge

    Nose:
     present, no drainage,

    Throat
    :  no bleeding gums, voice changes swallowing difficulty, or sore throat, dental appliance present

    SKIN: no rash, many freckles noted

    CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema, dyspnea, orthopnea, syncope or edema, no leg pain or swelling,

    RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath sputum. Nonproductive cough present, quit smoking 3 month ago after 20+ year pack a day,

    GASTROINTESTINAL:  No anorexia, nausea, vomiting, melena or diarrhea, 1 soft BM every day, no jaundice,

    GENITOURINARY:  no burning or frequency with urination, steady easy to start stream

    NEUROLOGICAL:  No dizziness, syncope, paralysis, seizure, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. No difficulty speaking or swallowing

    MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No muscle, joint pain or stiffness, swelling, instability, able to perform ADL’s and work safely, Lumbar region back pain Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety, Positive history of alcoholism

    ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia.

    ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis, worse congestion with outdoor time

    O.

    Physical exam
    :

    Vital sign: BP 120/80, HR 84, RR 20, Temp 98.7 F, o2 sat 98% on RA

    Constitutional: appears well developed, healthy weight, well kempt, alert and oriented x4

    HEENT:

    Head: appropriate size, shape, symmetry, scalp and hair well intact,

     

    Eyes: PERRLA, intact extraocular movement, conjunctiva clear, red light reflex present

    Ears: Bilat tympanic membrane gray, translucent and intact, no tenderness or inflammation, whisper test passed bilat, (wax present R>L)

    Nose: no discharge, olfactory sense intact, (tenderness present over frontal and maxillary sinuses, inflammation noted bilat)

    Throat: no erythema, drainage or abscess present, mucosa moist, gums intact, pharynx midline

    Skin: no lesions, bruises or open areas, (scar to right lower quad of abdomen, rash to upper back)

    Cardiovascular: Heart rate and rhythm regular, no murmur, click, rubS3, S4, or gallop present, no edema, no JVD, no visible pulsations, heave or lift present, Pulses present and palpable 2+, no carotid bruit, apical impulse present at 5th ICS MCL, extremities are warm and pink, no swollen lymph nodes,

    Respiratory: Chest symmetrical, tactile fremitus equal bilaterally, no tenderness, lumps or lesions, resonance noted equally bilaterally, Lung sound clear without wheeze or rales, no SOB,

    Gastrointestinal: abdomen soft and flat, bowel sounds present x 4, no bruit noted, liver span 12 cm, splenic dullness noted, not palpable, no CVA tenderness, no other organomegaly or masses noted

    Genitourinary: No hernia, nodules, rashes, or discharge

    Neurologic:

    Mental status: Alert and oriented X4, answers question appropriately, recent and remote memory intact.

    Cranial nerves:

    I: olfactory nerve intact, able to smell alcohol pad

    II: Vision 20/20 bilaterally, peripheral fields intact by confrontation, optic fundus normal bilaterally

    III, IV, VI: extraocular movement by cardinal positions of gaze intact bilaterally, no ptosis or nystagmus noted, PERRLA with pupil size of 2mm, palpebral fissures equal bilaterally,

    V: Sensation intact bilaterally throughout face and equal jaw strength

    VII: facial muscles intact and symmetric with smiling and puffed check test

    VIII: whispered words heard bilaterally

    IX, X: swallowing intact with positive gag reflex, uvula and soft palate rises midline, voice smooth and unstrained

    XI: shoulder shrug, head movement intact and equal bilaterally,

    XII: tongue midline with no tremors, lingual speech clear

    Motor Function: gait smooth and coordinated, tandem walk completed, negative arm drift with Romberg test, finger to nose and finger to finger smooth with eyes open and closed, no atrophy, weakness or tremors or contractures noted, full ROM of all extremities,

    Sensation: sharp, light and vibration intact to all extremities, Stereognosis: able to identify a safety pin, Kinesthesia intact

    Reflexes: bicep, tricep, brachioradialis, quadricep and Achilles reflex intact 2+, abdominal reflex intact, plantarflexion noted with plantar reflex

    Musculoskeletal: No weakness, instability, gait disturbance, ROM intact and equal, no joint swelling, tenderness or redness, no spinal deviation, movement smooth with no crepitus noted, equal strength to all extremities and able to maintain flexion with resistance

    Lymphatic: no enlarged lymph nodes, lymphedema

    Psychiatric: appears calm and cooperative with exam, asking appropriate questions

    In summary, this patient demonstrated a normal neurological and musculoskeletal exam with no worsening of symptoms. The headache relates mostly with a tension-type headache because there was no nausea, photophobia or phonophobia noted with migraines. Patients complaining of a headache that demonstrate a normal neurologic exam do not require further imaging or laboratory testing. Symptoms to take more seriously regarding a headache would include patient complains of first or worst headache, headache induced by cough or exertion, change in personality, older than fifty or tenderness over temporal artery (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Managing his back would also not include imaging studies at this time but treatment with pharmacotherapy, cognitive behavior therapy, spinal manipulation and/or lifestyle modification should be initiated. NSAIDS and muscle relaxants would be my first choice but if ineffective an opioid would be indicated. I would request a CMP to ensure his kidneys are in good working order with his recent use of ibuprofen and before initiating NAIDS (Herndon, Zoberi, & Gardner, 2015)

     

    References

    Hainer, B. L., & Matheson, E. M. (2013). Approach to acute headache in adults. 
    American Family Physician
    , 
    87
    (10), 682-687.

    Herndon, C. M., Zoberi, K. S., & Gardner, B. J. (2015). Common questions about chronic low back pain. 
    American Family Physician
    , 
    91
    (10), 708-714.

    NR509week3soapnote.docx

     

    Collapse Subdiscussion
    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 8:18pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Sarah,

    What exam findings would you expect to find if this patient presented with pneumonia?

    What are the current treatment guidelines for pneumonia treatment?

    Dr. L

     

    Collapse Subdiscussion
    Sarah Gray

    Sarah Gray

    Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 10:41am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford,

    Symptom of community acquired pneumonia can include cough, dyspnea, pleuritic pain, fever, chills or malaise. Increased need for supplemental oxygen may also be noted and should prompt the provider to admit the patient to the hospital. Chest radiography is still the gold standard for diagnosing pneumonia but lung ultrasonography is better at differentiating between pleural effusions, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism and pulmonary contusion. Assessment finding can also include increased fremitus, uneven chest expansions, dullness on percussion and crackles on auscultation. The most commonly used assessment tool to determine treatment location is the CURB-65, patients with a score of 0-1 can me managed in the outpatient setting. Antibiotic therapy in the outpatient setting can include macrolides and fluoroquinolones if there was antibiotic exposure in the last three months followed by a beta-lactam plus macrolide.  A five-day course is sufficient for a low-severity pneumonia based on the CURB-65 score and 10 days for moderate severity (Kaysin & Viera, 2016).

     

    References

    Kaysin, A., & Viera, A. J. (2016). Community-acquired pneumonia in adults: Diagnosis and management. 
    American Family Physician
    , 
    94
    (9), 698-706.

     

    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:04pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Sarah,

    Really great discussion here, especially about the recommended antibiotic treatment. Keep this handy, because I am confident you will see this in clinicals next semester.

    Dr. L

     

    Lacie Emerine

    Lacie Emerine

    Jul 21, 2017Jul 21 at 9:09am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Great post, Sarah.

    I agree, JNG’s complaint of head pain is most consistent with a tension headache. Tension headaches are the most common type of headache. Triggers for a tension headache include: physical/emotional stress, alcohol, caffeine (too much or withdrawal), minor illnesses, eye strain, dental issues, excessive smoking, and/or fatigue. JNG should be encouraged to avoid headache triggers and take OTC medications such as aspirin, ibuprofen, or acetaminophen. Narcotics and muscle relaxers may also be prescribed if OTC medications were ineffective.  I would be careful with acetaminophen usage with this patient due to his past history of alcoholism since frequent use of acetaminophen can damage the liver. Other non-medical therapies can be used as well, such as: relaxation, stress-management training, massage, biofeedback, and acupuncture (U.S. National Library of Medicine, 2016).

    As JNG’s provider, I would want to investigate into the frequency of this headache. If he is experiencing at least 10 episodes 1-14 days/month on average for > 3 months, then we could further classify these tension headaches as frequent episodic. I would want to follow up to see if the headache was managed effectively with ibuprofen as reported, if not medications could be adjusted. If medications remained ineffective for these headaches, it may be in the best of interest to refer him to a neurologist (Hollier, 2016).

    Hollier, A. (2016). 
    Clinical guidelines in primary care 
    (2nd ed.)
    .
    Advanced Practice Education Associates.

    U.S. National Library of Medicine. (2016). Tension headache. Retrieved from https://medlineplus.gov/ency/article/000797.htm

     

    Collapse Subdiscussion
    Lacie Emerine

    Lacie Emerine

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 8:09am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Patient Information:

                
    M.E., 60-year-old, Caucasian, Male, Medical Mutual

    S.

    Chief Complaint: 
    “I’ve got this cough with back pain and a headache”.

    HPI

                
    Onset: “
    Cough started first about a week ago, then back and head started hurting “a few days later”

                Location: 
    Upper back pain and headache “feels pressure around my nose and eyes”

                Duration: 
    For the last week

                Characteristics: 
    Dry cough, patient reports pain when coughing into his upper back and head throbbing.

               Aggravating Factors: 
    Ambulating, Daily tasks, Coughing

                Relieving Factors: 
    Hot shower, water, and rest

                Treatment: 
    Sudafed OTC with minimal relief

    Current Medications:

    Valsartan 160mg 1 tab PO daily for high blood pressure

    Amlodipine 5mg 1 tab PO daily for high blood pressure

    “Some water pill”, unsure of name or dosage, but takes 1 tab PO daily

    Fish Oil and Vitamin C (daily, unsure dosage)

    Allergies: 
    NKDA or food/environmental allergies

    PMHx: 

    Patient reports history of asthma, joint pain, hypertension. Reports being UTD on all immunizations that he knows of without the annual influenza vaccine. When asked about last tetanus vaccine, patient is unsure. Reports tearing left knee cartilage at age 15. Patient reports basal cell carcinoma removed from nose and left elbow in 2005.

    Soc Hx:

    Patient is a 60-year-old Male who works full-time as an accountant and financial advisor for the last 28 years. Reports working inside in an office locally in his home town. Reports typical work week of 50+ hours. Reports living with his wife of 34 years.  Has a 36-year-old daughter and a 31-year-old son who are both married and living outside of the home with their families. Patient reports drinking beer and liquor socially, but denies current tobacco use. Reports previous smoker of 1-2 PPD for 8 years, but quit when he was 25 years old. He has a 12 pk year (roughly estimated at 1.5 PPD) smoking history. He reports always wearing a seat belt while in an automobile. He reports have working smoke detectors throughout his home along with a carbon monoxide detector.

    Fam Hx:      

    Mother: died at 88 years old, “extreme high blood pressure”, CHF, MI

    Father: unknown, (patient reports father died when he was 3 years old)

    Unsure about grandparent history on either side

    Brother: died at age 70. MI at age 40. Also, HTN, CHF, Agent Orange exposure

    Brother: 75 years old, Type II Diabetic, Polio as a child

    Brother: 65 years old, Type II Diabetic

    Sister: 72 years old, “heart issues”

    ROS:

    CONSTITUTIONAL: No weight loss, fever, chills. Patient reports constant fatigue for as long as he can remember.

    HEENT: Eyes: no visual loss, double vision, or yellow sclera. Patient reports blurry vision and excessive watering for “some time”. Ears, Nose and Throat: No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat.

    SKIN: No rash or itching.

    CARDIOVASCULAR: No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema.

    RESPIRATORY: Patient reports dry cough over the last week. Reports often wheezing with some shortness of breath. No sputum.

    GASTROINTESTINAL: No abdominal pain, nausea, anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, or blood in the stool.

    GENTITOURINARY: No burning, tingling or pain with urination. Patient reports increase in frequency.

    NEUROLOGICAL: Report headache someone in the last week with pressure above eyes and around nose. Denies feeling dizzy, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control.

    MUSCULOSKELETAL: Pt denies any recent injury, but does report generalized muscular aches and pains to all joints. Denies joint stiffness. Reports upper back pain since coughing.

    HEMATOLOGIC: No anemia, bleeding, or bruising.

    LYMPHATICS: No enlarged lymph nodes. No history of splenectomy.

    PSYCHIATRIC: No history of depression or anxiety.

    ENDOCRINOLOGIC: No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia.

    ALLERGIES: History of asthma. No history of hives, eczema, or rhinitis.

    O.

    Vital signs: 
    Temperature 97.4 F, BP 142/83 mm Hg (sitting), Pulse 68 bpm, Resp. 20/min, Height 69 inches (5’9), Weight 330 lbs. (149 kg)

    Physical exam: 

    CARDIOVASCULAR: 
    No cardiomegaly or thrills, regular rate and rhythm, S1 and S2 normal. No murmur or gallop. No JVD present.

    RESPIRATORY: 
    Good expansion without retractions. Non-tender. Clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally. (Expiratory wheezing heard upon auscultation)

    NEURO: 
    Alert and oriented x3. GCS 15. Cranial nerves II-XII intact. Sensation to pain, touch, and proprioception normal. Deep tendon reflexes normal in upper and lower extremities. No pathologic reflexes. The sensory examinations are normal, with pain, light touch, and stereognosis intact. Cerebellar function is normal. Speech is clear. Gait normal.

    MUSCLOSKELETAL: 
    Normal gait and station. Full ROM. No misalignment, asymmetry, crepitation, defects, tenderness, masses, effusions, decreased range of motion, instability, atrophy or abnormal strength or tone in the head, neck, spine, ribs, pelvis or extremities. Good strength bilaterally. No clubbing, cyanosis or edema. Peripheral pulses are intact, sensation intact. (Patient has limited ROM with left ankle and turning his neck to the right side)

    (Swartz, 2014).

    Diagnostic results: 
    N/A

    A.

    N/A

    P.

    N/A

    In summary, this patient presents with a cough that started around 1 week ago with upper back pain and a headache. It seems like these symptoms are all related and the back pain and headache are caused from the coughing, but as an inexperienced provider I feel like more serious conditions need ruled out as well with this visit. According to Maheshwari and Pandey (2012), most headaches are benign in nature, but nearly 10% of all headaches are secondary to an underlying pathologic condition; therefore, I would need to pay close attention to what my patient is telling me and what I am seeing during my head-to-toe assessment. A potential diagnosis could be a primary cough headache, which his bilateral and affects predominantly patients over the age of 40. Primary cough headaches are often seen after a respiratory infection (Maheshwari & Pandey, 2012).

    Even though this patient reported no environmental allergies, with his itchy and watery eyes, another diagnosis could be sinusitis or acute viral rhinopharyngitis (common cold). Regardless, a thorough HEENT exam should be performed. Other things that caught my eye during this encounter was the patient’s BP of 142/83 which I feel is elevated after being on two different antihypertensive medications, this may need to be re-evaluated. The patient also reports going to the bathroom more frequently and always feeling fatigued; I’d like to investigate this further with some lab work such as CBC, BMP, UA, possible chest x-ray and an EKG with his family history.

    Maheshwari, P., & Pandey, A. (2012). Unusual headaches. Annals Of Neurosciences, 19(4), 172-176. doi:10.5214/ans.0972.7531.190409

    Swartz, M. H. (2014). 
    Textbook of physical diagnosis: History and examination 
    (7th ed.). Retrieved from http://bookshelf.vitalsource.com

     

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    Lacie Emerine

    Lacie Emerine

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 8:56am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Further assessment of Cranial Nerves I-XII, which are all intact:

    Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory): patient correctly identified smell of mint with one nostril occluded, vice versa.

    Cranial Nerve II (Optic): 20/30 per Snellen chart, PERRLA

    Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor), Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear), & Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens): Extra Ocular Movements lateral.

    Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal): patient able to close eyes and verbalize equal touch to face. Patient able to bench teeth and move jaw without any issues.

    Cranial Nerve VII (Facial): facial symmetry noted.

    Cranial Nerve VII (Acoustic): Whisper test passed without difficulty.

    Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal), Cranial Nerve X (Vagus), & Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal): Patient able to move tongue freely with uvula midline and symmetrical palate. Patient able to speak clearly and swallow.

    Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory): head movement symmetrical, shoulder shrug intact.

     

    Amanda Russo

    Amanda Russo

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 11:16am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hello Lacie,

    I enjoyed reading your SOAP note! I too decided that the patient was suffering from a sinus related cause due to the headache and cough. I chose acute sinusitis. I also stated a complete HEENT would need to be completed. Acute sinusitis was my choice due to the fact that symptoms include “pressure or fullness around the nose, behind of between your eyes, or in your forehead” (Goodman, 2013, p. 837). Other symptoms can include cough, stuffy nose, decreased sense of smell, and possible nasal drainage. I did, however, add an abdominal assessment as well due to the back pain since abdominal issues tend to radiate to other areas.

    Reference

    Goodman, D., Lynm, C., & Livingston, E. (2013). Adult sinusitis. 
    American Medical Association
    , 
    309
    (8), 837-837.

     

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    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 9:06pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Thanks Lacie,

     

    Please expand on the cardiac and respiratory assessment.

    What would you do to manage the current symptoms?

    Dr. L

     

    Lacie Emerine

    Lacie Emerine

    Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 3:15pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford,

    Thanks for your feedback. I have added to my cardiac and respiratory assessments in 
    italics 
    below. With M.E.’s chief complaints, ROS, and my assessment, I feel M.E. is suffering from sinusitis or the common cold with complaints of a cough. To manage these symptoms, I would encourage M.E. to use an OTC antihistamine for his itchy watery eyes, such as hydroxyzine 25mg 3-4 times a day and possibly a decongestant. An analgesic such as Acetaminophen 325mg every 4-6 hours PRN should alleviate this patient’s headache and back pain caused from coughing. I would be hesitant to suggest a cough suppressant because these types of medications have not been shown to be helpful for most patients. In addition, coughing can be a good response to help clear the bronchi of mucus (De Blasio, Virchow, Polverino, Zanasi, Behrakis, Kilinc, Lanata, 2011). I would also ensure M.E. was practicing proper hand hygiene, gets adequate rest, manages stress appropriately, and humidifies his air (Hollier, 2016).

    CARDIOVASCULAR: 
    No cardiomegaly or thrills, regular rate and rhythm, S1 and S2 normal. No murmur or gallop. No JVD present. 
    Precordium: no abnormal pulsations, no heaves. Apical impulse at 5
    th
     ICS in left MCL, no thrills. S1-S2 are not diminished or accentuated, no S3-S4. Extremities are pink, warm, and dry. No edema present. All pulses 2+ and regular.

    RESPIRATORY: 
    Good expansion without retractions. Non-tender. Clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally. 
    No distress noted. AP < transverse diameter. Chest expansion symmetric. Tactile fremitus equal bilaterally. Lung fields resonant. Diaphragmatic excursion 4cm and equal bilaterally.  (Expiratory wheezing heard upon auscultation) (Jarvis, 2016).   De Blasio, F., Virchow, J. C., Polverino, M., Zanasi, A., Behrakis, P. K., Kilinç, G., … Lanata, L. (2011). Cough management: a practical approach.  Cough (London, England) ,  7 , 7.  http://doi.org/10.1186/1745-9974-7-7Links to an external site. Hollier, A. (2016).  Clinical guidelines in primary care  (2nd ed.) .  Advanced Practice Education Associates. Jarvis, Carolyn. (2016).  Physical examination & health assessment  (7th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier.   Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:05pm Manage Discussion Entry Thanks for adding these Lacie, I had two questions on cranial nerves on my board exams. Very important for advanced assessment. Dr. L   Collapse Subdiscussion Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 21, 2017Jul 21 at 11:15am Manage Discussion Entry Hi Lacie, What physical exam findings would you expect to find with bronchitis and how would you treat this based on current guidelines? Dr. L   Lacie Emerine Lacie Emerine Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:15pm Manage Discussion Entry Dr. Lunsford, Physical examination findings in acute bronchitis vary, but many include: diffuse wheezes with use of accessory muscles, coughing, diffuse diminution of air intake or inspiratory stridor, sustained heave along the left sternal border, clubbing on the digits and peripheral cyanosis, bullous myringitis, and conjunctivitis, adenopathy, and rhinorrhea (American Lung Association, 2017; Fayyaz, 2017). I would treat this patient by mainly managing his/her symptoms. I would encourage the patient to avoid environmental irritants, recommend possible cough suppressants, bronchodilators, NSAIDs, antitussives/expectorants, and/or a mucolytic. According to Fayyaz (2017), in healthy individuals, antibiotics have not shown to be beneficial for treatment in acute bronchitis. Antibiotics may be considered if comorbidities pose a risk of serious complications, aged 65 or older with acute cough who have been hospitalized in the past year (have diabetes or CHF or are receiving steroids), and/or acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (Fayyaz, 2017). American Lung Association. (2017). Acute bronchitis. Retrieved from  http://www.lung.org/lung-health-and-diseases/lung-disease-lookup/acute-bronchitis/managing-and-preventing-acute-bronchitis.htmlLinks to an external site. Fayyaz, J. (2017). Bronchitis. Retrieved from http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/297108-overview   Collapse Subdiscussion Amanda Russo Amanda Russo Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 10:58am Manage Discussion Entry B.W., 54, M, Caucasian, Medical Mutual S. CC:  Headache, back pain, and cough HPI: Onset: 3 days ago Location: Headache in the front of the head, lower back pain, and cough Duration: Headache for 2 days, back pain for 3 days, and cough for 2 days Characteristics: Tightness and pressure in the head, dull and achy back pain which is constant and non-productive cough which is intermittent Aggravating Factors: Bright lights and movement for the headache, movement and lifting for the back pain, morning and night for cough Relieving Factors: Dark rooms, Excedrin, rest, and cough suppressants Treatment: Excedrin 2 tablets every 6 hrs PRN, Ibuprofen 400 mg PRN, and Halls cough drops PRN Current Medications: Excedrin 2 tablets every 6 hrs PRN for headache Ibuprofen 400 mg every 4-6 hours PRN for back pain Xanax 0.25 mg daily PRN for anxiety Halls cough suppressants PRN Allergies:  NKA PMHx:  Hyperlipidemia and anxiety No hospitalizations or surgeries Seasonal flu vaccine 10-21-2016 Last tetanus vaccine 7-13-2011 Soc Hx: Manager at a production factory for construction equipment Enjoys riding his motorcycle, cooking, and trying new restaurants Married with 2 grown children who do not live at home Denies the use of tobacco and drugs, and socially uses alcohol once to twice a week consuming 2-6 beers total High school education Heterosexual Fam Hx:     Mother-HTN, breast CA Father-Hyperlipidemia, MI, HTN Brother- Anxiety and hyperlipidemia Paternal grandmother deceased from “old age” Paternal grandfather deceased from MI Maternal grandmother deceased from PN Maternal grandfather deceased from alcoholic cirrhosis ROS: CONSTITUTIONAL: No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue. HEENT: No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclera. Ears, Nose, Throat: No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose, or sore throat. SKIN: No rash or itching. CARDIOVASCULAR: No chest pain, chest pressure, or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema. RESPIRATORY: Positive for non-productive cough. No shortness of breath or sputum production. GASTROINTESTINAL: No anorexia, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood. GENITOURINAY: No burning on urination. NEUROLOGICAL: Positive for headache. No dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. MUSCULOSKELETAL: Positive for back pain. No muscle, joint pain or stiffness. HEMATOLOGIC: No anemia, bleeding, or bruising. LYMPHATICS: No enlarged lymph nodes. No history of splenectomy. PSYCHIATRIC: Anxiety. No history of depression. ENDOCRINOLOGIC: No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES: No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis. O. HEENT: Head: Normocephalic and symmetric. Facial features are symmetric. No enlarged lymph nodes or thyroid gland. Eyes: 14/14 bilateral eyes using Jaegar chart with glasses on. EOMs intact. Corneal light reflex symmetric bilaterally. PERRLA. No discharge. Ears: Symmetric bilaterally. External canals are clear with no redness or discharge. TMs are pearly gray with light reflex.  No pain with palpation. Nose: Symmetric. Nares patent. Mucosa pink with no discharge or lesions. No septal deviation or perforation. No tenderness to sinuses with palpation. Throat: Tonsils 2+. No exudate. Pharyngeal wall pink. Mouth: Mucosa and gingivae pink, no lesions. SKIN: Color pink with even pigmentation. Warm to touch, dry, smooth, and even. Turgor good, with no lesions. NEUROVASCULAR: Mental status: Appearance, behavior, and speech appropriate; alert and oriented to person, place, and time; recent and remote memory intact. Cranial nerves: I: Olfactory-Correctly identified alcohol with both nares II: Optic- Vision 14/14 left eye, 14/14 right eye with glasses; peripheral fields intact by confrontation; fundi normal. III ( Oculomotor), IV (Trochlear), & VI (Abducens) – EOMs intact, no ptosis or nystagmus; pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodation (PERRLA). V: Trigeminal- Sensation intact and equal bilaterally; jaw strength equal bilaterally. VII: Facial- Facial muscles intact and symmetric. VIII: Acoustic-Whispered words heard bilaterally. IX (Glossopharyngeal), X (Vagus), & XII (Hypoglossal) – Swallowing intact, gag reflex present, uvula rises in midline on phonation, tongue protrudes midline, no tremors. XII (Spinal) – Shoulder shrug, head movement intact and equal bilaterally. Motor: No atrophy, weakness, or tremors. Rapid alternating movements—finger-to-nose smoothly intact. Gait smooth and coordinated, able to tandem walk, negative Romberg. Sensory: Pinprick, light touch, vibration intact. Stereognosis—able to identify key. Reflexes: Normal abdominal, no Babinski sign, DTRs 2+ and = bilaterally with downgoing toes. CARDIOVASCULAR: Neck: Carotids’ upstrokes are brisk and equal bilaterally. No bruit. Precordium: Symmetrical with no pulsations, heave, or lift. Palpation: Apical impulse in 5 th  ICS at left midclavicular line, no thrill. Auscultation: Rate 79 bpm, regular rhythm, S1S2 are crisp with no S3 or S4 or extra sounds, no murmur. Peripheral vasculature: Extremities are pink without redness or cyanosis. Extremities are symmetric without swelling or atrophy. Warm to touch and equal bilaterally. All pulses present, 2+, and equal bilaterally. No lymphadenopathy. RESPIRATORY: Inspection: AP > transverse diameter. Resp 15/min, relaxed, and even.

    Palpation: Chest expansion symmetric. Tactile fremitus equal bilaterally. No tenderness. No lumps or lesions.

    Percussion: Resonant to percussion over lung fields. Diaphragmatic excursion equal bilaterally.

    Auscultation: Vesicular breath sounds clear over lung fields and equal bilaterally. No adventitious sounds.

    MUSCULOSKELETAL: Joints and muscles symmetric; no swelling, masses, deformity; normal spinal curvature. No tenderness to palpation of joints; no heat, swelling, or masses. Full ROM; movement smooth, no crepitus, no tenderness. Muscle strength—able to maintain flexion against resistance and without tenderness, 5/5.

    GASTROINTESTINAL: Abdomen soft, round, and non-distended. Symmetric bilaterally. Bowel sounds present, no bruits. Tympany in all 4 quadrants. No organomegaly, no masses, and no tenderness.

    B.W. is suffering from headache, back pain, and cough. The headache and cough could be due acute sinusitis. The back pain could be due to a pulled muscle from lifting materials at work. Acute sinusitis occurs when the mucous membranes in the cavities become inflamed or swollen. This can be due to virus, allergy, or any other reason the drainage pathway is blocked. A person with acute sinusitis may suffer from “pressure or fullness around the nose, behind of between your eyes, or in your forehead” (Goodman, 2013, p. 837). They may also suffer from a cough, stuffy nose, decreased sense of smell, and possible nasal drainage.

    B.W. would have a complete HEENT assessment and an abdominal assessment due to the back pain. Abdominal pain can radiate to several placed on the body. If the abdominal assessment were negative, then this writer would suggest a possible PT referral if the back pain continued. If the abdominal assessment were positive for tenderness or a mass, this writer would suggest imaging such as a KUB or CT. B.W. should continue to rest and drink plenty of fluids. He should continue to take his OTC Excedrin, Ibuprofen,  and Halls as needed. He could also try using a saline nasal spray if he has any nasal congestion. He would require other interventions if his abdominal assessment and test were positive.

    Reference

    Goodman, D., Lynm, C., & Livingston, E. (2013). Adult sinusitis. 
    American Medical Association
    , 
    309
    (8), 837-837.

     

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    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 9:15pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Amanda. Thanks for the post. What would be your top three differentials if you found RLQ tenderness on your exam?

    Dr. L

     

    Amanda Russo

    Amanda Russo

    Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 1:28pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hello Dr. L.,

    The top three differentials for RLQ tenderness would be appendicitis, bowel obstruction, and Crohn’s. Appendicitis is a common abdominal surgical emergency.  It is “inflammation of the vermiform appendix that may lead to an abscess, ileus, peritonitis, or death if untreated” (D’Souza & Nugent, 2016, p. 142). RLQ pain is a common symptom of appendicitis. Colicky abdominal pain is common with bowel obstruction (Jackson & Raiji, 2011). Crohn’s disease is also a common painful inflammatory disease which causes abdominal pain. It would be important to assess the characteristics of the pain. How does the pain feel? Does it hurt only with palpation? Does it hurt anywhere else? B.W. would require a KUB or CT of the abdomen to further investigate this RLQ pain.

    References

    D’Souza, N., & Nugent, K. (2016). Appendicitis. 
    American Family Physician
    , 
    93
    (2), 142-143.

    Jackson, P., & Raiji, M. (2011). Evaluation and management of intestinal obstruction. 
    American Family Physician
    , 
    82
    (2), 159-165.

     

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    Christine Wood

    Christine Wood

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 1:20pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford and Class,

    Week 3 SOAP Note

     

    Patient Information:

    , 38, Female, Caucasian, BCBS-IL

    S.

    CC
     (chief complaint) 
    “headache, back pain, and cough”

    HPI
    :   
    Onset: “three days ago”

    Location: frontal headache, mid-to-low back pain, productive cough.

    Duration: three days

    Characteristics: throbbing frontal headache, back pain which increases with cough, and cough with white-to-yellow sputum.

    Aggravating Factors: headache and back pain increase with cough

    Relieving Factors: Hot showers lessen headache and cough, OTC acetaminophen relieves headache and back pain

    Treatment: OTC acetaminophen, rest, hot showers

    Current Medications
    : 
    acetaminophen, 650 mg, q6h; metoprolol tartrate, 50 mg., BID, St. John’s Wort, 900 mg., BID

    Allergies: 
    NKDA

    PMHx
    : Vaccinations: Influenza 2016, Tetanus 2014; hypertension, appendectomy 1990
     
    Soc Hx
    :
    Administrative Assistant, divorced, no children, drinks alcohol socially, non-smoker, denies past or current illicit drug use, sleeps 9 hours per night, wears seat belt at all times, working smoke detectors present in home.

    Fam Hx
    : 
    Paternal Grandfather (deceased, cardiac arrest): HTN; Paternal Grandmother (deceased): diabetes; Maternal Grandfather (deceased, cardiac arrest): HTN, COPD, CHF; Maternal Grandmother (alive): hypercholesterolemia; Father (alive): HTN, pre-diabetes; Mother (alive): HTN

    ROS
    :

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue.

    HEENT:  Eyes:  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclerae. Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat. (“I have a bad headache if I don’t take Tylenol at least every 6 hours and my nose has been running some.”)

    SKIN:  No rash or itching.

    CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema.

    RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath, cough or sputum. (“I have been coughing for the past three days. Sometimes there is a whitish or yellowish spit.”)

    GASTROINTESTINAL:  No anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood.

    GENITOURINARY:  No frequency or burning on urination. No pregnancies. Last menstrual period, 07/05/17.

    NEUROLOGICAL:  No headache, dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. (“I have a bad headache if I don’t take Tylenol at least every 6 hours.”)

    MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No muscle, back pain, joint pain or stiffness. (“My back hurts, halfway down and my lower back, mostly when I cough.”)

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety. (History of depression. “I take St. John’s Wort and it helps.”)

    ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia.

    ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis.

    O.

    Physical exam
    :

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  Ill-appearing female of childbearing age who denies weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue.

    HEENT:

    Head: Normocephalic, no lesions, liumps, scaling, parasites, or tenderness. Face symmetric , no weakness, no involuntary movements. (Tenderness on palpation of frontal and maxillary sinuses. Rhinorrhea present.)

    Eyes: Visual acuity intact, EOMs intact, no nystagmus. No ptosis, lid lag, discharge, or crusting. Corneal light reflex symmetric, no strabismus. Conjuctivae clear. Sclera white; no leasions or redness. Pupils 3 mm resting, 2 mm constricted and equal, bilaterally. PERRLA.

    Ears: No mass, lesions, scaling, discharge, or tenderness to palpation of pinna. Canals clear. Tympanic membrane pearly gray, landmarks intact, no performation. Whispered words heard bilaterally.

    Nose: No deformities or tenderness to palpation. Nares patent. Mucosa pink; no lesions. Septum midline; no performation. (Rhinorrhea present.)

    Mouth: Mucosa and ginivae pink; no lesions or bleeding. Dentition in good repair. Gingivae pink without edema, erythema, or lesions noted. Tongue symmetric, protrudes midline, no tremor. Pharynx pink; no exudate. Uvula rises midline on phonation. Tonsils 1+. Gag reflex present.

    Neck: Supple with full ROM. Symmetric; no massess, tenderness, lymphadenopathy. Trachea midline. Thyroid nonpalpable, non-tender.   Jugular veins flat at 45 degrees. Carotid arteries 2+ and equal bilaterally; no bruits.

    SKIN: Uniformly tan-pink in color, warm dry, intact; turgor good. No lesions, birthmarks, edema. Nail beds pink with good capillary refill.

    CARDIOVASCULAR:  No thrills, murmurs, clicks, or gallops heard. No abnormal pulsations, lifts, or heaves noted. No JVD. All pulses 2+ and equal in all extremities. No bruits.

    RESPIRATORY:  Respirations unlabored, even, and without distress. Vesicular breath sounds heard throughout without adventitious sounds noted. Chest expansion symmetric. (Productive cough exacerbated with deep breathing during exam.)

    GASTROINTESTINAL: Flat, symmetric. Skin smooth with no lesions, scars, or striae. Bowel sounds present, no bruits. Tympany in all four quadrants. Abdomen soft; no organomegaly; no massess or tenderness; no inguinal lymphadenopathy.

    GENITOURINARY:  External genitalia without lesions. Introitus normal, vaginal walls pink and moist without lesions or evidence of trauma. There is no cervical motion tenderness and the adnexa are without masses. There is no abnormal discharge from the cervix.

    NEUROLOGICAL:  Alert and oriented to person, place, and time. No mental status deficits noted. Cranial nerves intact. Babinski negative. Romberg negative. No motor deficits noted. No atrophy, weakness, or tremors.

    MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Normal gait. Joints with full ROM without pain, without deformities. Spine with full ROM and curvature normal. No paravertebral tenderness. Able to mantain flexion against resistance without tenderness.

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No bleeding or bruising noted.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  Normal mood and affect. Intact judgment and insight.

    Diagnostic results
    : 
    Tests performed at today’s visit will include a CBC to rule out infectious process.

    A.

    Utilizing the data received in the subjective and objective portions of this assessment, and the patient’s stated complaints, I would consider the following differential diagnoses: sinusitis, upper respiratory infection (viral vs. bacterial), and lumbar strain.

    P.

    My plan is to educate this patient regarding acetaminophen dosing. While she reports that she is staying within the guideline of no more than 4 grams of acetaminophen in a 24-hour period, she did make a statement during the review of systems indicating her headache is controlled if she takes it “at least every 6 hours”. I would encourage her to continue using acetaminophen to relieve the headache and back pain. I would also suggest that she try adding and OTC decongestant to help relieve the headache, rhinorrhea, and productive cough. In this regard, education would also include the necessity of reading a list of ingredients on all OTC medications, to ensure that the patient is not taking a combination decongestant/pain reliever that might also contain acetaminophen along with her current dose of acetaminophen.

    Because this patient has reported the use of St. John’s Wort for treatment of depression, I would also consider offering some homeopathic suggestions to this patient. Lambeau (2016) suggests “camphor, eucalyptus, and menthol also provide symptomatic relief of nasal congestion and cough when applied to the chest or neck” (p. 95). Lambeau (2016) also states that zinc may reduce the duration of an upper respiratory infection, while honey can be used to relieve a cough (p. 95).

    As mentioned earlier, I would order a CBC for this patient. The CBC would advise me of any infectious process. I would decline to prescribe antibiotics for this patient at this time.

    References

    Lambeau, K., (2016). Cold and cough symptom relief. 
    The clinical advisor: For nurse practitioners, 19
    (1), 94-96.

     

    Wood.week3.SOAP.docx

     

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    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 9:17pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Christine,

    Thanks for the post. What exam findings would you expect with a COPD exacerbation?

    Dr. L

     

    Christine Wood

    Christine Wood

    Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 7:01am

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford,

    I would expect to find dyspnea (at rest or on exertion) and possibly wheezing on auscultation of the lungs, which may also increase on exertion.  Other findings may include pursed-lip breathing and the tripod position.

    Rene

     

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    Christine Wood

    Christine Wood

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 12:33pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford,

    As stated in my initial response, I would expect to find dyspnea and, most likely, wheezing in an exacerbation of COPD. Miravitlles, Anzueto, and Jardim (2017) include cough, wheezing, dypsnea, sputum production, or chest discomfort/tightness as possible symptoms of an exacerbation of COPD (pp. 4-5).  According to the same study, “in many cases, exacerbations are triggered by respiratory tract infections (predominantly viral, but also bacterial) and environmental factors such as air pollution” (p. 1).  Should I suspect a COPD exacerbation in my patient, it would serve the patient well for me to not only treat the exacerbation, but also to interview the patient further, in an attempt to determine a probable cause for the exacerbation.

    Rene

    Miravetlles, M., Anzueto, A., & Jardim, J. R. (2017). Optimizing bronchodilation in the prevention of COPD exacerbations. 
    Respiratory Research, 181
    (24). doi:10.1186/s12931-017-0601-2

    Week3.Dr.Response.docx

     

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    Jessica Hopkins

    Jessica Hopkins

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 7:03pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dear Christine and Dr. Lunsford;

    I absolutely agree with you that you would treat the exacerbation as well as doing a thorough history and physical assessment to determine underlying factors of the potential causes of the exacerbation, some lifestyle changes that may be needed to minimize these risks, and also to build a relationship to gain further knowledge of potential deficits of their care that could potentially be avoided.

    According to Galloway (2016), we as practitioners need to be screening for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a much earlier stage in the potential disease process, especially those who have underlying risk factors for it such as chronic lungs problems like asthma, chronic bronchitis, smokers, and those who are over 35 and suffer from frequent breathlessness, frequent episodes of cold or bronchitis, regular sputum production, and wheezing. Studies have been conducted showing proof that approximately 85% of those who get diagnosed with COPD had presented to their pcp for such symptoms as mentioned above often within the 5 years before an actual diagnosis of COPD was made (Galloway, 2016).

    Some of the main risk factors of being diagnosed with COPD are smoking, chemical exposures while at work, and infections such as pneumonia and influenza (Galloway, 2016). As practitioners, a great method of prevention of these illnesses that we could offer and strongly suggest would be to receive a yearly influenza vaccine and pneumonia vaccine. Another way we can help our patients is by offering resources and possibly medication interventions in smoking cessation especially those who do suffer from frequent sicknesses and are diagnosed with COPD and continue to smoke. Smoking not only poses a serious risk for a worsening disease process, but also is very dangerous and poses a major safety risk especially those who are oxygen dependent at home. Education and knowledge is key and we as providers mustn’t assume that our patients able to be a part of their ultimate treatment plans.

    Jessica

    Reference:

    Galloway, M. (2016). Minimising exacerbations in early COPD. 
    Practice Nurse
    , 
    46
    (10), 32-36.

     

    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:10pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Jessica,

    Excellent point here about screening. I am VERY passionate about this because of my current practice in the palliative care setting. About 50-60% of all end stage patients I am caring for have COPD. It is really interesting to sit down with them and get that thorough history. Really great job here.

    Also, for the entire class I would ask that you start familiarizing yourself with the COPD Gold Guidelines. This is essential for management of COPD.

    I have attached the most recent guidelines for you to download.

    Dr. L

    wms-GOLD-2017-Pocket-Guide.pdf

     

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    Elizabeth Booth

    Elizabeth Booth

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 2:47pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    SOAP Note Format

     

    Patient Information:

    ASB, 34 year old, Male, Caucasian, Self-pay (no insurance)

    S.

    CC
     (chief complaint): headache, back pain, and cough

    HPI
    :

    Onset: 
    cough and back pain began 3 months ago, headache and back pain for 2 days after riding a horse that tried to “buck” him off

    Location: 
    bilateral pain to forehead, lower back pain above buttocks

    Duration: 
    headache and back pain continuous for past 2 days

    Characteristics: 
    dull, aching pain with pressure to forehead, mild severity headache, dry cough without pain, back pain mild severity but is sore and “feels tight”

    Aggravating Factors: 
    working outside in the heat makes the headache worse, moderate exercise and going from lying to sitting position makes back pain worse, cough gets worse after eating

    Relieving Factors: 
    closing eyes and rest makes headache go away, lying flat on his back decreases back pain, cough decreases with bland meals

    Treatment: 
    Motrin 400 mg by mouth every 4 hours taken for headache and back pain, no treatment for cough

    Current Medications
    : Motrin 400 mg PO every 4-6 hours for headache and back pain

    Allergies: 
    No known drug, environmental, or food allergies
    .

    PMHx
    : Immunizations up to date. Tetanus vaccine 2016. Influenza vaccine 2016. No major surgeries. No medical problems. 
    Soc Hx
    : Works as a self-employed horse trainer. Hobbies include hiking and boating. Pt lives with his parents in a ranch-style home. No children. Denies alcohol, tobacco, and drug use. Pt does not wear a helmet when horse-back riding.

    Fam Hx
    :

    Maternal grandmother- 
    arthritis, hypertension, depression

    Maternal grandfather- 
    hypertension, gastroesophageal reflux disease, spontaneous pneumothorax

    Paternal grandmother-
     unknown

    Paternal grandfather- 
    unknown

    Mother- 
    anxiety, depression

    Father- 
    unknown

    ROS
    :

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue.

    HEENT:  Eyes:  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclera. Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, runny nose or sore throat.

    SKIN:  No rash or itching.

    CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema.

    RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath. + dry, non-productive cough

    GASTROINTESTINAL:  No abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea.

    GENITOURINARY:  No burning with urination.

    NEUROLOGICAL:  No dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. +headache to bilateral forehead.

    MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No joint pain or stiffness. + lower back pain

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety.

    ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia.

    ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis.

    O.

    Physical exam
    :

    VITAL SIGNS: BP 112/62, T: 97.8, HR: 68, RR:16, WT 172, HT 5’11”

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  Well appearing, well nourished, in no distress. Oriented x 3, normal mood and affect. Ambulating without difficulty.

    HEENT:

    Head
    : Normocephalic, atraumatic, no visible or palpable masses, depressions, or scaring. Facial features symmetrical and overall unremarkable. No weakness noted. Hair distribution, texture, and quantity overall unremarkable.

    Eyes
    : Visual acuity intact, conjunctiva pink and without excess vascularity. No discharge, excessive tearing, or photophobia. Sclera white, EOM intact, PERRL 4mm, fundi have normal optic discs and vessels. No exudates or hemorrhages.

    Ears
    : External auditory canals clear, TMs translucent and mobile, ossicles normal appearance, hearing intact. No lesions noted to external structures. No tenderness on retraction of pinnae or pressure to tragus. Forced whisper perceived accurately at 5 feet. Weber: midline-no lateralization. Rhinne test: AC > BC.

    Nose
    : No external lesions, mucosa non-inflamed, septum and turbinates normal. Symmetrical without evidence of septal deviation or trauma. Nares patent and turbines intact. Mucosa is pink and without evidence of discharge, exudates, swelling, or congestion. No parasinus tenderness. Sinuses transluminate equally bilaterally.

    Mouth
    : Mucosa pink and moist without lesions to the buccal cavity. Dentition in good repair. Gingivae pink without edema, erythema, or lesions noted. Tongue is midline without fasciculation. No coating or lesion noted. No odor present.

    Throat
    :  Oropharynx without erythema, exudates or increased lymphoid tissue noted. Tonsils are present and otherwise unremarkable. Uvula is midline and rises symmetrically. Gag reflex intact. Phonation without hoarseness and otherwise unremarkable.

    Neck
    : Supple with full range of motion. Symmetrical. Trachea midline. Thyroid is not enlarged and is without nodularity. No cervical spine tenderness.

    SKIN:  No rash. Good turgor. Overall fair without unusual bruising or prominent lesions. Nail beds pink with good capillary refill. Skin warm and dry to touch.

    CARDIOVASCULAR: No thrills, murmurs, clicks or gallops heard. No abnormal pulsations, lifts, or heaves noted. No JVD. All pulses 2+ and equal bilaterally in upper and lower extremities. No bruits heard.

    RESPIRATORY: Respirations unlabored and even without distress. Vesicular breath sounds heard throughout without adventitious sounds noted. No egophony, whispered pectoriloguy, or bronchophony is noted.

    GASTROINTESTINAL:  Unremarkable to inspection with normoactive bowel sounds heard in all 4 quadrants. Tympanic percussion noted throughout. No tenderness to palpation. Abdomen is without organomegaly or abdominal masses. No lateral pulsation to aortic region. No CVA tenderness. Negative for Blumberg’s sign, Illiopsoas sign, Murphy’s sign, and Rovsing’s sign.

    GENITOURINARY:   Exam deferred.

    NEUROLOGICAL:  Alert and oriented x 3. No mental status deficits noted. Babinski negative. Romberg negative. No motor deficits noted. Cranial nerves intact. 
    Olfactory
    -Pt able to identify different smell with each nostril separately. 
    Optic
    -Pt able to read with each eye and both eyes. 
    Oculomotor
    -PERRLA. 
    Trochlear
    – Both eyes are able to move as necessary. 
    Trigeminal
    – +corneal reflexes, sensitive to pain stimuli and distinguish hot from cold. 
    Abducens
    – both eyes move in coordination. 
    Facial
    – Pt able to make various facial expressions without difficulty and able to distinguish between different tastes. 
    Vestibuloccochlear
    – Pt able to hear equally in both ears. Pt able to ambulate in an upright position without losing balance. 
    Glossopharyngeal
    – + gag reflex and able to swallow without difficulty. 
    Vagus
    – able to swallow without difficulty. Speech is audible. 
    Accessory
    – able to shrug shoulders and turn his head from one side to the other without difficulty or pain. 
    Hypoglossal
    – able to move tongue in different directions.

    MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Normal gait. Muscle strength 5/5 to all groups. Joints with full range of motion to all planes and without deformities. Spine with full range of motion and curvature normal. No paravertebral tenderness.

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No bleeding or bruising noted.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  Normal mood and affect. Intact judgment and insight.

    Diagnostic results
    : 
    No past or recent test results available.

    In this case scenario, my primary intervention would be to complete a comprehensive neurological exam in order to rule out a mild traumatic brain injury (TBI), otherwise known as a concussion. This patient is complaining of back pain and a headache after riding a bucking horse two days ago. Since a direct impact is not required to cause a TBI, I would still need to rule out an injury to the head that could have been caused by rotational forces being applied to the brain, related to the back and forth motions that were created when the horse attempted to buck the patient off of him. Based on his negative neurological findings, neuroimaging at this time is not warranted but, rather, the patient should be given verbal and written instructions on when to seek further medical care. I would recommend that the patient be monitored at home by a responsible caregiver who also would have the ability to seek medical care for my patient if he starts to show symptoms of a concussion, which could include, but is not limited to, personality changes, confusion, delayed verbal responses, loss of consciousness, increased sleep, blurred vision, dizziness, nausea, and vomiting. My treatment plan would include advising physical rest and Tylenol. I would advise him to discontinue his usage of Motrin to treat his headache and back pain since it could cause further bleeding if he were to develop intracranial bleeding (Scorza, Raleigh, & O’Connor, 2012). I would also take this opportunity to provide education on the importance of wearing a United States Equestrian Federation approved helmet while participating in any equestrian activities, not just riding, to decrease the risk of injury (Lemoine, Tate, & Lacombe, 2017).

    Regarding my patient’s complaint of low back pain, my ability to obtain an accurate history and physical exam, especially of the lumbosacral and abdominal region, is paramount in differentiating serious exam findings from benign. This patient has a normal neurologic examination of the lower extremities that assesses strength, sensation, and reflexes so my treatment for nonspecific acute low back pain would be advising the patient to take Tylenol for pain. Since I am also concerned about a possible TBI, I would also advise the patient to stay passively active without aggravating his headache and low back pain, while still avoiding complete bed rest (Casazza, 2012).

    Lastly, based on his description of a dry, non-productive cough that is worse after eating, I would diagnose him with gastroesophageal reflux (GERD), where a chronic cough lasting over eight weeks long is indicative of this disease. Treatment would include prescribing him a prokinetic agent like metoclopramide (Reglan), as well as an acid suppressant with a proton pump inhibitor like esomeprazole (Nexium). Patient follow-up will be necessary to ensure that the patient continues to recover without further issues (Mahashur, 2015).

    Elizabeth

    References

    Casazza, B. (2012). Diagnosis and treatment of acute low back pain. 
    American Family Physician, 85
    (4), 343-350. Retrieved from http://www.aafp.org/afp/2012/0215/p343.html

    Lemoine, D., Tate, B., & Lacombe, J. (2017). A retrospective cohort study of traumatic brain injury and usage of protective headgear during equestrian activities. 
    Journal of Trauma Nursing, 24
    (4), 251-257. doi:10.1097/JTN.0000000000000300

    Mahashur, A. (2015). Chronic dry cough: Diagnostic and management approaches. 
    Lung India, 32
    (1), 44-49. doi:10.4103/0970-2113.148450

    Scorza, K., Raleigh, M., & O’Connor, F. (2012). Current concepts in concussion: Evaluation and management. 
    American Family Physician, 85
    (2), 123-132. Retrieved from 
    http://www.aafp.org/afp/2012/0115/p123.htmlLinks to an external site.

     

     

    NR509_Week 3_SOAP note.docx

     

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    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 7:28pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Elizabeth,

    Thanks for the post! What assessment findings would you expect to find with systolic vs. diastolic heart failure?

    Dr. L

     

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    Elizabeth Booth

    Elizabeth Booth

    Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 6:39pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Dr. Lunsford,

    In general terms, diastolic heart failure (left heart failure with preserved ejection fraction) occurs when the heart loses the ability, due to its’ thick and stiff heart muscle, to contract enough to propel blood flow forward, which causes problems with contraction and ejection of blood. Medical conditions such as aortic stenosis, hypertension, mitral regurgitation, and ischemia can cause the heart muscle to become thin and weak. In contrast, systolic heart failure (left heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) occurs when the heart contracts normally but the ventricles are unable to adequately relax and fill with enough blood, due to a thin and weak heart muscle, and less oxygen rich blood is pumped out into the body. This can be caused by mitral stenosis, tamponade, and hypertrophy (Komamura, 2013).

    Assessment findings, such as edema, pulmonary rales, and jugular venous distention, are similar in both systolic and diastolic heart failure. However, the presence of a third heart sound (ventricular gallop) and displaced cardiac apex (the apex beat should normally be palpable at the fifth intercostal space and half an inch medial to the left midclavicular line) is usually indicative of systolic heart failure (King, Kingery, & Casey, 2012). How the patient responds to exercise can also indicate whether the patient is experiencing systolic versus diastolic heart failure. In diastolic heart failure, the thick and stiff heart muscle requires more pressure be placed in the left ventricle, in order to maintain cardiac output during exertion. However, the increased pressure can cause stiff lungs or permit fluid to be transported into the alveoli leading to breathlessness. On the other hand, in systolic function, the patient is more likely to report fatigue during exercise. This occurs when the thin and weak heart is unable to adequately increase the stroke volume in response to exercise. Without adequate cardiac output, the muscles used during exercise are unable to be perfused and sends signals to the brain, which the patient interprets as fatigue (Lopez et al., 2012). Echocardiography, however, remains the most widely acceptable method for diagnosing systolic or diastolic heart failure by assessing left ventricular ejection fracture, left ventricular size, wall thickness, valve function, and the pericardium (King et al., 2012).

    Elizabeth

    References

    Lopez, P., Vazquez, J., Campos, A., Bueno, L., Torres, J., & Beiras, A. (2012). The causes, consequences, and treatment of left or right heart failure. 
    Vascular Health and Risk Management, 7
    , 237-254. doi:10.2147/VHRM.S10669

    King, M., Kingery, J., & Casey, B. (2012). Diagnosis and evaluation of heart failure. 
    American Family Physician, 85
    (12), 1161-1168. Retrieved from http://www.aafp.org/afp/2012/0615/p1161.html

    Komamura, K. (2013). Similarities and differences between the pathogenesis and pathophysiology of diastolic and systolic heart failure. 
    Cardiology and Research, 2013
    , 1-6. doi:10.1155/2013/824135

    NR509_Week 3_instructor response.docx

     

    Tiffany Lunsford

    Tiffany Lunsford 

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:13pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Great job Elizabeth! To prepare for clinicals (which you will definitely see heart failure in your primary care rotations), start familiarizing yourself with the common diuretics and the mechanism of action, class, etc. Some of these include:

    Lasix

    Bumex

    Torsemide (not as widely used)

    Bumex

    Aldactone

    Zaroxolyn

     

    Dr. L

     

    Christine Corbeil

    Christine Corbeil

    Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 4:08pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    Hi Elizabeth,

    Great post!  I’ve never really associated coughing with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).  Rai (2013) documents a large majority of patients with GERD related cough do not have the symptoms of heartburn or acid indigestion.  Other symptoms when stomach acid reaches the larynx or pharynx is hoarseness, throat clearing, and vocal cord issues (Rai, 2013).  Rai (2013) also documents the cough worsens with supine positioning, and epigastric tenderness may be found on examination.  Gladu and Hawkins (2012) recommend treatment with a proton pump inhibitor as you mentioned with esomeprazole with reassessment in 2 weeks for cough elimination.

    Thank you,

    Christine

    Gladu, R., & Hawkins, C.  (2012).  Combatting the cough that won’t quit.  
    The Journal of Family Practice, 61
    (2), 88-93.

    Rai, S.  (2013).  Chronic cough.  
    Journal of the Association of Physicians of India, 61
    , 28-30.

     

     

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    Jade Balow

    Jade Balow

    Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 3:35pm

    Manage Discussion Entry

    SOAP Note Format

    Patient Information:

    S.B., 20, F, Caucasian, BlueCross/BlueShield

    S.

    CC
    : Patient presents to the clinic with complaints of 
    headache, back pain, and cough

    HPI
    :

    Onset: Headache 10 days ago, back pain 1 day ago and cough 4 days ago.

    Location: Headache present in the frontal lobes, back pain located in the mid to low back region.

    Duration: Headache over the past 10 days with no relief. Back pain began 1 day ago and is intermittently present; cough has been progressive over last 4 days.

    Characteristics: Associated with feeling tired, nausea, sensitivity to light and activity.

    Aggravating Factors: Bright lit areas, and getting up and down increases back pain.

    Relieving Factors: Rest and low lit rooms.

    Treatment: Has been taking OTC medication for headache, back pain and cough

    Current Medications:

    -OTC Midol complete (acetaminophen/caffeine/pyrilamine) PO q6H PRN for menstrual cramping and the headache for the past 4 days.

    -Methocarbamol 750 mg tablet PO BID (this was prescribed to her by her dentist for her Jaw pain and tightness 6 months ago.

    -OTC Robitussin extended release PO 10 ml oral solution every 12 hours for cough for the past 24 hours.

    Allergies: 
    No known drug or food allergies.

    PMHx
    :
     Immunizations all up to date. Last tetanus shot 6/12/13. No other health history noted.

    Soc Hx
    :
     Patient is going to nursing school and working a night shift job as a nursing tech. She is also very involved in her sorority as well. Lives at home with mother, father and brother. Likes to play softball and any outdoor activities.

    Fam Hx
    :

    Mother- Vitiligo

    Father- Hypertension, hyperlipidemia

    Brother- Cerebral Palsy, asthma.

    ROS
    :

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue.

    HEENT:  Head: Normocephalic, no lumps no lesions no tenderness no trauma.  (chronic headache present in the frontal lobe area, exacerbated by bright light/flashing light)

    Eyes: No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclerae.

    Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat.

    SKIN:  Skin appears normal for ethnicity. No rash or itching present.

    CARDIOVASCULAR: No palpitations or edema present. (Chest tightness with dry cough occasionally, but not constant).

    RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath (cough present. Patient reports persistent dry cough with little to no sputum production. Cough is worse as the day progresses. Sputum when present is white/clear, thin. Patient has no history of smoking or lung disease).

    GASTROINTESTINAL: No anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood.

    GENITOURINARY: No previous pregnancy. Last menstrual period, 06/20/2017 (Some occasional discomfort and burning present with urination).

    NEUROLOGICAL: No previous head injury. No dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No previous seizures. No coordination problems, difficulty swallowing or speaking. (dull, constant headache in frontal lobes, exacerbated with light, rates pain 8/10, radiates down into jaw area, causes patient to feel nauseous occasionally).

    MUSCULOSKELETAL: No joint pain, stiffness or swelling. No knee pain. No bone pain, ADLs performed with full function. No occupations hazards noted. (Back pain noted to be intermittent, exacerbated with movement/activity, cramping feeling in mid to low back bilaterally).

    HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising.

    LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy.

    PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety.

    ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia.

    ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis.

    O.

    Physical exam
    :

    CONSTITUTIONAL:  20 year old female patient presents to the clinic today with complaints of headache, back pain and cough. Patient is alert and oriented and able to provide her own history and presentation. Vital signs: BP 118/62, T: 97.8, HR: 81, RR:17, WT 138, HT 5’6” SpO2 99% room air.

    HEENT:

    Head: Normocephalic, atraumatic, no visible or palpable masses, depressions, or scaring. Facial features symmetrical and overall unremarkable. No weakness noted. Hair distribution, texture, and quantity overall unremarkable.

    Eyes: Visual acuity intact, conjunctiva pink and without excess vascularity. No discharge, excessive tearing, or photophobia. Sclera white, EOM intact, PERRL 3 mm, fundi have normal optic discs and vessels. No exudates or hemorrhages.

    Ears: External auditory canals clear, TMs translucent and mobile, hearing intact. No lesions noted to external structures. No tenderness on retraction of pinnae or pressure to tragus. Forced whisper perceived accurately at 5 feet.

    Nose: No external lesions, mucosa non-inflamed, septum and turbinate’s normal. Symmetrical without evidence of septal deviation or trauma. Nares patent and turbines intact. Mucosa is pink and without evidence of discharge, exudates, swelling, or congestion. No Para sinus tenderness.

    Mouth: Mucosa pink and moist without lesions. Lips are moist, no cracks or lesions noted. Teeth are intact, not diseased or loose. Tongue is midline and symmetrical with lesions or patches present.

    Throat: Trachea is midline, no lymph node enlargement noted. Tonsils are present bilaterally and unremarkable. Gag reflex is intact.

    Neck: Head is midline, symmetrical and erect. Accessory muscles are intact and symmetric. Full range of motion is present. Thyroid is no enlarged, no nodularity noted.

    SKIN:  Skin color is appropriate for ethnicity. Skin is smooth. No rash. Good turgor. Skin is warm, dry and intact. Nail beds are pink, good circulation present. Capillary refill < 2 seconds. CARDIOVASCULAR: Carotid artery palpated one at a time 2+. Carotid artery auscultated, no bruits noted. Brachial pulse 2+. No JVD present. Radial and pedal pulses 2+ bilaterally. No peripheral edema present. Anterior chest wall is symmetric; Heart tones regular S1 & S2. No thrills, murmurs, clicks or gallops. RESPIRATORY: Chest wall is symmetrical, thorax is symmetric with downward sloping ribs. Scapulae are symmetrically placed in each hemi thorax. Neck and trapezius muscles are developed normally for pt age. No lesions present. No shortness of breath visible. Bronchial and bronchovesicular lung sounds noted. Tactile fremitus present upon palpation. Resonance heard throughout lung fields. Skin color is consistent with ethnicity (Cough, patient reports sputum to be clear/white, and thin. Expiratory wheeze noted to upper R and L lung fields). GASTROINTESTINAL: Abdomen is symmetric. Bowel sounds present all quadrants, tender upon palpation to right and left upper quadrants. No mass noted. GENITOURINARY:  External genitalia without lesions. Labia symmetrical and plum, well-formed bilaterally. Vaginal walls pink and moist without lesions or evidence of trauma. (Discomfort occasionally on urination, burning has been present before but not lately according to patient). NEUROLOGICAL: Mental Status: Patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time. Speech is appropriate. Recent and remote memory is intact. Cranial Nerves: II: Vision 20/20 L eye, 20/20 R eye, peripheral visual fields intact. III, IV, VI: PERRLA, no ptosis or nystagmus. EOMs intact. V: Ophthalmic, maxillary and mandibular sensation intact, equal bilaterally. Muscle equally strong bilaterally VII: Facial muscles intact and symmetric. VIII: Acoustic nerve intact, whispered words heard bilaterally IX, X: Voice is smooth and unstrained. Tongue is symmetric, no lesions or abnormal color present. Swallow intact, gag reflex intact, uvula and soft palate rise midline with phonation. XI: Sternomastoid and trapezium muscles are equal in size bilaterally. Shoulder shrug, head movement equal bilaterally. XII: Tongue forward thrust is midline, no tremors. Lingual speech of letters L, T, and D are clear and distinct. Motor: No muscles atrophy present. Muscles size is equal bilaterally. No weakness or tremor present. Muscle strength is equal and strong. Tone is normal. Rapid alternating movements (RAM)- finger – to – nose movement is smooth and accurate. Gait is smooth and coordinated. Patient is able to tandem walk, negative Romberg. Sensory: Pinprick, light touch, and vibration sensation intact. Kinesthesia intact. Stereognosis- able to identify a key. Graphesthesia- able to identify the number 5. Reflexes: Normal abdominal, no Babinski sign present. Deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) 2+ bilaterally, No clonus, hyperreflexia or hyporeflexia present. MUSCULOSKELETAL: Cervical spine: is in alignment with head and neck. Head is erect. Spinous processes and sternomastoid, trapezius and paravertebral muscles are firm and non-tender and symmetrical. Shoulders: size and contour are equal bilaterally. No muscular spasms, atrophy, swelling or tenderness noted in shoulders. ROM painless, symmetric and within normal limits. Elbows: No deformities, redness, or swelling present. No tenderness, nodules or synovial thickening present at the olecranon process. ROM within normal limits. Muscles strength strong and equal bilaterally. Wrist and Hand: Skin is smooth, no swelling, nodules, lesions or tenderness present. Normal flexion. Wrist and hand are in alignment bilaterally. ROM within normal limits, no limited motions or pain. Muscle strength strong and equal bilaterally. Phalen test -, Tinel sign -. Hips: No pain upon palpation of the hip joints bilaterally. No crepitation present. ROM within normal limits. Muscles strength strong and equal bilaterally. Knees: Skin smooth, normal for ethnicity and intact bilaterally. No swelling, pain or tenderness upon palpation of the knee joints bilaterally. Muscle and soft tissue feel solid, smooth, no warmth present, nodularity or tenderness ROM within normal limits. Muscles strength strong and equal bilaterally against resistance. Negative McMurray test. Ankle and Foot: Ankle and foot are symmetrical and in alignment. Full weight bearing is tolerated. Toes point straight forward and lie flat bilaterally. Skin is smooth and even bilaterally. No joint swelling, tenderness, pain present. ROM within normal limits. Muscles strength strong and equal bilaterally.Able to maintain flexion within all musculoskeletal assessment areas against resistance and without tenderness. Spine: While standing, patient’s spine is erect, midline, and straight. Knees and feet are aligned forward facing with the trunk. ROM=flexion of 80 degrees, smooth and symmetrical. C-shape curve present. (Back pain expressed like a slight muscle cramp in the lower back region is noted when the patient bends over forward). HEMATOLOGIC:  No bleeding or bruising noted. LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. PSYCHIATRIC:  Normal mood and affect. Intact judgment and insight. Diagnostic results: No past or recent test results available. A. Differential Diagnoses: 1. Common Cold Tension headache Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) Arnold- Chiari formation The differential diagnosis is ordered from most to least likely for this patient. I would like to obtain a chest x ray on this patient as well as a CBC and BMP. The clinical manifestations and findings of the patient might be indicative of potential common cold. Although the patient does not have rhinorrhea or itchy, watery eyes, she does express some back pain/aches as well as tension headache and low energy and cough. This could be the beginning of a cold kicking in. There is no definitive diagnostic testing regarding diagnosis of the common cold, treatments can include staying hydrated, drinking plenty of water, using an NSAID for aches and pains as well as continuing her use of decongestant. Education regarding getting rest and hydration is important here as well as education regarding hand washing since she works in the long term care setting at a nursing home as a night shift tech (DeWitt, 2016). I would want to follow back up with this patient if her symptoms persist. Another potential diagnosis is chronic tension-type headache (TTH) due to stress of school, work and social activities. These types of headaches can last 30 minutes to 7 days and are characterized by bilateral pressure, tightening or pulsating pain mild to moderate intensity (Schub & Boling, 2016). Photophobia and phonophobia occur with this type of headache. The patient stated that she had sensitivity to light when her headache is bad. Background regarding how often she has this type of headache, how long does it last, and how it improves with what medication she has been trying over the counter are all going to be a critical part in helping categorize this headache and diagnosis. I would want to education the patient on how she can log the headache and symptoms so we can look at it together if the symptoms persist. (Schub & Boling, 2016). Risk factors for TTH include stress, anxiety, depression, panic disorder, OCD, changes in sleep regimen and certain medications. S.B meets several of the requirements and a more in depth conversation about how she handles her stress and anxiety might be helpful. Stress reducing habits can be taught about here as well such as taking a hot bath, physical therapy, massage, acupuncture, lying down with a warm or cool cloth over the forehead for nonpharmacological methods (Schub & Boling, 2016). Nephrolithiasis is another potential diagnosis to rule out for this patient. It would be a good idea to go a little bit further in depth with her history questions and ask the patient about her urinary habits, certain foods and drinks that she might consuming. A 24-hour urine collection could help rule out the presence of lithogenic substance in the urine. Diagnosis of nephrolithiasis is based on clinical presentation and diagnostic findings (Pfau, Eckardt, & Knauf, 2015). A rare but potential last diagnosis could be Arnold-Chiari type 1 malformation (CMI), which is downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum into the upper cervical spinal canal (Fischbein et al., 2015). Clinical presentations of CMI are related to the direct compression of the brain stem and spinal cord to CSF disturbances. CMI typically begins in young adults and includes headache, visual disturbances, neuro-otological complaints, and other cranial nerve dysfunction. Although the patient does not yet exhibit neuro-otological complaints, it could be in the back of our mind to rule out asking more questions about these specific areas as they might not be showing symptoms all the time, they could be over looked (Fischbein et al., 2015).   References: Carson-DeWitt, R. (2016). Common Cold. Health Library: Evidence-Based Information, Fischbein, R., Saling, J., Marty, P., Kropp, D., Meeker, J., Amerine, J., & Chyatte, M. (2015). Patient-reported Chiari malformation type I symptoms and diagnostic experiences: A report from the national Conquer Chiari Patient Registry database. Neurological Sciences, 36(9), 1617-1624. doi:10.1007/s10072-015-2219-9 Pfau, A., Eckardt, K., & Knauf, F. (2015). [Diagnosis and treatment of nephrolithiasis. What is established?]. Der Internist, 56(12), 1361-1368. doi:10.1007/s00108-015-3758-0 Schub, T. B., & Boling, B. C. (2016). Headaches, tension-type. CINAHL Nursing Guide   Collapse Subdiscussion Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 7:32pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Jade! Can you describe assessment findings for systolic murmurs (and list what murmurs are systolic)? Dr. L   Jade Balow Jade Balow Jul 21, 2017Jul 21 at 11:44am Manage Discussion Entry Dr. Lunsford, A murmur is a “gentle, blowing, swooshing sound” that is produced by turbulent blood flow and blood flow that is experiencing collision in some way (Jarvis, 2016). Blood viscosity and velocity are key factors in the presence of murmurs as well as valvular and structural heart diseases (Miller, 2016). Murmurs are either systolic or diastolic in origin, depending on when the murmur is occurring. Accurate diagnosis of a murmur includes being able to note several areas of detail regarding the murmur. These include: timing, loudness, pitch, pattern, quality, location, radiation and posture (Jarvis, 2016). A murmur that occurs in systole may be innocent or indicative of a problem, but a diastolic murmur is always indicative of heart disease. It is very important to keep an open mind about the murmur you hear, and take step by step process to identify key characteristics in order to accurately diagnose the murmur. When you hear an abnormal heart sound, do not forget that a very important aspect of the patient assessment is the patient history. A thorough history is first and foremost of importance when assessing a murmur (Miller, 2016). First, when you hear a murmur, identify if it is heard in systole or diastole. In order to do this, you can listen to the murmur with your stethoscope (where you hear the murmur the loudest) and simultaneously palpate the carotid pulse only on one side. If the murmur you hear times up with the pulse of the carotid artery this indicates a systolic murmur. Second, identify where you hear the murmur the loudest; this will help indicate where the murmur is originating. The loudness of the murmur is noted in order to “grade” the murmur, based on a scale out of 6 options of grade. Grade 1 is the lowest and grade 6 represents the loudest (Jarvis, 2016). A very common systolic murmur is mitral valve prolapse murmur; this murmur presents an audible “click,” and may be the easiest one to identify. Other systolic murmurs include: mitral regurgitation murmur, physiological murmur and aortic stenosis murmur. A change in patient position can expose a murmur as well. When a patient lies on the left side, an S3, S4, and murmur of mitral stenosis may be heard that was not otherwise noted. Leaning forward and sitting upright on the exam table is a good position for the patient to be in for the NP to assess for a soft diastolic murmur of aortic or pulmonic regurgitation. Diagnostic test such as an ECG and echocardiogram will establish an accurate diagnosis of innocent murmur (Jarvis, 2016). References: Jarvis, Carolyn. (2016).  Physical examination & health assessment  (7th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier. Miller, B. A. (2016). A 31-year-old female with a systolic heart murmur.  Medicine Morning Report: Beyond the Pearls E-Book , 277.   Kara Flatt Kara Flatt Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:06pm Manage Discussion Entry Jade- Thank you so much for your post!  I was interested to read the variety of differential diagnosis’ you used.  As nurse practitioners it is important that we look for a variety of issues, however, I think it is equally important that we be able to hone in to what may be the culprit instead of casting a large net and seeing what we get.  While I could identify with common cold and a tension headache, I am having trouble with your diagnosis of kidney stones and Chiari malformation.  I know that kidney stones can be characterized by back pain, but not so much with headache or a cough.  Could you explain to me your reasoning for picking this diagnosis? -Kara   Collapse Subdiscussion Christine Corbeil Christine Corbeil Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 5:44pm Manage Discussion Entry Dr. Lunsford and class, Patient Information: C.B., 54, female, Caucasian S. CC  (chief complaint)  Headache, cough, stuffy/ runny nose, sore throat, and muscle aches for the past three days.  Low back pain off and on for the past two to three months. HPI : Onset: Sore throat started four days ago, and three days ago, started with a headache, cough, stuffy nose, and muscle aches. “My sister in law had the same symptoms a week ago”.  Intermittent low back pain started two to three months ago, while she was moving, and lifting heavy boxes and furniture. Location: Muscle aches are all over.  Feels a constant headache over her forehead and around her eyes.  Low back pain/ache. Duration: Headache, cough, stuffy/runny nose, sore throat, and muscle aches started three days ago.  Low back pain started two or three months ago.  “I’m not really sure when it actually started”. Characteristics: feels sick and more tired than usual.  “I don’t feel like eating, just not hungry”.  Low back pain feels like a deep ache or pulling sensation at times. Aggravating Factors: “I feel worse the longer I’m up and about”.  Back pain is worse when lifting or “if I overdo it in day”. Relieving Factors:  Resting, sleep, and NyQuil help my cold. Naproxen and heating pad help my lower back. I only use them when it hurts. Treatment: NyQuil every six hours.  Naproxen 250mg as needed for back pain. Current Medications : Gabapentin 300 mg at bedtime as needed for hot flashes Naproxen 250mg twice a day as needed for pain NyQuil two capsules orally every six hours   Allergies:  Penicillin-hives Denies any environmental or food allergies PMHx :  Immunizations: As far as she knows she’s up to date on her immunizations.  Influenza 9/2016.  Denies any medical history other than menopausal hot flashes. Past surgical history Right carpal tunnel release 12/20/2013 and revision done 7/2014- Dr. Durant at NMC Left carpal tunnel release 01/25/2015 Dr. Durant at NMC Trigger finger release bilaterally thumbs last done 7/2014.- Dr. Durant at NMC Trigger finger releases bilaterally middle and ring fingers last done 10/2016- Dr. Durant at NMC. 2009 mass removed from parotid gland by Dr. Brundage 11/2008 inner ear surgery “a prosthesis was placed” Cryotherapy for abnormal pap “years ago” Lasix surgery bilaterally 2005 Soc Hx :  Works as a medical assistant at a cardiology clinic.  Divorced with two adult sons and one granddaughter.  Loves to work outside in her yard and garden.  Former smoker- quit in 1985, smoked ½ pack a day for 3 years. Alcohol use- 2 glasses of wine a day.  No other recreational drug use.   Does not use sunscreen when outside.  Wears seat belts when in car. Owns her own home and has smoke and carbon monoxide detectors.  Walks a couple of times a week.  Eats a well-balanced diet. Fam Hx : Maternal grandmother- deceased at unknown age and cause Maternal grandfather- deceased in his 90’s from unknown cause Paternal grandmother- deceased in her 80’s from unknown cause Paternal grandfather- deceased unknown age from unknown cause Mother- deceased at age 87 from “natural causes” Father- deceased at age 85 from “natural causes”.  Had heart bypass surgery at some point. One brother with prostate cancer Both sons are healthy without any known health issues ROS : CONSTITUTIONAL:  Denies unintentional weight loss (is dieting), fever, chills, or weakness.   Feels fatigued. HEENT:  Head:   Headache over forehead and around eyes for the past two days, feels a constant pressure with some relief from NyQuil.  Does not usually have headaches.  Denies dizziness, lightheadedness, or any head injuries.  Denies any masses, lumps, or tenderness in head or neck.  Denies difficulty swallowing.  Eyes:  Denies visual loss, blurred vision, double vision, pain, burning, itching or yellow sclerae. Denies floaters or flashes of light. Denies dry eyes or excessive tearing.   Wears reading glasses to read.  Can see distances.  Glaucoma/eye exam done yearly.  Ears:  Denies ear pain, infections, discharge, tinnitus, vertigo, or hearing loss (had a normal hearing screening two years ago). Nose:  Denies any sinus pain/pressure or trauma to her nose.  Denies sneezing or nose bleeds.  Clear watery runny nose except in the morning when it can be a thick yellow.   Mouth and throat:  Denies any sores or lesions, bleeding gums or toothaches (last dental cleaning- 3/2017).   Sore throat the last three days and feels voice may be a little hoarse. SKIN:  Denies itching. Small rash by ankle. Denies birthmarks.  Tattoo left shoulder.  Denies having any moles or history of skin infections or rash.  “I have freckles”.  Denies hair loss or change in finger or toe nails.    Denies dry or oily skin or excessive diaphoresis. Breasts:  Last mammogram was 11/2017.  Does not perform monthly self-breast exams.   Denies any skin changes or nipple discharge. CARDIOVASCULAR:  Denies chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. Denies shortness of breath, difficulty lying flat, changes in skin color, palpitations, or edema. RESPIRATORY:  Denies shortness of breath or chest pain with breathing. Denies any lung disease or history of smoking. C/O  mainly a dry cough, but “I may bring up some yellow stuff, after I’ve swallowed some”.  Cough started three days ago. GASTROINTESTINAL:  Denies any abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation or changes in bowel habits.   “I don’t have much interest in food the last four days”.  Began with onset of sore throat. GENITOURINARY:  Denies burning on urination. Gravid 2 Para 2, both vaginal deliveries.  Last period was in 2015.  Had reddish spotting for three to four days 2/2017.  Gyn exam by Dr. Peterson with pap smear and ultrasound done.  Hot flashes daily with difficulty sleeping at night. NEUROLOGICAL:  Denies history of head injury or seizures. Denies dizziness/lightheadedness, passing out, weakness, balance issues, numbness/tingling, difficulty swallowing or speaking.  No changes in the ability to urinate or bowel control.  Denies difficulty remembering things.  Headache over forehead and around eyes that started three days ago. Gets better with NyQuil and worsens after four hours.  MUSCULOSKELETAL:  Denies joint pain, swelling, weakness or limitations in movement.  (carpal tunnel bilat).  Denies any bone pain.  Has no limitation is her normal activities.  Low back pain/ache when over does it in a day especially lifting items, started when she was moving.  She was doing a lot of heavy lifting.    Does not radiate and does not limit her normal activities.  Continues to exercise without difficulty. Takes naproxen 250 mg and uses a heating pad when it bothers her.  States she’s only needed to take naproxen and use the heating pad a couple of times in the past month.  Feels it’s improving. HEMATOLOGIC:  Denies any history anemia or prolonged bleeding.  Feels she bruises easily. LYMPHATICS:  Denies noticing any enlarged lymph nodes.  Spleen intact. PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety. ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold intolerance.  Continues to have hot flashes and heat intolerance from them.  No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis. O. Physical exam: Vital signs:  BP:  130/78 mm hg right arm, sitting.  Pulse 82, regular.  Respirations 18/min, unlabored.  Temperature 97.6 degrees F. Height:            5’2”              Weight:      138 lbs.             BMI:  24 Constitutional:  C.B. is a 54-year-old alert and oriented well-nourished Caucasian female who articulates clearly, ambulates without difficulty, and is in no apparent distress. Head/neck:  Normocephalic and symmetrical with no masses, lesions, scaling parasites.  No tenderness on palpation.  No TMJ tenderness, crepitation or ROM limitations noted.  Face and all facial features are symmetrical.  No swelling or involuntary movements noted.  Neck is symmetrical and supple.  No limitation in ROM.  Trachea midline.  No masses, lesions, tenderness, or lymphadenopathy. Thyroid gland nonpalpable and nontender. Jugular veins flat at 45-degree angle.  Carotid arteries 2+ and equal bilaterally, no bruits appreciated.  ( Cervical lymph node tenderness, warm, firm, and mobile to palpation bilaterally). Eyes:  Visual acuity is 20/20 in both eyes without corrective lenses using the Snellen chart.  Can read a newspaper 14/14 each eye with corrective lenses.  Visual fields full by confrontation.  Corneal light reflex is equal in both eyes, no strabismus.  EOMs intact with no nystagmus.  No ptosis, lid lag, discharge or crusting.  Conjunctivae clear.  Sclerae white, no redness or lesions noted.  Pupils 3 mm bilaterally when resting and 1 mm bilaterally when constricted.  PERRLA. No ophthalmoscope available, but normal finding would be:  fundus should be red to dark brown-red, and clear without obstructions.  The optic disc creamy yellow-orange, round or oval, distinct margins, and the physiological cup should be a brighter yellow-white.  Vessels are equal in all quadrants without crossing defects.  No exudates or hemorrhages. Ears:  Ears are equal in size and shape.  Skin color is same a facial color, intact, no lumps or lesions.  No tenderness of the tragus when pushed forward or the pinna when moved.  External ear canal with no redness, swelling or discharge.  The tympanic membrane is shiny, pearl gray and translucent.  Ear drum is flat.  Could hear 6 out of 6 whispered letters bilaterally. Nose:  Symmetrical and midline.  No deformities, inflammation, skin lesions and nontender ( area under nose and around nares reddened and puffy).   Both nares are patent.  Nasal septum midline and intact.  Nares smooth, pink, and moist bilaterally ( appears swollen and bright red with clear drainage) .  No swelling, discharge, or bleeding.  Frontal and maxillary sinuses are nontender. Mouth/Throat:  Lips are pink.  Mucus membranes are pink, moist and intact without lesions.  Teeth are intact without wearing or discolorations.  Gums without bleeding or swelling.  Tongue is midline, pink and without swelling. Tongue protrudes at midline, no tremor.   No lesions.  Palate pink and intact.  Uvula is midline and rise midline when says “ahhh”.  Pharynx pink. Tonsils 1+ with no exudate noted bilaterally ( tonsils 2+, reddened with white patches) .  + gag reflex with tongue depressor to back of throat. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Skin:  Pinkish tan skin throughout.  Freckles (fine flat brown macules) over bridge of nose and over shoulders.  No birth marks, or edema. Warm, dry and intact throughout.  Tattoo of a rose on left shoulder. ( papular rash by left lateral malleus, size of a quarter, non- pruritic)  Good skin turgor.  Hair normal distribution and texture; no pest inhabitants or lesions noted.  Nails are smooth pink and uniform with a normal angle.  No signs of clubbing, biting or deformities.  Brisk capillary refill. ( Skin reddened around tip of the nose and under nasal area) . Heart:  No abnormal pulsations over precordium, no heaves.  Apical impulse at the 4 th  intercostal space in left midclavicular line, no thrills.  Heart sounds regular, S1 and S2 are not diminished or accentuated.  No S3 or S4 auscultated.  No murmurs auscultated. Respiratory/Thorax:  Normal respiratory effort without use of accessory muscles. AP < transverse diameter.  Chest expansion symmetrical.  Tactile fremitus equal bilaterally.  Lung fields resonant to percussion.  Diaphragmatic excursion 4 cm and equal bilaterally.  Lung sounds clear bilaterally all lung fields.  ( Frequent dry cough noted during exam). Abdomen:  Rounded and symmetrical.  No bulging or visible masses.  Umbilicus is inverted at midline without swelling or discoloration.  Skin smooth with no lesions, scars, or striae. Normal bowel sounds over all four quadrants.  No bruits noted.  Tympany predominates in all quadrants.  Liver span 6.5 cm.  Abdomen soft/ nontender throughout.  No masses or organomegaly noted.  No inguinal lymphadenopathy.  No CVA tenderness. Extremities:  Color tan-pink. Legs and arms are symmetrical.   No redness, cyanosis, lesions, edema or varicosities.  No calf tenderness.  Radial and brachial pulses + 2 bilaterally.  Femoral, popliteal, dorsal pedis, and posterior tibial artery are + 2 bilaterally.  No color changes when legs are elevated. Musculoskeletal:  TMJ as assessed under head/neck.  Neck- full range of motion without pain or tenderness.  All joints symmetrical without swelling, discoloration, or masses.  Full active and passive range of motion of all joints. No pain or crepitation. Vertebral column without tenderness, no deformity, or curvature.  Full extension, lateral bending and rotation.  Muscle strength:  able to maintain flexion against resistance and without tenderness or pain. Neurological: Mental status:  Appearance, behavior, speech appropriate.  Alert and orientated to person, place, and time.  Thoughts coherent.  Remote and recent memories intact.  Sensory:  pinprick, light touch, vibration intact and equal bilaterally.  Sterognosis:  able to identify a key. Graphesthesia:  read number 9 when traced on palm. Motor:  no atrophy, weakness, or tremors.  No clonus. Gait:  Normal, smooth, and rhythmic, able to walk in tandem without balance disturbances. Negative Romberg sign.  Cerebellar:  Finger-to-nose smoothly intact.  Bicep, tricep, brachioradialis, quadriceps and achilles DTR’s +2 equal and bilaterally. Cranial nerve I- able to identify coffee and peppermint in each nostril individually.  Cranial nerve II- see eye exam (confrontation and ophthalmoscope exam).  Cranial nerve III, IV, and VI- See eye exam (EOM, pupil reaction).  Cranial nerve V- Jaw movement symmetrical, no pain with clenching, and unable to open jaw by pushing down chin.  Able to sense cotton on forehead, cheeks, and chin equally and bilaterally. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.  Cranial nerve VII- face symmetrical with changes in facial expressions and unable to open tightly closed eyes.  Cranial nerve VIII- see ear exam (whisper test).  Cranial nerve IX and X- see mouth and throat exam (uvula movement and gag reflex).  Cranial nerve XI- Sternomastoid and trapezius muscles are equal in size and strength.  Able to rotate head against resistance equally and bilaterally. Diagnostic results :  None available A . Differential Diagnoses Acute upper respiratory infection (URI):  Is an acute infection typically caused by the human rhinoviruses, respiratory syncytial virus, influenza viruses, coronaviruses and adenoviruses (Passioti, Maggina, Megremis, & Papadopoulos, 2014).  The common presenting symptoms are sore throat, nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sneezing, cough, fever, malaise, and headache (Passioti et al., 2014).  There is little variation is presentation among the different viruses making it difficult to diagnosis which virus is responsible for the symptoms (Passioti et al., 2014). Tonsillitis- bacterial vs. viral:  Tonsillitis is an acute inflammation of the tonsils by either a bacterial infection or viral infection (Shepard, 2013).  Viral tonsillitis presents with red and swollen tonsils and associated with dysphagia, nasal congestion, fatigue, headache and cough typically present in upper respiratory infections (Shepard, 2013).  Bacterial tonsillitis has the same appearance as viral tonsillitis but is also associated with grey/white exudate on visual inspection, fever, painful swallowing, and tender cervical lymph nodes (Shepard, 2013). Subacute low back pain:  Is low back pain that lasts four to twelve weeks after initial strain or injury (Qaseem, Wilt, McLean, & Forciea, 2017).  A third of patients will continue to have low back pain up to a year after the initial injury (Qaseem et al., 2017). Acute respiratory infections are self-limiting and usually resolve on their own in seven to 10 days (Passioti et al., 2014). Nasal swab to determine the viral cause could be done (Passioti et al., 2014).  This is not commonly done in my area unless influenza is suspected. Treatment of symptoms is recommended (Passioti et al., 2014).  Antihistamines such as diphenhydramine 25 mg every four hours can reduce runny nose and sneezing (Passioti et al., 2014).  Decongestants can be used for nasal congestion, but do not offer long term symptom relief (Passioti et al., 2014).  Intranasal corticosteroids and antitussives are not recommended for use (Passioti et al., 2014).  Acetaminophen 325 mg orally every four to six hours can be used to reduce muscle aches and malaise (Passioti et al., 2014).  Education regarding covering mouth when coughing and hand hygiene to reduce passing the virus on to others (Passioti et al., 2014). Return to clinic in four or five days if symptoms not improved. Tonsillitis:  Any sore throat with exudate and increased redness should be cultured with a throat culture (Shepard, 2013).  Viral agents are most commonly the causative agent for tonsillitis or any sore throat (Shepard, 2013).  With a negative culture, symptomatic management is similar to upper respiratory tract infections, but patients may find relief from throat drops and increasing fluids (Shepard, 2013).  If culture comes back positive, then antibiotics would be started.  The most common causative agent is Group A beta hemolytic strep (Shepard, 2013).  In patients with a Penicillin allergy would be started on Erythromycin or Clarithromycin for five days (Shepard, 2013).  I would order Clarithromycin 250 mg orally every 12 hours based on better GI tolerability and less frequent dosing than erythromycin (Edmunds & Mayhew, 2013).  Return to clinic is symptoms not improved in four to five days. Subacute low back pain is typically improved by one month, but may persist up to one year (Qaseem et al., 2017).  Recommendations are to remain as active as possible, apply dry heat to the area when needed, and NSAIDS for pain as needed (Qaseem et al., 2017).  I would recommend her current self treatment.  The low back pain is not limiting her abilities, and is not occurring daily. She finds the heating pain and  naproxen to be effective when she needs to use it.  Return to the office if the character of the back-pain changes or naproxen is no longer effective.   References Edmunds, M., & Mayhew, M. (2013).  Pharmacology for the primary care provider  (4 ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier. Passioti, M., Maggina, P., Megremis, S., & Papadopoulos, N. (2014). The common cold: Potential for future prevention or cure.  Current Allergy and Asthma Reports ,  14 (413), 1-11. http://dx.doi.org/10.1007/s11882-013-0413-5 Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Qaseem, A., Wilt, T., McLean, R., & Forciea, M. (2017). Noninvasive treatments for acute, subacute, and chronic low back pain:  A clinical practice guideline from the American College of Physicians.  Annals of Internal Medicine ,  166 , 514-530. http://dx.doi.org/10.7326/M16-2367 Shepard, A. (2013). Assessment and management of acute sore throat.  Nurse Prescribing ,  11 (11), 549-553.   Collapse Subdiscussion Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 7:34pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Christine! Can you discuss what you would find on your assessment if you auscultated a diastolic murmur? And what murmurs are diastolic? Dr. L   Collapse Subdiscussion Christine Corbeil Christine Corbeil Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 10:02am Manage Discussion Entry Hi Dr. Lunsford, Diastolic murmurs are auscultated at the beginning of the S2 sound or immediately after the S2 sound and end prior to the beginning of S1 (Premkumar, 2016).  All murmurs are caused by increased turbulence of blood flow through the valves and the duration and intensity of the murmur is determined by the amount of pressure generated in the heart chambers (Premkumar, 2016).  The main way of diagnosing a heart murmur is by transthoracic echocardiography (Premkumar, 2016).  The main diastolic murmurs are left sided valve disease of mitral stenosis, aortic regurgitation, and right sided valve diseases of stenosis of tricuspid stenosis and pulmonic regurgitation (Jarvis, 2016). Mitral stenosis is most commonly caused by childhood rheumatic fever (Premkumar, 2016). It can also be caused by calcification of the leaflets over time (Nisimur et al., 2014). Typically, asymptomatic initially (Vahanian et al., 2012) and others will have some degree of shortness of breath (Premkumar, 2016).  The murmur is low-pitched rumbling heard best at the apex in the left lateral position with an opening snap (Premkumar, 2016).  There may be a right ventricular heave (Premkumar, 2016). Nishimur et al.  (2014) document there will not be any significant physical examination findings. Aortic regurgitation is caused by rheumatic heart disease, bicuspid aortic valve, endocarditis, and aortic root dilation (Premkumar, 2016). The back flow of blood into the left ventricle caused left ventricular enlargement (Premkumar, 2016). Clinical presentation is shortness of breath with activity, chest pain and pulmonary edema (Premkumar, 2016).  S3 heart sound is present and a diastolic blowing decrescendo murmur is noted on exam that is loudest at the left sternal border (Premkumar, 2016).  A water-hammer pulse and wide pulse pressures will be noted on physical exam (Premkumar, 2016).  Apical impulse will be felt to the left and will feel shorter than normal (Jarvis, 2016). Right sided valve disease is primarily asymptomatic (Coffey, Rayner, Newton, & Prendergast, 2014).  Symptoms may be reduced exercise tolerance and fatigue (Coffey et al., 2014).  As the pressures increase in the right atrium and right ventricle, there is enlargement and dilation of both chambers leading to symptoms of right sided heart failure (Coffey et al., 2014).  Increased jugular venous pressure, hepatomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema (Coffey et al., 2014).  Tricuspid stenosis is mostly caused by rheumatic fever and occurs with mitral valve stenosis (Coffey et al., 2014).  Auscultation of a diastolic rumble at the lower parasternal border is rare due to the low-pressure gradient of the right side of the heart (Coffey et al., 2014).  Pulmonary regurgitation is commonly seen in the normal population in trivial to small amounts (Coffey et al., 2014).  It’s mostly seen in patients who have had a repair of the valve for pulmonary stenosis or Tetralogy of Fallot repair (Coffey et al., 2014).   A diastolic decrescendo murmur is sometimes heard in the second left intercostal parasternal space which is only heard in the setting of pulmonary hypertension (Coffey et al., 2014).  There may be a right sided lift with the right ventricle is overloaded (Coffey et al., 2014). Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion References Jarvis, C. (2016).  Physical Examination and Health Assessment, 7e  (7 ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier. Nishimura, R., Otto, C., Bonow, R., Carabello, B., Erwin, J., Guyton, R., … Thomas, J. (2014). 2014 AHA/ACC guidelines for the management of patients with valvular heart disease.  Circulation , 1-235. Premkumar, P. (2016). Utility of echocardiogram in the evaluation of heart murmurs.  Medical Clinics of North America ,  100 , 991-1001. http://dx.doi.org/10.1016/j.mcna.2016.04.005 Vahanian, A., Alfieri, O., Andreotti, F., Antunes, M., Esquivias, G., Baumgartner, H., … Zembala, M. (2012). Guidelines on the management of valvular heart disease.  European Heart Journal ,  33 , 2451-2496. http://dx.doi.org/10.1093/eurheartj/ehs109 Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion   Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:18pm Manage Discussion Entry This is great Christine! I remember in FNP school I did not feel confident in my abilities to identify and classify murmurs, but once you get out into clinicals and start hearing them yourself, it is so exciting. I had several questions on murmurs on my boards. It is very important to be able to differentiate systolic vs. diastolic. I included this link below that has a mnemonic that I used to memorize these and apply them to my practice. There are also some other pearls as well. https://www.fhea.com/content.aspx?p=certificationcols/mnemonics.htmLinks to an external site.   Dr. L   Collapse Subdiscussion Sarah Gray Sarah Gray Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 2:13pm Manage Discussion Entry Christine Thanks for your post! I came across this article discussing pertussis and how it can be a missed diagnosis for patients with a cough lasting longer than the traditional 10 days of an URI and thought it was interesting. Pertussis can present similar to a upper respiratory infection during the initial one to two weeks. This period is call the Catarrhal stage and patients present with malaise, rhinorrhea, sneezing, lacrimation and mild cough. The second phase is termed paroxysmal stage, in which severe coughing spells occur, most commonly during exhalation. In patients previously immunized, symptoms are less severe. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Pertussis should be suspected if a cough is present for more than three weeks even without the classic paroxysmal cough. Nasopharyngeal aspirate or swabbing for cultures is the best choice for diagnosis and to test for antimicrobial sensitivity (Kline, Lewis, Smith, Tracy, & Moerschel, 2013). Reference Kline, J. M., Lewis, W. D., Smith, E. A., Tracy, L. R., & Moerschel, S. K. (2013). Pertussis: A reemerging infection.  American Family Physician ,  88 (8), 507-514.     Christine Corbeil Christine Corbeil Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 3:09pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Sarah, Thank you for your reply!  I’ve been surprised regarding the different causes of persistent coughs.  Coughs that last three to eight weeks are considered subacute coughs, and a chronic cough is one that lasts greater than eight weeks (Gladu & Hawkins, 2012).  Upper airway cough syndrome, asthma, gastroesophageal reflux, postinfectious cough, and pertussis (Gladu & Hawkins, 2012).  Postinfectious cough was a new one for me when I was diagnosed with it in February after recovering from Influenza.  It’s a cough that lingers three to eight weeks after an upper respiratory infection related to continued inflammation of the airway (Gladu & Hawkins, 2012).  Like pertussis it can paroxysmal in nature and pertussis should be ruled out with a nasal swab (Gladu & Hawkins, 2012).  There is a lot of information on coughs to sift through to come up with an accurate diagnosis. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion   Thank you, Christine Gladu, R. & Hawkins, C.  (2012).  Combatting the cough that won’t quit.   The Journal of Family Practice, 61 (2), 88-93.   Collapse Subdiscussion Jessica Hopkins Jessica Hopkins Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 6:39pm Manage Discussion Entry Dear Class and Dr. Lunsford; Patient Information: CM, 59, Male, Caucasion, Medicare part A and B Vitals: BP-148/88, HR 82, R 20, T 99.1F, sp02 93% RA, pain 5/10 S. CC  cough, headache, and back pain HPI :  include all the information regarding the CC using the OLDCART format. If the CC was “Unintentional weight loss”, the OLDCART for the HPI might look like the following example: Onset: 14 days Location: upper back, head Duration: for the last 2 weeks Characteristics:increased fatigue, poor appetite, cough with phlegm, throbbing headache worse with coughing, chest wall aching worse with cough Aggravating Factors: coughing fits, smoking, poor sleep at night Relieving Factors: cough syrup (Nyquil), rest, Motrin, Norco 5/325mg as needed Treatment: Nyquil, Motrin 600mg, Norco 5/325mg every 6 hours as needed Current Medications : Motrin 600mg every 6 hours as needed for mild pain and headache Norco 5/325mg every 6 hours as needed (usually only takes one at bedtime) moderate to severe pain- has been using for 3 years since back surgery Nyquil 2 tsp at bedtime for the last 2 weeks Simvastatin 40mg at bedtime for high cholesterol- been using for 3 years Hydrochlorathiazide (HCTZ) 25mg daily for high blood pressure- been using for 3 years PeptoBismol OTC as needed for upset stomach Benadryl 25mg as needed for bee stings Allergies: nkda , mild allergy to bee stings PMHx :  hypertension, high cholesterol, alcoholism. Surgeries- L5 lumbar fusion with spinal column widening due to stenosis and nerve pain, fractured ribs x 3 this year. CM is up-to-date on tetanus within the last 5 years, denies yearly influenza vaccine, has received the pneumonia vaccine last year due to frequent colds (3-4 per year) Soc Hx :  retired mechanic of 37 years, married, enjoys renovating his cottage home, smokes 1-2 ppd (40 years), drinks 12 cans of beer daily (40 years), nevers drinks and drives, wears seatbelt everytime, has functioning smoke detectors all throughout the home Fam Hx :  father- polio, MS (deceased at 42 years old) Mother- emphysema, high cholesterol, alcoholic (deceased massive heart attack at 70    years old) Brother- colon cancer (deceased at 51 years old) Grandparents- unknown (all deceased) ROS : CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, positive for fever, chills, and fatigue. HEENT:  Eyes:  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclerae. Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat. SKIN:  No rash or itching. CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure, positive for chest wall discomfort with cough. No palpitations or edema. RESPIRATORY:  positive for mild shortness of breath with exertion, productive cough and greenish-colored sputum. GASTROINTESTINAL:  No anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood. GENITOURINARY:  denies burning on urination. Pregnancy not applicable. NEUROLOGICAL:  positive for mild, pounding headache that worsens with cough, denies dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. MUSCULOSKELETAL:  positive for mild muscle aches and chronic lower back pain in the L5 region, positive for upper thoracic back pain that worsens with cough, denies joint pain or stiffness. HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising. LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy. PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety. ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis. O. Physical exam :  for the purpose of this week’s discussion the heart, lungs, peripheral vascular system, musculoskeletal, and neurologic with cranial nerve physical assessment are done Heart: No cardiomegaly or thrills noted on exam, regular rate and rhythm, no murmur or gallop heard on auscultation, palpation of the carotid artery demonstrates a smooth, rapid upstroke with a normal stroke of 2+ and equal bilaterally, auscultation of the carotid artery shows no bruit, apical pulse not visible, vibrations are regular and even, pulsations equal, no dyspnea or heart discomfort noted, S1 and S2 auscultations are normal and distinct with loudest sound at the apex of the heart, no additional extra heart sounds heard on auscultation, absent for rubs Peripheral vascular system: Inspection of bilateral arms for symmetry, size, edema present, color, ulcerations, hair distribution, and texture of skin noted with no abnormal findings, bilateral symmetry of upper extremities, no edema present, color is dark tan with macules (freckles) noted bilaterally, skin is warm and dry to the touch, no ulcerations, or scaring noted bilaterally, fingers warm and pinkish tan in nature, capillary refill is less than 3 seconds bilaterally, radial pulses present bilaterally and strong and resilient, brachial pulses equal and strong bilaterally, bilateral leg exam done as well to test the vascular system with even distribution of hair noted, some scaring of the right knee noted due to a bicycle accident as a child, no ulcerations noted, toes warm and dry and equal bilaterally, palpation of femoral artery, popliteal, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses equal and strong bilaterally, no varicose veins visible on exam, no redness or discoloration of the skin over veins noted, Homan’s sign represents no pain or tenderness Lungs: Inspection of the posterior chest for shape and configuration are straight, thorax is symmetric, skins color and condition is smooth and even, negative for any discoloration or scars, no cyanosis or pallor noted, no lesions noted, palpation of the posterior chest is symmetric with expansion, no areas of tenderness noted on exam, percussion of the posterior chest in the lung fields demonstrates normal resonance, the diaphragmatic excursion is equal bilaterally measuring approximately 5 cm, auscultation of the breath sounds demonstrates bronchial, bonchovescicular, and vesicular sounds heard in the lung fields with mild crackles heard on expiration, inspection of the anterior chest is symmetrical for shape with a costal angle of 90 degrees, the skin color and condition is free of cyanosis and pallor, quality of respirations is effortless, regular, and even, chest expansion normal with inspiration, breathing pattern is regular and normal, percussion of the lungs is resonant with dullness noted over the liver region of the chest, auscultation is vesicular and clear with some mild crackles noted in the lower bases of the lung fields on exam Musculoskeletal: Normal gait and station, no asymmetry noted on inspection, no crepitation, tenderness, masses, some decreased range of motion noted in the lower L5 region with bending down, no instability, abnormal strength or tone in the head, neck, pelvis, or extremities, mild tenderness noted in the thoracic region (t6-t12) on palpation, inspection and palpation of the spine feels firm with no muscle spasm or tenderness, shoulders demonstrate equal size and contour bilaterally with no redness or deformities noted, no scoliosis noted, no ROM abnormalities noted except for the lower back region due to his past surgical history Neurologic: mental status is alert and oriented, assessment of the cranial nerves done and intact. CN II: optic nerve intact, visual acuity normal, normal blinks, able to close and open eyes normally CN III, IV, VI: oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves intact, pupils PERRLA, gaze normal, no nystagmus noted, able to raise eyelids equal bilaterally, able to move eyes inward and out equally with ease CN V: trigeminal nerve intact. Able to grind teeth and make chewing motion when asked CN VII: facial normal and able to move all muscles of face equally CN VIII: acoustic nerve intact. Hearing intact CN IX: glossopharyngeal nerve intact, able to swallow when asked, able to move tongue in and out with no difficulty CN XI: spinal intact. Normal movement of trapezius and sternomastoid muscles CNXII: hypoglossal nerve intact. Able to stick tongue out when asked Muscle strength, tone, and size even and equal throughout, gait steady, negative Romberg test, coordinated movements throughout all muscle groups, senses intact in all extremities with no decrease in sensation noted, reflexes intact at 2+ in all extremities, gcs is 15. According to Jarvis (2016) a physical assessment of the systems coordinates together and although each system is done individually, we must as practitioners keep in mind that many of our assessments play off of each other very well and we must be cognizant of our patients and their responses both physically on exam and in the subjective sense Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. I’ve found by performing the initial health history speaks in large volumes of what the patient perceives as medical problems such as pain and what we actually find on the physical exam portion. It is very interesting and exciting while performing these assessments to think at a more advanced and critical level than how we just reviewed the systems as registered nurses. I work in an emergency department and we practice focused assessments often forgetting the person as a whole. According to Fennessey (2016) nearly 210,000 and 440,000 patients die annually due to improper and inadequate physical assessments which is preventable in nature. Sentinel events occur due to these poor assessments leading to death. Assessment is a systematic and ongoing collection of patient data that is utilized to be able to provide safe, high-quality care to those in need and we as practitioners must perform thorough physical assessments to continuously achieve positive patient outcomes (Fennessey, 2016). It is our duty to practice, practice, practice to become more knowledgeable and proficient in our skills and techniques for clinical practice. Reference: Fennessey, A. (2016). The Relationship of burnout, work environment, and knowledge to self-reported performance of physical assessment by registered nurses.  MEDSURG Nursing ,  25 (5), 346-350. Jarvis, Carolyn. (2016).  Physical examination & health assessment  (7th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier.   Collapse Subdiscussion Jade Balow Jade Balow Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 1:14am Manage Discussion Entry Jessica Hopkins, Great post this week! You did a really great job at organizing your post, clearing addressing each of the required sections. One of the hardest parts of this week for me was organizing this post to make sure that all the appropriate areas where fully addressed. This was the most detailed SOAP we have done thus far, making it more challenging for me! Overall, we are all getting the hang of this. What I enjoyed most about your post was the summary paragraph regarding the overall physical assessment of the symptoms. Providing one chief complaint of a cough has taken everyone’s SOAP note in a different direction. It is so neat to read through and see how everyone’s patient this week can be so similar and also so very different, yet we all have the same chief complaints presented to us. We are all able to use these posts and learn from one another as we all have different patients and backgrounds in assessment. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. It can be so intimidating that all of the body systems are individually complex and yet are all interrelated to one another. As we learn to assess and notice different things in our careers we will see many patterns and develop a skill set for this, but right now as fresh as it all is, you make a great point addressing the complexity of this in your post. I, too, work in an area where a focused assessment is key. Not to undermine the fact that the overall picture is also important. In the ICU it seems that we can get so focused in on certain parts of the assessment that we don’t realize that the type of assessment I do right not is nothing like the type of assessment I am preparing for with FNP program. I think that it must be very beneficial to you being an ER nurse and seeing the patients that initially come in-is like staring from ground zero-much like we will as NP. In the ICU I tend to already know what my focuses are on based on the hard work of the ED admitting MD’s that diagnose the patient and order many of the initial exam workups. Our assessment should be seen as whole, that is made up of the parts so we can inspect both, which, like you mentioned, just takes practice. The process of our assessments should be organized and well-formed so that we can provide accuracy and continuity with our approach to assessment as the NP (Konopasek, Norcini, & Krupat, 2016). I am enjoying this journey so far, I hope you are too! Reference: Konopasek, L., Norcini, J., & Krupat, E. (2016). Focusing on the formative: Building an assessment system aimed at student growth and development.  Academic Medicine, 91 (11), 1492-1497. -Jade B.     Collapse Subdiscussion Jessica Hopkins Jessica Hopkins Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 1:36pm Manage Discussion Entry Thank you Jade! I appreciate your kind words and encouragement. Not sure if you feel the same, but often our ICU’s tend to dislike the nurses in the ED. It is very hard to manage a critically ill patient while many are still coming in to be treated for other emergent situations. I give much credit to the ICU nurses as they are the advocate for the critically ill patient and your assessment skills are vital in their treatment. I don’t know if I could be an ICU full-time. I do enjoy when the patients come into our emergency department from the ground up and our goal is to stabilize them to move them to a more suitable treatment area to receive the highest quality of care much like you! According to Simone (2016) the need and demand for nurse practitioners in the critical care settings has increased tremendously and with your advanced knowledge and skills you are obtaining within your master’s program, this will hopefully allow you to do this if you chose this route as you have an upper hand on all of the ins and outs of the critical care area. The roles have evolved for NP’s in the ICU and with the proper knowledge and skill background you are currently working on along with an appropriate ICU orientation in the new role of NP in a critical care area you would be such a huge asset to the treatment plan and care of those in need of such services. With our advanced knowledge of assessment skills we are obtaining in this program and the knowledge you already have in your ICU practice, you would prove to be such a value to the practitioners of the critical care team (Simone, 2016). Collaboration between you and the physicians would greatly increase positive patient outcomes in a critical care setting.   Reference: Simone, S. (2016). Integrating Nurse Practitioners Into Intensive Care Units.  Critical Care Nurse ,  36 (6), 59-69. doi:10.4037/ccn2016360   Melissa Chick Melissa Chick Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 5:38pm Manage Discussion Entry Jessica, Thank you for your post!! I mean that whole heartedly.  I have personally been struggling on how to get the full assessment every week.  Your post provides the ROS and the assessment in detail only for the week’s specific assignment.  You have shown a light on a tough topic for me, I really appreciate the clarification. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion This will allow me to provide more details.   You quoted Jarvis (2016) by stating “physical assessment of the systems coordinates together and although each system is done individually, we must as practitioners keep in mind that many of our assessments play off of each other very well and we must be cognizant of our patients and their responses both physically on exam and in the subjective sense”.  In this week’s reading it gave a great example to prove your point.  When assessing cough, we would ask for details like duration, frequency, type, discharge, color (Jarvis, 2016).  The reasoning for this is in sputum production, it can be pulmonary in origin but we know that other systems can also play a part.  Sputum production, especially with hemoptysis, can occur with mitral stenosis.  This is why the assessment of the heart with auscultation will aid in helping rule out or find the source.  According to (Tally & O’Connor, 2014) once the physical assessment is done the diagnosis should be discussed with the patient in order of probability.  It was stated that diagnostic errors are caused from breakdown in the success of the clinical encounter (Tally & O’Connor, 2014).  How I perceived this is, if the patient comes in for a specific complaint and has given you the provider a sign of said complaint, and your diagnosis does not explain or directly related to said complaint, then the patient will not believe they have been taken care of appropriately.  Therefore, if you suspect something like discussed above, a cough may be the result of a heart problem and not a simple respiratory infection.  This information may need to be discussed in more detail.  Better patient education needs to be given so that our patients believe we are taking care of their complaints. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.   Talley, N., O’Connor, S. (2014).  Clinical examination: A systematic guide to physical diagnosis (7 th  ed.). Australia: Elsevier. Jarvis, C. (2016). Physical examination & health assessment (7th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Elsevier.   Kara Flatt Kara Flatt Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 8:04pm Manage Discussion Entry Professor and class:  Below you will find my week 3 SOAP Note using the chief complaints of headache, back pain, and cough. -Kara Week 3: SOAP Note (Subjective and Objective Portions Only)  Patient Information: K.F. 50 y/o female, Caucasian.  Has Health Alliance PPO Insurance provided by her employer, a local health department. S. CC:  “headache, back pain, and cough” HPI :    Onset: 1 week ago Location: Generalized Duration: Progressively getting worse over the last 7 days. Characteristics: Associated with poor appetite and generalized malaise Aggravating Factors: Activity Relieving Factors: Rest, fluids. Treatment: Self-care only. Rest, fluids, OTC medications. Current Medications : Lisinopil 10mg PO daily; Cymbalta 60mg PO daily; Xanax 0.25mg PO q 6hrs prn anxiety; Tylenol 500-1000mg PO q 4-6hrs prn pain/fever; Motrin 600mg PO q 6-8hrs prn pain/fever. Allergies:  PCN-urticarial rash PMHx : Hypertension, migraine headaches, anxiety, fibromyalgia.  Tonsilectomy as a child. G2P2.; All childhood vaccines UTD, last TDAP 2008; last pap smear 02/2016; last dental exam 05/2017 (no carries); does monthly self-breast exams. Soc Hx : Works full time as a RN/Director of Nurses at a local health department.  Has 2 biological daughters and an adopted son, all of whom are grown and live within a respectable distance of her.  Lives with her husband in a rural area, where she owns chickens, a cat, and a dog.  States there are weapons in the form of firearms, in the house but they are secure in a locked vault and away from their children. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion  Reports she always wears a seatbelt when driving and does not ride motorcycles.  Does own a boat and wears a lifejacket on all occasions.  Does not drink alcohol or us tobacco products of any kind.  Denies drug use.  States she walks about 1-2 miles at least 4 times a week.  Reports one sexual partner over her entire lifetime. Premenopausal. Fam Hx : Mom-hypertension, anxiety, depression, migraine headache, still living; Dad- multiple myeloma, GERD, irritable bowel syndrome.  Brother-Chron’s disease.   ROS: CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue. HEENT:  Eyes:  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclerae. Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat. (Abnormal: headache). SKIN:  No rash or itching. CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema. RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath, cough or sputum. (Abnormal: productive cough, green sputum. Dyspneic on exertion). GASTROINTESTINAL:  Poor appetite. No nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood.  Last BM yesterday 07/018/2017 soft, formed, brown. GENITOURINARY:  No dysuria, frequency, urgency, retention, or blood. Last menstrual period, 07/08/2017. NEUROLOGICAL:  No headache, dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. (Abnormal: pressure to generalized head). MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No muscle pain, back pain, joint pain or stiffness. (Abnormal: c/o back pain around ribs region that is reproducible and worse with deep breathing and coughing). HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising. LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy. PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression or anxiety (Abnormal: Anxiety. Depression. Denies suicidal/homicidal ideations. No previous psychiatric hospitalizations.) ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis (Abnormal: PCN-urticarial rash). O. Vital signs:  Temp 99.4⁰F (37.4⁰C). BP 126/62 mm Hg. Pulse 72 bpm (sitting), regular rhythm. Resp 22/min. Pulse ox 96% on room air, at rest. Physical Exam: General:  Appears stated age.  Well-developed/nourished. HEENT:  Tympanic membranes pearly gray w/ landmarks visible and intact; no discharge; mucosa pink without lesions; tonsil 1+ without exudate; no lymphadenopathy. (Abnormal: sinus congestion/pressure). Skin:  Pink, warm, dry.  Good skin turgor.  No rashes, vesicles or other abnormal findings. Respiratory: Breath sounds clear in all fields; no adventitious sounds. Regular rate and rhythm, no accessory muscle use. (Abnormal: slight insp/exp wheezes to right lower lobe). Cardiovascular:  Regular rate (72 bpm) and rhythm when sitting, S1 and S2 are not accentuated or diminished, no extra sounds.  All pulses present, 2+ and equal bilaterally.  Carotids 2+ with no carotid bruit. Abdomen:  Bowel sounds active in all quadrants.  Abdomen soft, non-tender to palpate. No enlargement of liver or spleen. Diagnostic results :  None available. In summary, our patient has been suffering from a cough, headache, and back pain, progressively getting worse over the past week.  She reports a productive cough with green sputum and increased dyspnea on exertion.  The pain in her back is located around the right side of her ribs and is reproducible and worsens with coughing or deep breathing.  On physical assessment, we have found that she also has a low-grade temperature and wheezes can be heard in her right lower lung bases.  She is also slightly tachypneic.  For these reasons and more I believe the best course of action would be to do a 2-view chest x-ray, as well as a basic CBC, CMP, and possible blood cultures.  I am anticipating her chest x-ray to show a right lower lobe consolidation, or pneumonia.  If this is the case I would treat this patient with Levaquin 750mg PO daily x 5 days.  “A high-dose (750 mg), short-course (5 days) of once-daily levofloxacin has been approved for use in the USA in the treatment of CAP, as well as acute bacterial sinusitis” (Norredin & Elkhatib, 2010).  We could also provide this patient with a metered dose, aerosol Albuterol inhaler: 180 mg, 2 puffs inhaled PO q 4-6 hrs as needed for bronchospasms or shortness of breath.  This should not exceed 12 inhalations in 24 hours.  Our patient has no known respiratory issues or other health issues that would complicate her treatment.  I believe the suspected pneumonia is the cause for the pain she reports in her back, as well as the headache that she is experiencing.  We should plan to follow up with her after her antibiotics are completed to make sure she is feeling better.  If at any time her symptoms progress or get worse she should be instructed to go to the closest ER for evaluation and treatment. -Kara References Norredin, A., & Elkhatib, W. (2010). Levoflaxicin in the treatment of community-acquired pneumonia.  Expert review of anti-infective therapy , 505-514. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.   Collapse Subdiscussion Taura Collins-Smith Taura Collins-Smith Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 8:16pm Manage Discussion Entry Patient Information: E.H., 41, Caucasian, UHC S. CC  “ headache, backache and cough” Onset:   2 months ago Location:   headache  frontal area ; backache  lower back Duration:   headache ; backache ; cough- all intermittently during day and night Characteristics:   headache  throbbing ; backache  dull, non-radiating ; cough  nonproductive, hacky Aggravating Factors:   headache  staring at computer and loud noises ; backache  standing or sitting for long periods ; cough  lying down makes it worse Relieving Factors:   headache  resting, silence ; backache  lying down ; cough  cough drops, sitting up Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Treatment:  headache & backache  Tylenol Arthritis 650mg (OTC);  cough  OTC cough drops and Robitussin OTC PMH Major Childhood Illnesses-Chickenpox, Impetigo Major Adult Illnesses-Influenza 2015 Surgeries- Cesarean section x’s 3, tonsillectomy age 15 Hospitalizations-child birth, no other overnight stays Immunizations-Last Tetanus 2015, flu vaccination-refused Allergies-No food, environmental, or medication allergies   Medications- Tylenol Arthritis 650mg 1 PO prn, Robitussin OTC PO prn, Claritin 10mg OTC PO prn, and Women’s daily multivitamin Family History Parents-both living, mother with HTN; father with non-alcoholic cirrhosis Siblings-One sister, obese but no other major medical conditions   Social History Living situation-lives in one story home with spouse Children-three children Employment-unemployed by choice   Habits Tobacco-none ETOH-socially approximately 1-2 times per month Illegal Drug Use-none   ROS CONSTITUTIONAL :  No fever, no weight loss, no weakness or fatigue HEENT:  Head :  (complaint of a frontal headache),  no head injury, denies dizziness, no congestion, syncope or vertigo.  EYES:  wears glasses, last eye exam 11/2016, no visual loss, no eye pain, no blurred or double vision.  Ears : Denies hearing loss, earache, tinnitus or vertigo. Nose: no discharge, no sneezing, no stuffy nose, no epistaxis.  Throat:  no difficulty swallowing, no sore throat. RESPIRATORY:  No SOB, no dyspnea,  (complaint of occasional cough) CARDIOVASCULAR:  No palpitations, no chest pain, no edema NEUROLOGICAL:  (has headache), no dizziness, syncope, seizure, tremors, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No joint stiffness, weakness or swelling,  (acute low back pain) GASTROINTESTINAL : No anorexia, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea  GENITOURINARY:  No burning on urination, no increase in frequency or urgency, last menses 7/05, O. PHYSICAL EXAM-  5’5’’, 135 lbs, BMI 22.5, BP 116/68, HR 80, Temp 98.7, RR 18 CONSTITUTIONAL:  Appears to be well nourished, dressed appropriately, no apparent distress noted, gait normal HEENT:  Head: Complaint of an  occasional headache , head is normocephalic, no lesions, lumps, scaling, parasites, or tenderness, face is symmetric, no weakness, no involuntary movement.  Eyes : R: 20/20, L: 20/20-1, Both 20/15 Visual field full by confrontation. EOMs intact, no nystagmus, no ptosis, lid lag, discharge, or crusting.  Cornel light reflex symmetric, no strabismus noted. Conjunctivae clear, sclera white, redness, Pupils 3mm resting, 2mm constricted, and + bilaterally.  PERRLA.  Ears:  Pinna with no masses or lesions, scaling, discharge, or tenderness to palpation. Canals clear. Tympanic membrane: pearly gray landmarks intact, no perforation, cone of light present. Whispered words heard bilaterally.  Nose:  No deformities or tenderness, to palpation. Nares patent.  Mucosa pink, no lesions.  Septum midline, no perforation.  No sinus tenderness.  Mouth &   Throat:  mucosa and gingivae pink and moist, no lesions to buccal mucosa, soft or hard palate, no bleeding. Teeth are white, straight, evenly spaced, clean and free from debris or decay. Gums looks pink, margins at the teeth are tight and well-defined. Tongue is pink and even, saliva present, symmetric, protrudes midline. Tonsils pink, grade 2. NEUROLOGIC Cranial nerves: I-Olfactory  able to identify an odor with each nostril,  II- optic nerve , Snellen Eye Chart vision is R: 20/20, L: 20/20-1, Both 20/15 Visual field full by confrontation. Corneal light reflex symmetric bilaterally, conjunctiva clear, sclera white, Optic fundus visualized.  Cranial nerve III-  pupils are centrally placed in the iris and equal in size bilaterally. PERRLA.  Cranial nerve IV -clenches and releases jaw, able to feel cotton sensation test on forehead, cheeks, and chin.  Cranial nerve V-  Trigeminal nerve: Muscles are equally strong on both sides, intact touch sensation to ophthalmic, maxillary& mandibular.  Cranial nerve VI Abducens – moves eyes laterally as directed.  VII-facial nerve – mobility and facial symmetry when smiling, frowning, eye close tightly, show teeth and puff cheeks.  VIII- Acoustic(vestibulocochlear) nerve : hears  normal conversation with a whispered voice.  IX & X- Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves . Uvula and soft palate rise in the midline, tonsillar moved medially.  XI- Spinal Accessory Nerve : sternomastoid and trapezius are equal sizes and equally strong.  XII-hypoglossal nerve : no wasting or tremor to the tongue, forward thrust to midline, speech is clear and distinct.  The neuro-ophthalmology examination is crucial in the assessment of patients with the complaint of a simple headache.  By examining the visual acuity, pupils, motility, and fundus, key clues can be discovered and possibly unveil the potential primary and/or secondary cause of a patient’s headache (Friedman & Digre, 2013).  This exam is key in the evaluation of headaches and is often overlooked by providers. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion MUSCULOSKELETAL Joints with normal alignment and size, no mass, or deformity noted. All joints noted to have normal temperature. Full ROM with some resistance, temporomandibular joint protrudes without deviation, no crepitus, snapping, of instability noted. Temporalis and masseter muscles are the same size, firmness and strength. Cervical spine is straight and head erect. Head and neck aligned, sternomastoid, trapezius, and paravertebral muscle are firm, no muscle spasms or tenderness. Flexion with full resistance, no pain noted. Bilateral shoulders with equal bony landmarks, normal size and contour, with no pain, redness, muscular atrophy, deformity, heat or swelling. Pyramid –shaped axilla palpated no mass or adenopathy present. Full range of motion present with no crepitation noted. Elbow: tissue and fat pad feel fairly solid. No heat, swelling, tenderness, consistency or nodule noted in the area of the olecranon bursa, feels fairly solid. Elbow with full ROM. Wrist and hand: fingers lie straight in the same axis as the forearm, no swelling or redness, deformity, or nodules are present bilaterally. Skin is smooth and knuckle wrinkles present, no swelling or lesions, bogginess nodules or tenderness noted bilaterally. Full ROM noted bilaterally. Phalen test completed- no numbness, or burning reported. Tinel sign (-) completed no burning or tingling noted. Lower extremity: normal ROM and 5/5 strength in all extremities, no joint enlargement or tenderness; no clubbing, cyanosis, petechiae, or nodes of digits and nails.  Hip joints symmetric as well as iliac crests, gluteals folds, and equally sized buttocks noted.  Equal leg lengths and functional hip motion assess during gait assessment. Hip flexion WNL.  Lower legs extend in the same axis as the thigh. No swelling or warmth noted around patella joint. No abnormal swelling noted around the prepaterllar bursa or suprapatellar bursa. Muscles and soft tissues feel solid and smooth, with no warmth, tenderness, or thickening noted. No atrophy noted in quadriceps bilaterally.  ROM, flexion and extension WNL bilaterally.  Muscle strength 5/5 in both knees. Ankle and Foot aligned properly. Feet aligned with long axis of lower legs. Weight bearing falls in the middle of the foot. Both feel with a longitudinal arch. The toes point straight forward and lie flat.  Ankles (malleoli) are smooth with even coloring and no lesions. No calluses or bursal reactions noted bilaterally.  ROM WNL in ankles and all toes. Muscle strength 5/5. Spine is straight as evidenced by equal horizontal positions of the shoulders, scapulae, iliac crests, and gluteal folds. Spinous processes are straight and non-tender. Flexion 90 degrees with smoothness and symmetry of movement. No lumbar curvature noted. Tenderness in  lumbosacral  area , dull pain  reported upon examination and palpation, exacerbates when changing positions for the examination.  No Costovertebral Angle Tenderness. CARDIOPULMONARY: Carotid arteries palpated individually with a smooth contour and normal strength noted bilaterally. Anterior chest with even color and hair distribution.  Apical pulse palpable in the 4 th  medial intercostal space.  Normal amplitude and duration noted.  Aortic, Pulmonic, Tricuspid, and Mitral Valves auscultated, normal sinus rhythm at 80 beats per minute. S1 and S2 are normal. No edema noted bilaterally. Capillary refill noted at 1 second.  No scars on hands and arms. Radial pulses palpable, regular rhythm with 2+ force.  Epitrochlear lymph nodes are not palpable.  Modified Allen test performed and adequate circulation noted by palmar blush and return to normal color of the hands within 5 seconds.  Bilateral legs with symmetry, even color, even temperature, and normal hair distribution.  No skin lesions or ulcers noted. No tenderness noted upon palpation.  Inguinal lymph nodes are small, moveable and non-tender.  Peripheral arteries, femoral arteries, popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are palpable, with no abnormalities noted.  No edema noted bilaterally.  Lungs auscultated in all lung fields anteriorly and posteriorly and noted to be clear with no adventitious sounds. Resonance sounds noted to percussion.  Occasional non-productive cough noted during the exam. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.  No lesions, scars, or wounds noted on chest.  Thoracic cage is symmetric and the scapulae are placed symmetrically in each hemithorax.  Skin color is normal and even over the entire body. No cyanosis or pallor present. Symmetric expansion of chest noted from posterior and anterior testing. GASTROINTESTINAL:   Abdomen is flat and round, smooth and symmetric, skin smooth with no lesions, bowel sounds present in all four quadrants, tympany predominates in all quadrants, abdomen soft to touch, dullness heard over liver and spleen.  No bruits heard over abdominal aorta, renal arteries, or iliac arteries.  Liver, kidney and spleen non-palpable; no tenderness on palpation, no organomegaly, no mass, tenderness, Umbilicus midline and inverted. Liver is in the RUQ. Reference Friedman, D. I., & Digre, K.B. (2013).  Headache medicine meets neuro-ophthalmology:  exam techniques and challenging cases.  Headache, 53 (4), 703-716.  doi: 10.1111/head.12058   Collapse Subdiscussion Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 7:36pm Manage Discussion Entry Thanks Taura, Be sure to post a summary of your case with your primary care recommendations/interventions based on the current guidelines and evidence. Let me know if you have any questions. Dr. L   Taura Collins-Smith Taura Collins-Smith Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 6:12pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Dr Lunsford, I guess I am a little confused. I thought that we only needed the S AND O. Thanks   Collapse Subdiscussion Melissa Chick Melissa Chick Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 8:52pm Manage Discussion Entry SOAP Note Patient Information: A.B., Age: 40, Sex: female, Race: Caucasian, Insurance: Arkansas BCBS S. CC: Patient complains of headache, back pain, and cough Onset: 1 Week Location: generalized headache, lower back pain, and cough Duration: started a week ago, cough is persistent, back pain and headache are constant and have been present all week Characteristics: pain is worse after being still in the lower back (sleeping, sitting too long) cough is nagging Aggravating Factors:  No difference with eating but movement is uncomfortable. Cough worse in the mornings. Relieving Factors: OTC cough suppressant has helped a little, OTC Aleve helps minimally with headache and back pain Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Treatment: OTC Aleve, OTC Guaifenesin 200mg q6h. Current Medications: OTC Aleve, OTC Guaifenesin 200mg q6h, multiple vitamin. Allergies: Penicillin and Sulfa drugs. PMHx: Surgical history includes C-section 2000.  Last PCP visit and annual physical exam April 2017 at Mercy Primary Care.  Influenza vaccine: not current, never gets flu shot, and Tetanus immunization: was 2015.  Reports no major childhood illnesses.  Reports no illnesses as an adult. Hospitalized for UTI during pregnancy in 2000.  Patient has a sister with no medical problems. Soc Hx: Patient is a second-grade teacher, married with two daughters.  Currently lives with husband and both daughters, never a tobacco user, never used illegal drugs, and occasional alcohol use 1 x month.  Always wears his seatbelt. Fam Hx: Patient’s father has diabetes insulin dependent, high blood pressure, hx of cellulitis, obesity.  Patient’s mother has hx of breast cancer, double mastectomy 2009. ROS: CONSTITUTIONAL:  No weight loss, fever, chills, weakness or fatigue. HEENT:  Eyes:  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclera. Ears, Nose, Throat:  No hearing loss, sneezing, congestion, runny nose or sore throat. SKIN:  No rash or itching. CARDIOVASCULAR:  No chest pain, chest pressure or chest discomfort. No palpitations or edema. RESPIRATORY:  No shortness of breath, cough is present, no sputum. GASTROINTESTINAL:  No anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. No abdominal pain or blood. GENITOURINARY:  No burning on urination, no sores or lesions, no discharge or hernia. Multipara. Last menstrual period, 06/25/2017. NEUROLOGICAL:  Generalized headache, no dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, numbness or tingling in the extremities. No change in bowel or bladder control. MUSCULOSKELETAL:  No muscle pain, back pain present in lower back, no joint pain, but stiffness is present. HEMATOLOGIC:  No anemia, bleeding or bruising. LYMPHATICS:  No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy. PSYCHIATRIC:  No history of depression, report feeling anxious sometimes. ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES:  No history of asthma, hives, eczema or rhinitis. Physical exam: The patient posture is erect with no involuntary movements, appearance is appropriate for season and setting.  Patient is awake, alert, and oriented.  Patient is articulate and converses appropriately. Vitals: BP 96/54, P 72, R 17, T 98.6 Skin: pink, dry, normal turgor Normal in appearance, texture, and temperature HEENT: Head is normo-cephalic, no evidence of tenderness or trauma, pupils equally round, reactive to light and accommodation, sclera and conjunctiva normal.  Pinnae is normal no tenderness, tympanic membranes and external auditory canals normal. Nose is straight with no masses, patent bilaterally.  Nasal mucosa normal.  No tenderness on frontal or maxillary sinuses.  Oral pharynx is normal without erythema or exudate. Tongue and gums are normal. Neck: Supple with full range of motion, no neck vein distention or nodes detected in cervical or supraclavicular areas. Trachea is midline and thyroid gland is normal without masses. Carotid artery upstroke is normal bilaterally without bruits. Chest: Normal anterior-posterior diameter, symmetric excursion bilaterally, normal tactile fremitus bilaterally, lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion bilaterally.  No heaves, thrills, or murmurs present.  Apical pulse at 5 th ICS at MCL, S1 and S2 are not diminished or accentuated. Abdomen: The abdomen is symmetrical without distention; bowel sounds are normal in quality and intensity in all 4 quadrants. No masses or splenomegaly no hepatomegaly.  No palpable nodes in the axillary or inguinal areas. Musculoskeletal: Temporomandibular joint: no slipping or crepitation.  Neck: full ROM, no pain, vertebral column: no tenderness, no deformity or curvature, full extension, lateral bending, rotation.  Arms symmetric, extremities have full ROM, no pain, no crepitation.  Muscle strength: patient able to maintain flexion against resistance and without tenderness. Neurological: Mental status: appearance behavior, speech are appropriate.  A&O x 3.  Cranial nerves I-XII are normal. Motor and sensory examination of the upper and lower extremities is normal.  Gait and cerebellar function are also normal. Reflexes are normal and symmetrical bilaterally in both extremities.   In assessment of pain there are several mnemonics that can help.  One that I found during research is called VINDICATE.  This mnemonic is aimed at determining the etiology of the pain (Morgenstern, 2012).     Pain can be considered a disease itself, but it is almost always a comorbidity.  If the underlying pathological process is found and treated, the management of pain can be decline.  The mnemonic is: V irus- An infectious process that maybe viral, bacterial, or fungal. I nflammation- Such as vasculopathies, neuropathies, and arthropathy. N eoplasm- Tumors, metastases, and other cancer related conditions. D egenerative- Pathology such as spinal and bone disorders. I diopathic- Ischemia, hypoxemia, neural hyperexcitability, and claudication. C ongenital- Metabolism and/or genetic diseases that cause aberrant pain and sensory processing. A utoimmune- Antigen/antibody reactions, cellular changes, protein metabolism T rauma- Tissue destruction from an accident, injury, or chemical exposure. E ndocrine- Abnormal hormone levels, glucose metabolism, and electrolyte variations. (Morgenstern, 2012) This mnemonic may help us as providers in narrowing down the source of pain so that errors or misdiagnosis do not occur.  According to (Morgenstern, 2012) many errors happen due to medical biases.  The use of mnemonics like this can aid in reducing biases or patient harm.  The article also discussed how as novices we are more susceptible to biases so utilizing the simple techniques may help us in our futures (Morgenstern, 2012) Morgenstern, B. (2012).  Guidebook for Clerkship Directors: Fourth Edition.  Alliance for Clinical Education.  Retrieved from:  https://books.google.com/books?hl=en&lr=&id=_uhaBAAAQBAJ&oi=fnd&pg=PA125&dq=why+use+Vindicate+mnemonic+&ots=wSSg5K41Ge&sig=m4aE_Ewd3qNaGj_d8TEuwgx2Fw0#v=onepage&q&f=falseLinks to an external site. I attached in a word document also since I believe this messed up my APA format. Melissa   Collapse Subdiscussion Taura Collins-Smith Taura Collins-Smith Jul 21, 2017Jul 21 at 8:41am Manage Discussion Entry Hi Melissa, as I was reading through some of the discussions I came across your post and found the mnemonic VINDICATE very intriguing. I decided to do a little research to learn more about it and actually ended up finding another VINDICATE mnemonic used in a patient undergoing testing for chronic cervicogenic headaches for three years. In this case report, the author suggested using VINDICATE to exclude all red flags and possible underlying etiologies of pain (Vascular, Inflammatory, Neoplastic, Degenerative, Infectious, Connective tissue disorders, Autoimmune disorders, Trauma, Endocrinopathies) before performing the joint block for this patient’s disorder  (Shantanu, 2013). Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. The pneumonic that you used is similar in many ways. I noticed that there are many correlations between the two VINDICATE mnemonics. For example, both of the initial I(s) represent inflammation; both N(s) represent cancer or neoplasm; both D(s) represent degenerative disease; both A(s) represent autoimmune disease, both T(s) represent trauma; and both E(s) represent the endocrine system. Therefore the V, second I, and the C are the only letters that don’t reference the same system when comparing the two. I attempted to find additional articles but had no luck. Your article better explains how to apply the mnemonic to practice, whereas my article was very vague. Thank you for enlightening us on this helpful tidbit that we as future practitioners can use in our upcoming practice when assessing our patient’s pain. Reference Shantanu, M. P., (2013). Lateral atlanto-axial joint block for cervical headache.    Indian Journal of Pain, (27) 2, 103-107.  doi:  10.4103/0970-5333.119346   Melissa Chick Melissa Chick Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 7:56pm Manage Discussion Entry Taura, I really liked the idea behind the mnemonic also.  When in a hard to diagnose situation something like this that guides us to rule out sources of the problem will help us to avoid diagnostic errors.  Personally as a novice I would like as many tools available to me to allow my patient to have the best possible care.  I also find it interesting how many of the letters may stand for something else.  This might be a mnemonic that can be used in many different areas of the body systems.   Collapse Subdiscussion Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 7:37pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Melissa, What would you do for this patient? Dr. L   Melissa Chick Melissa Chick Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 7:49pm Manage Discussion Entry Dr. L My recommendation for this patient would include further investigation into chief complaint, and possible environmental factors that may be associated with complaints.  With this patient having a normal physical examination I would proceed with lab work such as CBC, BMP, and urinalysis.  Many inspiratory muscles like the diaphragm can be related to low back pain so this may be associated with the persistent cough.  I would also recommend chest x-ray.  The patient may have environmental allergies producing the cough, which may also lead to the headache, and low back pain.  Specific questions on allergens needs to be asked regarding exposure to: dust mites, pet allergens, mold, indoor pollutants; smoke, combustion, wood or plant fuels, biologic agents, airborne pollutants, humidity, etc (Peden & Reed, 2010).  Also, further investigation into history of recurrent respiratory infections, nighttime cough, exercise intolerance, wheezing, and exacerbations caused by viral illness (Peden & Reed, 2010). Peden, D., & Reed, C.  (2010).  Environmental and occupational allergies.   Journal of Allergy and Clinical Immunology , S2; 150-160.   Catherine Orakpo Catherine Orakpo Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 7:20pm Manage Discussion Entry Hello Mellisa, I totally agree with you about using the mnemonics to help reduce patient harm. The “VINDICATE” mnemonic appears to have covered most major question that a healthcare provider will ask to determine a state of illness in a client.  Healthcare providers are constantly discovering what an asset mnemonics have become to patient assessment in terms of aiding memory in remembering in orderly method without leaving important details out during assessment. These mnemonics help with problem solving. During the era of ABC mnemonic which implied Airway Breathing & Circulation this was effectively used to teach basic life support foundations as cited by (Yeoh, 2013). Keeping Airway open was important in other to prevent increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide, as it provides for effective ventilation as cited by (Connolly et al., 2012). These Mnemonics are quite helpful especially the “VINDICATE” mnemonic that covers different areas during assessment and will be likely to detect state of illness wherever it exists. Great post!! References   Connolly E.S., & Rabinstein A.A., & Carhuapoma J.R., & Derdeyn C.P., & Dion J., & Higashida R.T., & Vespa P. (2012). Guidelines for the management of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemmorrhage:  A guideline for healthcare professionals from the American Heart Association/American Stroke Association . Stroke, 43, 1711 – 37. 10.1161/STR.0b013e3182587839   Yeoh M. (2013, November). The effectiveness of musical mnemonics in teaching biology: Kreb cycle.  Conference Proceedings–5th International Conferenc e on Science and Mathematics Education , Penang, Malaysia.   Collapse Subdiscussion Catherine Orakpo Catherine Orakpo Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 11:53pm Manage Discussion Entry Hello Dr Lunsford & classmates,   SOAP Note K.C is a 27 year old African American female, Insurance Blue Cross Blue Shield. CC (chief complaint ) Unbearable headache that radiates to the neck and back as well as cough that is worse at night for the past 2 days”. OBJECTIVE:  Crucial Signs: Weight 177 lbs., Height 5’5 inches, Temperature 99.4 orally, Pulse 76, Respiration 20, B/P 118/70. HPI Onse t: 2 days ago Location : Generalized pain in the head Duration : Continuous head pain Characteristics : Headache Pulsates, severely intense and prohibits daily activities. Aggravated  by walking stairs, movement of any sort including routine activities. Sensitivity to light noted. Relieving Factors : Warm compress, Motrin or Tylenol Treatment:  Motrin and Tylenol can treat mild forms of headache Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion.   Allergies: NKDA Patients Medical History   Random migraine attacks, past surgical history appendectomy 2 years ago, random cough, wheezing and shortness of breath. Experiences low back pain especially after sitting in a spot for prolonged time. Last PCP visit and annual exam  5 months ago. Flu shot:  current Family history: Father:    Alive and active in the work force Mother:  Alive and have random migraine headaches Siblings:  Random migraine attacks. Social History: KC has close relationship with family especially parents and siblings, feels safe at home environment. Client works as a computer analyst in a computer firm. Hobbies include movies, outdoor activities.  Patient denies smoking and drinking ROS:   CONSTITUTIONAL :  No weight loss, severe headache, back pain and cough present   HEENT: Head:  scalp dry but not scaly. Eyes:  patient is using reading contact lens. Last eye exam 2 months ago & WNL.  No visual loss, blurred vision, double vision or yellow sclera noted. Ears:  No hearing loss or drainage present, denies hearing changes, tinnitus and vertigo. Nose:  Small drainage noted in the nasal cavity. Throat:  soreness from frequent coughing. SKIN:   Warm, dry, normal turgor, no rash, denies itching Neck -denies firmness, swelling, or torment   CARDIOVASCULAR :  No chest pain, pressure or discomfort. No palpitations or edema noted. RESPIRATORY:   denies shortness of breath with regular activities, such as climbing stairs, walking for 20 min of time, coughing present.   GASTROINTESTINAL :  no anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea; no abdominal pain or blood in stool. No abnormality detected when palpated, bowel sound present in 4 quadrants.   GENITOURINARY:   patient denies signs and symptoms of UTI, denies hesitancy, urgency, burning, no complaints reported.   NEUROLOGICAL:  Excruciating headache present, patient denies dizziness, vertigo, tingling, loss of sensation. No change in bowel or bladder control.   MUSCULOSKELETAL :  Patient complains of back pain which rates 4/10 on a pain scale Patient takes acetaminophen or ibuprofen as needed for pain.   HEMATOLOGIC:   No anemia, bleeding or bruising noted. CBC pending.   LYMPHATICS:   No enlarged nodes. No history of splenectomy.   PSYCHIATRIC:   patient has no history of depression & has strong family support   ENDOCRINOLOGIC:  No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. Lactose intolerance present   Migraine (784.0)  is a chronic neurovascular disorder that causes recurring headaches and disturbances in the perception of pain, light, and sound as cited by (Chawla, 2016).  Migraine was previously believed to be caused by cerebral arterial vasoconstriction and rebound dilation, migraine is now thought to be a neurogenic process that causes secondary vascular changes that affect cerebral perfusion. Evidence has shown that genetic predisposition to migraine can be primarily inherited from the mother.  Migraine often begins during childhood or adolescence and recurs throughout adulthood and it can be triggered by environmental and biologic stimuli such as stress, menstruation, vasodilators, insufficient or excessive sleep, bright lights, caffeine, alcohol, and food containing nitrates,  monosodium glutamate and tyramine- or tryptophan-rich foods (e.g., ripe cheeses, red wine, chocolate). Clinical manifestation includes throbbing, pounding, or pulsating pain that is usually hemi-cranial and lasts 4–72 hours as cited by (Chawla, 2016). Additional clinical manifestations include nausea, vomiting, anorexia, fatigue, increased sensitivity to light and/or sound, numbness, tingling, and weakness and others might experience  aura (i.e., neurologic disturbances, including flashing lights, blind spots, tunnel vision, and “seeing stars” that develop over a period of 5–20 minutes and resolve within 1 hour). Physical Exam: KC has quiet demeanor with clear and proper discourse. Head standard cephalic, denies trauma, no hematomas, or delicacy to palpation Neck supple with full ROM. Eyes-PERRLA, conjunctiva clear without redness. Visual fields full to showdown. EOM’s full, no ptosis.  Optic circles sharp without papilledema, macula in place. Facial nerves functional.  Hearing in place client responds to whispered words, External ears without injury. Auricle, tragus, a mastoid contender to palpation Ear channel and tympanic layer pictured are functional and without lesion. Choke reflex and tongue development in place and full. No lymphadenopathy. Moves all furthest points 5/5 quality Coordination in place with a finger to nose testing Sensation in place to stick prick and touch all through. Reflexes 2+ all through, with plantar reactions down going Romberg testing negative. Client owned stressful work schedule and environment. Immunization current, (last tetanus shot 2/25/2011), recent flu illness and still coughing. Never had surgical procedure. A diagnostic workup headache history includes age of onset of headaches; duration of complaint; frequency and duration of each headache; site, quality, and time of onset; associated phenomena; and aggravating and relieving factors. Physical examination, including neurologic examination, is typically normal. Some patients experience substantial burden from their migraines. The Migraine Disability Assessment Scale (MIDAS) is a five-item questionnaire that is used in practice to help healthcare providers. Treatment:  Rizatriptan can be used to treat migraine as well as evaluate patients understanding of medication and make determination whether education needs is required. Other products used in the treatment of migraine are Salicylates, ibuprofen, almotriptan, eletriptan, frovatriptan, naratriptan, rizatriptan, sumatriptan, zolmitripta. It is also important to educate patients that although migraine cannot be cured but that symptoms can usually be managed with appropriate drug therapy. Healthcare provider will educate patient about prevention and management of migraine as well as encourage patient to keep a headache diary to identify triggers. Neurologist consult may be recommended. Non-pharmacology:   Patient can lie down in a dark, quiet room when a migraine occurs or place a cold cloth over the eyes. Eating regularly scheduled meals is recommended as well as maintaining good fluid intake to avoid dehydration. Muscle relaxation, meditation, acupuncture, massage or biofeedback training can help to reduce stress. Pharmacology:  In severe symptoms administration of these medications will be beneficial    rizatriptan Tablets: 5, 10 mg 5 mg q2h not to exceed 30 mg daily. Motrin 800mg TID Sumatriptan Tablets: 25, 50, 100 mg 25, 50, 100 mg q2h and not to exceed 200 mg daily. Motrin  800 mg TID, aspirin and Tylenol 600 mg QID and not to exceed 2400 mg daily. This can be used to treat the mild to moderate form of migraine. Patient will be encouraged to seek emergency medical attention for new or worsening symptoms and to notify the treating physician if migraines change in pattern, frequency, or intensity.   Cervico/Disco-genic pain (M.54 . 5)  is usually worse in positions that involve prolonged sitting, especially in sitting positions with a protruded head posture or prolonged flexion. Bending positions also provoke cervicogenic pain. These positions can predispose KC to this differential diagnosis because of the type of work she does for a living especially sitting for too long at a time and analyzing data in a computer. Frequent changes of position provide relief. However, in cases of severe acute pain, a still position may be most comfortable. Pain worse upon awakening is probably related to using an unsuitable pillow or having adopted an inappropriate posture while sleeping. Treatment:  Early referral to Physical Therapy can be very helpful. There are basic measures that have relieved back pain such as proper positioning in bed. Pharmacotherapy is the most common treatment for Low Back Pain as cited by  (Goertz, 2016).   Treatments with NSAIDs, gentle exercise, and maintenance of activity has proving effective. Patients may also find some acute relief lying on the floor supine with their lower legs and feet resting on a cushioned chair seat. When patient is not responding to treatment epidural glucocorticoid injection (e.g., with methylprednisolone) is a reasonable consideration for temporary relief. This can be administered by a certified nurse anesthetist under fluoroscopic guidance, a needle is inserted and advanced into the epidural space allowing injection of anesthetic and glucocorticosteroids to be administered. The use of topical anesthetic (e.g., lidocaine) helps to determine proper needle placement, immediate pain relief indicates proper positioning, but a worsening of radicular pain during the procedure is a sign of needle misplacement.   Bronchitis (J40):  can be defined as lower respiratory tract infection, especially in patients who present with a productive cough. The cough reflex removes large particles from the lower airways, and ciliated epithelium and mucus in the bronchial tree capture particles too small to be removed by coughing.  Clinical manifestation includes cough due to mucous production and irritation of airways, wheezing due to inflammation within the airways.  Differential diagnosis for cough can be extensive, including common and uncommon disorders as cited by (Weinberger, 2014). Work up will start with differentiating lower respiratory tract infection from the other causes of cough and from upper respiratory infection. Good physical exam is recommended.CAT Scan pending. Treatment:  Suppression is not encouraged in patients with acute cough because the cough reflex remains an important defense mechanism. In most studies, cough resolves in 1 week regardless of treatment, and persistence of cough in 2 weeks was not unusual. Healthy patients with acute bronchitis should be treated with conservative measures for cough and counseled about the natural history of the disease. Expectorants such as guaifenesin may be helpful to some patients in loosening the sputum, although they have not been proven to make a significant difference in outcome.  Prescribed  Mucinex 600-1200 mg po q12h; maximum dose 2400 mg/day.   References Chawla, J. (2016, April 19).  Migraine headache . Medscape. Retrieved April 25, 2016, from http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/1142556-overview (RV)   Goertz, M., Thorson, D., Bonsell, J., Bonte, B., Campbell, R., Haake, B., … Timming, R. (2012). Adult acute and subacute low back pain.  Institute for Clinical Systems Improvement.  Retrieved November 8, 2016, from https://www.icsi.org/_asset/bjvqrj/LBP.pdf (G)   Weinberger M, Fischer A.  Differential diagnosis of chronic cough in children . Allergy Asthma Proc 2014; 35: 95–103.   Catherine Orakpo Catherine Orakpo Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 8:27pm Manage Discussion Entry Hello Dr Lunsford & classmates, (Omitted data from previous submission) THE MENTAL STATUS EXAMINATION KC appears hygienic and well groomed, oriented x3 language is not slurred or abnormal. Good insight and affect noted.  Cognitive skill intact. HEENT Inspect the face and no swelling noted, facial symmetry Palpated for sinus tenderness and noted facial grimacing, client acknowledged moderate pain in the frontal and temporal lobes. Inspected the neck and Palpated neck, lymph nodes not palpable.   Auscultate bilateral carotid pulse. NEUROLOGICAL EXAM: I: olfactory nerve intact, client able to smell. II: Vision 20/40 bilaterally, peripheral fields intact by confrontation, optic fundus normal bilaterally. III, IV, VI: extraocular movement by cardinal positions of gaze intact bilaterally, no ptosis or nystagmus noted, PERRLA with pupil size of 3mm present, palpebral fissures equal bilaterally. V: Sensation intact bilaterally throughout face and equal jaw strength and movement. VII: facial muscles intact and symmetric. VIII: whispered words heard bilaterally IX, X: swallowing intact with positive gag reflex, uvula and soft palate rises midline. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion XI: Able to shrug shoulder, move head, equally bilaterally. XII: tongue midline, able to stick tongue out, no tremors noted and speech clear.         Christine Wood Christine Wood Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 12:59pm Manage Discussion Entry Catherine, I am happy to read your SOAP note, which offers non-pharmacologic treatments for resolution of the patient’s complaints. In my own practice, I hope to provide my patients with the opportunity utilize non-pharmacologic remedies, as well.  While there are many non-pharmacologic remedies that can be offered, one that has shown some success is biofeedback.  According to a study by Rausa et al. (2013), tension in the frontalis muscle was measured to set a baseline and then during the training (p. 3).  This study found reduced frequency of headaches, as well as a reduction in the amount of pharmaceuticals needed (p. 6). In the area where I reside, biofeedback is not an easily accessible option. Patients would have to travel over an hour to receive treatments.  However, there are other options that would be more readily available, such as regular massage therapy. Rene Rausa, M., Palomba, D., Cevoli, S., Lazzerini, L., Sancisi, E., Cortelli, P., & Pierangeli, G. (2016). Biofeedback in the prophylactic treatment of medication overuse headache: a pilot randomized controlled trial.  Journal Of Headache & Pain, 17 (1), 1-8. doi:10.1186/s10194-016-0679-9 Week3.Peer.Response.docx   (1 like)   Sherry Boyd Sherry Boyd Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 7:59pm Manage Discussion Entry Catherine, Great job on your assessment! I found your post to be very informative. Migraines are something that I do not have any personal experience with. However, I have heard from friends and colleagues how disabling they can be. According to Diener, Charles, Goadsby, and Holle (2015) non-medical approaches to preventing a migraine include exercise, relaxation techniques, counselling, and stress management. These non-medical approaches to preventing migraines are not always effective. Prevention with medication needs to be discussed as necessary. Currently, B-blockers, anti-epileptics, calcium channel blockers, angiotensin II receptor antagonist inhibitors, and antidepressants are used for migraine prevention (Diener, Charles, Goadsby, & Holle, 2015). These medications have been shown to reduce the frequency of migraines by up to 50 % in approximately 45 % of patients (Diener, Charles, Goadsby, & Holle, 2015). The adverse effects of these medications contribute to a reduction in compliance. Research is underway to find a “better” medication to prevent migraines. One type of medication that is showing promising results is an antibody against calcitonin gene-related peptide receptor antagonist (CGRP) (Diener, Charles, Goadsby, & Holle, 2015).  For those people who suffer with migraines, hopefully, research continues until there is a proven medication that is beneficial in preventing migraines. Sherry Boyd References Diener, H., Charles, A., Goadsby, P. J., & Holle, D. (2015). New therapeutic approaches for the prevention and treatment of migraine. The Lancet Neurology, 14(10), 1010-1022. doi:http://dx.doi.org.proxy.chamberlain.edu:8080/10.1016/S1474-4422 (15)00198-2   Kara Flatt Kara Flatt Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 8:11pm Manage Discussion Entry Catherine- Thanks so much for your post!  I really enjoyed reading your assessment and summary.  My questions revolve around your diagnosis’.  If you choose migraine and cervico-discogenic pain as your top 2 priorities, how do you explain the cough?  Is is scant and intermitant to where we shouldn’t even worry about it, or is it the dominating factor?  As NPs I think it is important for us to see the whole picture.  Thanks! -Kara   Collapse Subdiscussion Sherry Boyd Sherry Boyd Jul 18, 2017Jul 18 at 11:59pm Manage Discussion Entry Dr. Lunsford and Class- SOAP Note T.B., 43 yr. old, Caucasian male, BCBS S. CC  (chief complaint) :  Headache, back pain, and cough HPI: Onset:  Cough began 6 days ago; back pain and headache began 2 days ago Location:  Generalized cough, generalized mid back, generalized frontal headache Duration:  Headache and back pain constant with varying degrees of discomfort, cough consistent Characteristics:  Associated with fatigue Aggravating Factors:  Coughing makes the headache and back pain worse Relieving Factors:  OTC pain medication decreases the back pain and headache Treatment:  Tylenol 650 mg PO every 4 hours for head and back pain; OTC Robitussin 2 teaspoons PO every 4 hours for cough Current Medications:  Simvastatin 20 mg PO at bedtime; Zoloft 100 mg PO daily; Tylenol 650 mg PO every 4 hours as needed for pain; Robitussin cough syrup 2 teaspoons PO every 4 hours as needed for cough Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Allergies:  No allergies to food, medication, or environment. PMHx:  Last tetanus vaccine 2012. Last influenza vaccine October 2016. Surgeries include: tonsillectomy 2011 and ORIF right ankle 2016. Soc Hx:  Works as a telecommunication specialist at AT & T. Married with 4 children. Drinks 2 beers approximately 3 times per week.  Quit smoking cigarettes 15 years ago, currently uses an ecig. Denies illegal drug use. Fam Hx: Maternal grandmother: Parkinson’s; died in her late 80s from complications related to Parkinson’s disease. Maternal grandfather: Colon Cancer; died in his early 60s from colon cancer. Paternal grandmother: COPD, obesity; died in her early 70s from COPD. Paternal grandfather: died in his mid 60s from “blood” cancer Mother: hypertension, depression Father: alcoholism, anxiety, depression, hypertension Son; daughter 1: ADHD, anxiety Daughter 2; daughter 3: No health issues ROS: CONSTITUTIONAL: No weight loss, fever, chills, or weakness. Experiencing fatigue HEENT: Eyes: no difficulty with vision or double vision. No eye pain, discharge, lesions, or inflammation. No corrective lenses. EARS, NOSE, THROAT: No hearing loss, earaches, or drainage. No nasal discharge, congestion. No mouth lesions or pain. No dysphagia. SKIN: No rash or itching. CARIOVASCULAR: No chest pain, dyspnea with exertion, orthopnea, palpitations, or cyanosis. No nocturia or edema. (Has hyperlipidemia) RESPIRATORY: No pain with breathing, wheezing, or shortness of breath. Smoked cigarettes for 11 years x 1 ½ ppd. Pack years: 16.5. Quit smoking cigarettes15 years ago. Currently uses e cig. GASTROINTESTINAL: No anorexia, nausea, vomiting or diarrhea. Denies abdominal pain or bleeding. GENITOURINARY: Denies burning with urination, frequency, or inability to begin urinating. NEUROLOGICAL: No weakness, dizziness, tremors, memory loss, or paralysis. No numbness or tingling. No change in bowel or bladder control. Has headache. MUSCULOSKELETAL: No history of arthritis or gout. No joint pain, stiffness, deformity, or limited range of motion. No muscle pain or weakness. (Has joint pain and stiffness bilateral knees and ankles.) HEMATOLOGIC: No anemia, bleeding, or bruising. LYMPHATICS: No enlarged lymph nodes. No history of splenectomy. PSYCHIATRIC: No history of depression or anxiety (Being treated for depression). ENDCRINOLOGIC: No reports of sweating, cold or heat intolerance. No polyuria or polydipsia. ALLERGIES: No history of asthma, hives, eczema, or rhinitis. O. Physical Exam: VITAL SIGNS: BP 132/88 R ARM SITTING; 128/86 L ARM SITTING; T: 98.4; HR: 66; RR: 18; HT: 5’11”; WT 250 POUNDS CONSTITUTIONAL: Well nourished. Articulates clearly, ambulates without difficulty. No apparent distress. Alert and oriented x3. HEENT: HEAD: Normocephalic. No lumps, lesions, scaling, or tenderness. Facial features symmetrical. EYES: No discharge or crusting. Conjunctivae clear. Sclera white; no lesions or redness. Pupils: 3 mm resting, 2 mm constricted and equal bilaterally. PERRLA. EARS: Hearing intact. Heard whispered words bilaterally. No mass, lesions, or scaling on outer ear. No discharge. NOSE: No deformities or tenderness to palpation. Nares patent bilaterally. No discharge or congestion. Mucosa pink and intact. No parasinus tenderness upon palpation. MOUTH/THROAT: Mucosa and gingivae pink and intact. Uvula rises midline. Gag reflex intact. (Tonsils absent due to tonsillectomy.) NECK: Supple with full ROM. No masses or lymphadenopathy. Symmetric. Trachea midline. Thyroid nonpalpable. CARDIOVASCULAR: Jugular veins flat at 45 degrees. Carotid arteries +2 bilaterally, no bruits. S1-S2 not diminished or accentuated, no S3 or S4. No murmur.   LUNGS/THORAX: Chest expansion symmetric. Tactile fremitus equal bilaterally. No tenderness with palpation. No lesions or lumps. Hyperresonance over lung fields and equal bilaterally. Respirations not labored. Vesicular breath sounds clear and equal over lung fields. ABDOMEN: Symmetric. Abdomen soft, bowel sounds present. No mass, tenderness, lymphadenopathy. MUSCLOSKELETAL: Smooth motion of temporomandibular joint. Full range of motion of neck without pain. No deformity, tenderness of vertebral column. Full extension. Full ROM of arms and legs bilaterally. Good muscle strength. Muscle flexion maintained against resistance. NEUROLOGIC: Alert. Oriented to person, place, and time. Speech is clear, easily understood. CRANIAL NERVES: Visual acuity intact. Peripheral fields intact by confrontation. III, IV, VI: PERRLA. EOMs intact. V: Sensation intact bilaterally. Jaw strength strong, equal bilaterally. VII: Facial muscles intact, symmetric. VIII: Whispered words heard bilaterally. IX, X: Swallowing intact, gag reflex present, uvula rises midline. Voice smooth. XI: Head rotation and shoulder shrug equal and intact bilaterally. XII: Tongue protrudes midline. Speech clear and distinct. A. Each year, people seek medical attention for a cough. Coughing can be caused by many things. It is important for healthcare providers to treat the underlying issue that causes the cough as opposed to treating the cough itself. Based on the chief complaint this week, acute bronchitis is the chosen differential diagnosis. The majority of the time, acute bronchitis is caused by a virus (Kinkade & Long, 2016). Laboratory testing is usually not necessary to diagnose acute bronchitis. The headache and back pain is likely related to extensive coughing. Patients should be encouraged to increase their fluid intake, rest, stop smoking (if applicable), and use a humidifier to add moisture to the air (Hollier, 2016).  Cough suppressants can be prescribed to provide night time relief of cough. Antibiotics are not recommended for a viral bronchitis (Hollier, 2016). References Hollier, A. (2016).  Clinical Guidelines in Primary Care . Scott, LA: Advanced Practice Education Associates, Inc. Kinkade, S., & Long, N. A. (2016). Acute Bronchitis.  American Family Physician , 94(7), 560-565.   Collapse Subdiscussion Jessica Allen Jessica Allen Jul 20, 2017Jul 20 at 10:13pm Manage Discussion Entry Sherry, very good work! I chose acute bronchitis as the diagnosis this week as well. When reviewing the chief complaint, it sounded very familiar. I had bronchitis several times a year as a child. I know the coughing and pain all too well. I also read the Kinkade and Long article. I wasn’t aware that cough is the most common illness seen in ambulatory care. Bronchitis can be confused or cover up other illnesses. It is important to review all symptoms and patient history to rule out pneumonia, asthma, or COPD. Acute bronchitis is self-limited and does not require antibiotics. Pneumonia is often treated with antibiotics. Differences in sputum and fever are another good way to differentiate between the two. A chest x-ray will show if the congestion is located in the bronchioles or in the lungs. Treatment should be over the counter medications and not antibiotics. Using antibiotics to treat viral bronchitis is ineffective and leads to antibiotic resistant strains of bronchitis. Over the counter medications used to treat the symptoms are far more helpful than antibiotics (Kinkade & Long, 2016). Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion References Kinkade, S., & Long, N. A. (2016). Acute Bronchitis.  American Family Physician , 94(7), 560-565. Jessica Allen   Tiffany Lunsford Tiffany Lunsford  Jul 22, 2017Jul 22 at 7:40pm Manage Discussion Entry Hi Jessica, Great point about the assessment differences with bronchitis and pneumonia. Sometimes we will need to prescribe medications for bronchitis, not just over the counter medications, such as albuterol or prednisone (or other steroids). You are completely correct about not treating the bronchitis with antibiotics. The only exception to this in my current practice is high risk COPD patients. Dr. L   Sherry Boyd Sherry Boyd Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 6:42pm Manage Discussion Entry Jessica, Thank you for the informative response. I did read that bronchitis can be differentiated from other respiratory illnesses by the presence of sputum and fever. It is important to remember that not all illnesses require antibiotic therapy. Sherry   Collapse Subdiscussion Elizabeth Booth Elizabeth Booth Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 10:25am Manage Discussion Entry Sherry, Like Jessica, I was also surprised to hear that cough is one of the most frequent complaints that patients have when seeking medical care from their primary care provider. I agree with your plan to provide your patient with symptomatic treatment only, rather than pacifying him with a prescription for antibiotics. Patients should be educated on the fact that antibiotics are not recommended based on the presence of purulent sputum or a change in its color. Rather, they are only indicated in cases where pneumonia is suspected, in which patients would display symptoms of tachycardia, tachypnea, fever, and an abnormal chest exam (rales and egophony). Over 23,000 patients die a year from antibiotic resistant infections (Harris, Hicks, & Qaseem, 2016). I would explain to my patient that I do not want him or her to be added to that number. Your plan will ensure that your patient receives proper evidence-based care. Elizabeth References Harris, A., Hicks, L., & Qaseem, A. (2016). Appropriate antibiotic use for acute respiratory tract infection in adults: Advice for high-value care from the American College of Physicians and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.  Annals of Internal Medicine, 164 (6), 425-434. doi:10.7326/M15-1840 NR509_Week 3_peer response.docx   Sherry Boyd Sherry Boyd Jul 23, 2017Jul 23 at 6:45pm Manage Discussion Entry Elizabeth, Thank you for your response. Antibiotic resistant infections pose a serious risk to many patients. As healthcare providers, we are responsible to limit antibiotic prescriptions to only those illnesses that require antibiotics. Sherry   Jessica Allen Jessica Allen Jul 19, 2017Jul 19 at 12:30am Manage Discussion Entry Patient Information: V.R., 60, Female, Caucasian Chief Complaint: Patient presents today with complaints of “coughing so much it’s making her head and back hurt.” HPI: Cough began 4 days ago. Cough is intermittent and worsening gradually. She is unable to cough anything up, it’s a dry, hacking cough. Cough is causing her to have a headache and back pain. These symptoms began 1 day ago. Headache and back pain have been constantly aching since they began. Cough is worsened by activity of any kind, and milk products, and is improved with rest and OTC cough medication (Robitussin). Headache and back pain are worsened by activity and coughing. They are improved slightly with rest and OTC pain reliever (Ibuprofen). Current Medications: Premarin- 1.25 mg PO daily, began 14 years ago after hysterectomy to treat menopausal symptoms Gaviscon- 2-4 tablets PO every 6 hours PRN, began 8 years ago to treat acid reflux Robitussin- 10 ml PO every 4 hours PRN, began 3 days ago to treat cough Ibuprofen- 400 mg PO every 4-6 hours PRN, began 1 day ago to treat headache and back pain Allergies: NKA PMHx: Patient is up to date on required vaccinations. She does not remember when she had a tetanus shot last. She has never had the pneumonia or shingles vaccine. She has had tonsils and adenoids removed as a child and had chicken pox as a child. As an adult, she suffered from uterine and bladder prolapse, resulting in hysterectomy and mesh sling. She has been diagnosed with tendonitis in her left elbow several times. Soc Hx: Patient works in an office doing accounts payable. She sits/stands in front of a computer most of the day. She types all day as well. She works around 45 hours a week. Major hobbies include working in her yard and cooking out with family. Patient has never smoked or used illegal drugs. She drinks socially. She always wears her seatbelt in vehicles. She has working smoke and carbon monoxide detectors in her home. Fam Hx: Patient is genetically predisposed to osteoporosis, hypertension, acid reflux from her mother. No history of cancer, stroke, or diabetes in her family. Brother passed away in vehicle accident as a teenager. Sister is living with no major illness. Father suffered from alcoholism for many years. Her daughter also has acid reflux. ROS: Constitutional- No unexplained weight loss, no fever or chills noted, denies weakness or fatigue HEENT- Eyes: Patient wears reading glasses. Had laser eye surgery in the past for near sightedness. Denies blurred or double vision, sclerae are white. Ears, Nose, Throat: No hearing loss or ear pain. Denies congestion, sneezing, runny nose, or sore throat. She did have a cold a few weeks ago with congestion, sneezing, and a runny nose. Skin- Skin is clear, dry, and intact. No rashes noted. No wounds noted. Cardiovascular- Denies chest pain, pressure, or discomfort. Regular heart rate. No palpations noted. No edema noted. Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion. Respiratory- Inspection of posterior chest shows straight spinal process, symmetrical thorax, and muscles appropriate for age. Chest expands symmetrically. Skin color is pink and dry. No cyanosis or pallor. No diaphoresis. Fremitus most prominent between scapulae and around sternum and decreases lower in back. Resonance noted over lungs during percussion. Breath sounds clear in all quadrants. (Breath sounds clear over right and left lower quadrant, and right upper quadrant upon auscultation. Wheezing and crackles noted over left upper quadrant). Breast sounds present in all quadrants. No decreased breath sounds. Inspection of anterior chest wall shows ribs sloping downward and symmetrical spaces. Skin is pink and dry. No cyanosis or pallor. Respirations are regular at 18bpm. No retractions noted. No tenderness upon palpation. Slight wheezing auscultated in left upper quadrant. No other adventitious sounds noted. Pulse ox reading is 98%. Gastrointestinal- Bowl sounds noted in all four quadrants. Stomach is round and soft. Denies anorexia, vomiting, nausea, or vomiting. No abdominal pain upon palpation. No blood in stool. Skin is pink and dry. Genitourinary- Patient is post-menopausal. Denies pain or burning upon urination. One full term pregnancy with live vaginal birth. Child is still living. Neurological- No headache, dizziness, syncope, paralysis, ataxia, or numbness and tingling in extremities. (Patient complains of headache). No change in bowel or bladder control. Pupils are equal and reactive to light. No memory problems. Denies mood change, depression, or suicidal ideations. Musculoskeletal- No muscle, joint, or back pain noted. Denies stiffness of muscles. (Patient states she has back pain, muscular, in the upper back). Spine appears straight upon inspection. No injury noted. Hematologic- No anemia or blood clotting disorders. No abnormal bleeding or bruising. Lymphatics- No history of splenectomy. No enlarged nodes upon palpation. (Patient has enlarged cervical nodes). Psychiatric- No history of depression or anxiety. Endocrinologic- Denies sweating, heat intolerance, cold intolerance, polyuria, or polydipsia. Allergies- No history of asthma, hives, eczema, or rhinitis. Differential Diagnosis: Acute Bronchitis- Often caused by a viral infection. Cough is the predominant symptom. Other symptoms are nasal congestion, mucus production, dyspnea, and headache. Fever is not usually present. Chest wall pain can also be present. Auscultation and chest x-rays are used for diagnosis. Antihistamines and decongestants are used in combination to treat. Albuterol nebulizer or inhaler is used to loosen mucus as well. This patient is complaining of cough, headache, and back pain. She does not have a fever and is not coughing mucus up (Kinkade, S., & Long, N. A. 2016). Pneumonia- This is a concern globally. Microorganisms invade the lower respiratory tract. It is often bacterial. Symptoms are fever, chills, dehydration, fatigue, sweating, coughing, and chest pain. This is diagnosed by chest x-ray, auscultation, or sputum samples, or blood cultures. Antibiotics are often used to treat pneumonia. Albuterol inhalers and nebulizer can be used to treat cough as well (Colloniz, C., Martin-Loeches, I., Garcia-Vidal, C., San Jose, A., & Torres, A. 2016). References Colloniz, C., Martin-Loeches, I., Garcia-Vidal, C., San Jose, A., & Torres, A. (2016). Microbial etiology of pneumonia: Epidemiology, diagnosis and resistance patterns.  International Journal of Molecular Sciences, 17(2120). doi:10.3390/ijms17122120 Kinkade, S., & Long, N. A. (2016). Acute Bronchitis.  American Family Physician,  94, 7th ser., 560-565. Retrieved July 18, 20147, from  http://eds.b.ebscohost.com.proxy.chamberlain.edu:8080/eds/pdfviewer/pdfviewer?vid=2&sid=51d37dd0-e01f-4029-b8cc-9204f3030d4d%40sessionmgr102Links to an external site. Jessica Allen Neurologic, Musculoskeletal, and Cardiopulmonary Assessment – NR 509 discussion     Previous Next

  • APEA NURSING NR 509

    APEA NURSING NR 509

    Question:

    A transient ischemic attack is:

    a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.   Correctan infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic.the abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits.  Incorrectfocal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage.

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    Explanation:

    TIA is now defined as “a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.” Ischemic stroke is “an infarction of central nervous system tissue” that may be symptomatic or silent. The other terms are not related to the new definitions.

    Question:

    A patient is asked to visually follow a finger through the cardinal fields of gaze. Which cranial nerves are being assessed?

     

    III, IVIII, IV, VI  CorrectV, VI, VII APEA NURSING NR 509

     

    Explanation:

    Visually following a finger through the cardinal fields of gaze is one way to assess the oculomotor (CN III), trochlear (CN IV) and abducens (CN VI) nerves. CN I is the olfactory nerve and assesses smell. CN II is the optic nerve and assesses visual acuity. CN V is the trigeminal nerve and assesses both sensory and motor functions.

    Question:

    Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain, which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity is:

     

    dystonia.bradykinesia.tremor.seizure.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    A seizure is an uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity, or a combination of symptoms. Dystonia is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs. Bradykinesia is the term used to describe the impaired ability to adjust to one’s body position. This symptom is noted in patients who have Parkinson’s disease. A rhythmic oscillatory movement of a body part resulting from the contraction of opposing muscle groups is a tremor.

    Question:

    When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of:

     

    position and vibration.  Correctpain and temperature.deep touch.  Incorrectdiscriminative sensations.

     

    Explanation:

    When evaluating the sensory system, testing the spinothalamic tracts would include assessing sensations of pain and temperature. Assessing position and vibration evaluate the posterior columns. Light touch assesses both the spinothalamic and posterior column tracts. To assess discriminative sensation, both the spinothalamic and posterior columns tracts as well as the cortex would be assessed.

    Question:

    Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be:

     

    an unusual finding but within normal limits.  Incorrecthirsutism.Arnold -Chiari malformation. spina bifida occulta.  Correct

     

    APEA NURSING NR 509 Explanation:

    There are four types of spina bifida: occulta, closed neural tube defects, meningocele, and myelomeningocele. Occulta is the mildest and most common form in which one or more vertebrae are malformed. The name “occulta,” which means “hidden,” indicates that a layer of skin covers the malformation, or opening in the vertebrae. This form of spina bifida, present in 10-20 percent of the general population, rarely causes disability or symptoms. Closed neural tube defects are often recognized early in life due to an abnormal tuft or clump of hair or a small dimple or birthmark on the skin at the site of the spinal malformation. Meningocele and myelomeningocele generally involve a fluid-filled sac—visible on the back—protruding from the spinal canal. In meningocele, the sac may be covered by a thin layer of skin. In most cases of myelomeningocele, there is no layer of skin covering the sac and an area of abnormally developed spinal cord tissue is usually exposed. Hirsutism is an excessive amount of hair on the body usually caused by a hormonal imbalance. An Arnold-Chiari malformation is a cyst-like formation in the fourth ventricle, cerebellum or brainstem.

    Question:

    A female patient complains of weakness in her arm when combing her hair. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern?

     

    Proximal  CorrectDistal  IncorrectSymmetricAsymmetric

     

    Explanation:

    To identify proximal weakness, ask about difficulty with movements such as combing hair, reaching up to a shelf, getting up out of a chair, or climbing a high step.

    Question:

    What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains?

     

    DeliriumCognitive impairmentParkinson’s diseaseAlzheimer’s disease  Correct APEA NURSING NR 509

     

    Explanation:

    Alzheimer’s disease is a geriatric condition in which normal alertness is present but progressive global deterioration of cognition occurs in multiple domains, including short-term memory, but with sparing of memory for remote events, subtle language errors, visuospatial perceptual difficulties, and changes in executive function, or the ability to perform sequential tasks such as instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Delirium is a serious disturbance in a person’s mental abilities that results in a decreased awareness of one’s environment and confused thinking. Cognitive impairment is an intermediate stage between the expected cognitive decline of normal aging and the more serious decline of dementia. Parkinson’s disease is a progressive disorder of the nervous system that affects movement.

    Question:

    When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates position sense?

     

    Motor systemCerebellar systemVestibular system  IncorrectSensory system  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Coordination of muscle movement requires that four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way: motor system for muscle strength, cerebellar system for rhythmic movements and steady posture, vestibular system for balance and coordinating eye, head, and body movements, and sensory system for position sense.

    Question:

    A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is termed a:

     

    peripheral nerve field.dermatome.  Correctsynapseasterixis.

     

    Explanation:

    A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal or dorsal nerve root is termed a dermatome. A peripheral nerve field refers to an area of the skin innervated by a single nerve and is described as cutaneous nerve distribution. A synapse is a structure that permits a neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another cell. Asterixis refers to an abnormal tremor consisting of involuntary jerking movements, especially in the hands, frequently occurring with impending hepatic coma and other forms of metabolic encephalopathy. This is also known as flapping tremor. APEA NURSING NR 509

    Question:

    An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for:

     

    exercises that strengthen the neck muscles.a follow-up visit in 2 months.a neurological evaluation.  Correctan orthopedic referral.

     

    Explanation:

    A baby typically should be able to control the neck muscles by around 4 months of age, so that when pulling from a lying to a sitting position the head should remain in line with the torso and not flop back. Delays in reaching this developmental milestone have been observed in premature babies and in those with cerebral palsy; all others should be referred to a pediatric neurologist for further evaluation. The other choices do not address the issue or the cause. Early interventions result in better outcomes.

    Question:

    Hyperalgesia refers to:

     

    decreased sensitivity to pain.increased sensitivity to pain.  Correctabsence of pain sensation.absence of touch sensation.

     

    Explanation:

    Analgesia refers to absence of pain sensation; hypalgesia to decreased sensitivity to pain; hyperalgesia to increased sensitivity; and anesthesia to absence of touch sensation.

    Question:

    Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with:

     

    facial tics.  Correctdystonic movements.athetoid movements.oral-facial dyskinesias.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Facial tics are brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals. Examples include repetitive winking, grimacing, and shoulder shrugging. Dystonic movements are similar to athetoid movements, but often involve larger portions of the body, including the trunk. Grotesque, twisted postures may result. Athetoid movements are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude. They most commonly involve the face and the distal extremities. Oral–facial dyskinesias are rhythmic, repetitive, bizarre movements that chiefly involve the face, mouth, jaw, and tongue: grimacing, pursing of the lips, protrusions of the tongue, opening and closing of the mouth, and deviations of the jaw. These are involuntary movements.

    Question:

    When a patient complains of severe headaches that have worsened over the last few weeks but she has no other symptoms, a most likely diagnosis would be:

     

    sinusitis.a tumor.  Correctsubarachnoid hemorrhage.  Incorrectan abscess.

     

    Explanation:

    The most important attributes of headaches are chronologic pattern and severity. Changing or progressively severe headaches increase the likelihood of tumor, abscess, or other masses. Extremely severe headaches suggest subarachnoid hemorrhage or meningitis and these headaches require immediate intervention because they worsen rapidly, not over a “few weeks”. Sinusitis does cause headache but these headaches are not usually severe.

    Question:

    While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial Nerve II (CN II)Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV)  IncorrectCranial Nerve V (CN V)  CorrectCranial Nerve X (CN X)

     

    Explanation:

    Touching the cornea and assessing for a reflex assesses cranial nerve V.

    Question:

    The patient has his eyes closed and an area on his right leg is briefly touched by the nurse practitioner. The patient is instructed to open his eyes and point to the area that was touched. This is an example of the discriminative sensation known as:

     

    graphesthesia.stereognosis.two point discrimination.  Incorrectpoint localization.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Graphesthesia, or number identification is the ability to identify a number when drawn in the hand of a patient whose eyes are closed. A discriminative sensation, stereognosis, is the ability to identify an object by feeling. The ability to identify an object touching 2 areas simultaneously is termed two-point discrimination. Point localization refers to the ability of the patient to identify the area of the body that was touched when his eyes were closed.

    Question:

    When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner observes that the soft palate does not rise when the patient is instructed to say “ah”. This finding could be suggestive of a bilateral lesion in which cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial Nerve V (CN V)Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII)Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX)Cranial Nerve X (CN X)  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Failure of the soft palate to rise when the patient is instructed to say “ah” or yawn could be suggestive of a bilateral lesion in cranial nerve X (CN X)-vagus nerve.

    Question:

    The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that remains unarousable with eyes closed without evidence of response to inner need or external stimuli is said to be in:

     

    an obtunded state.a comatose state.  Correcta lethargic state.a stuporous state.

     

    Explanation:

    A patient that remains unarousable with eyes closed without evidence of response to inner need or external stimuli is a comatose patient. An obtunded patient opens his eyes, looks at the person speaking to him but responds slowly and appears confused. Lethargy refers to the patient that appears drowsy but can open his eyes, respond to questions, then fall back to sleep. A stuporous patient arouses from sleep only after painful stimuli.

    Question:

    Having the patient shrug his shoulders and elicit neck movements would be testing Cranial Nerve:

     

    VI.VII.IX.XI.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Cranial Nerve XI is the spinal accessory nerve and is responsible for proper functioning of the shoulder and neck muscles. When the trapezius is paralyzed, the shoulder droops and the scapula is displaced downward and laterally. Weakness with atrophy and fasciculations indicates a peripheral nerve disorder. CN VI tests extraocular movements; CN VII tests hearing; and CN IX and X test swallowing and the gag reflex. APEA NURSING NR 509

    Question:

    The Glasgow coma scale assesses:

     

    cranial nerve response.pupillary response.motor response.  Correctauditory response.

     

    Explanation:

    Based on motor responsiveness, verbal performance, and eye opening to appropriate stimuli, the Glasgow Coma Scale was designed and should be used to assess the depth and duration of coma and impaired consciousness. This scale helps to gauge the impact of a wide variety of conditions such as acute brain injury due to traumatic and/or vascular injuries or infections, metabolic disorders such as hepatic or renal failure, hypoglycemia, or diabetic ketoacidosis. Cranial nerve, auditory, and pupillary responses are not included in the come scale assessment.

    Question:

    Discriminative sensations include all of the following except:

     

    astereognosis.stereognosis.graphesthesia.deep tendon reflexes  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Discriminative sensations test the ability of the sensory cortex to correlate, analyze, and interpret sensations. These include: stereognosis, graphesthesia, two-point identification, point localization, and extinction. Deep tendon reflexes evaluate the spinal nerve roots and usually include C5, C6, C7, L4, and S1.

    Question:

    Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a:

     

    polyneuropathy.  Correctmyopathy.sensory neuropathy.cerebellar disease.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Polyneuropathy would present as symmetric weakness in the distal muscles. Symmetric weakness of the proximal muscles of the legs suggests a myopathy. Nystagmus, dysarthria, hypotonia, and ataxia would be characteristic of cerebellar disease. Sensory neuropathy usually presents as numbness, tingling, and pain.

    Question:

    The thalamus and the basal ganglion are located in the:

     

    spinal cord.peripheral nervous system.white matter.gray matter.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Deep in the brain lie additional clusters of gray matter. These include the basal ganglia, which affect movement, and the thalamus and the hypothalamus structures in the diencephalon. The thalamus processes sensory impulses and relays them to the cerebral cortex. APEA NURSING NR 509.

    Question:

    The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is:

     

    Herpes simplex virus Type IIPicornavirusEnteroviruses  IncorrectHerpes simplex virus Type I  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Herpes simplex Type I is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in children. The other choices are incorrect.

    Question:

    By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient’s relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as:

     

    Kernig’s sign.the straight-leg raise.  Correctthe plantar response.the ankle reflex.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient’s relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as the straight leg raise and is used to evaluate sciatica. It is positive if there is pain down the back of the leg below the knee. Ipsilateral calf wasting and weak ankle dorsiflexion may be present.

    Question:

    With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient’s neck while observing the hips and knees. Flexion of both hips and knees was noted. This is a positive:

     

    Brudzinski’s sign.  CorrectKernig’s sign.nuchal rigidity sign.Babinski’s sign.

     

    Explanation:

    To elicit Brudzinski’s sign, flex the neck. Flexion of both the hips and knees is positive for Brudzinski’s sign. To test for Kernig’s sign, flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten the knee. Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee are positive for Kernig’s sign. With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward so that his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is positive for nuchal rigidity and suggestive of meningeal inflammation from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage. To elicit the Babinski response, stroke the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick; plantar flexion is normal. Dorsiflexion of the big toe is a positive Babinski’s sign.

    Question:

    When a two-week-old infant presents with irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with distended scalp veins, one should consider:

     

    hydrocephalus.  Correctmeningitis.cerebral palsy.Reye’s syndrome. APEA NURSING NR 509.

     

    Explanation:

    The combination of signs is strongly suggestive of hydrocephalus: shrill with high-pitched cry, irritability, tense and bulging fontanels due to the increased amount of CSF being produced or not being absorbed. Meningitis would include signs of sepsis/infection. The manifestations of cerebral palsy vary but may include: persistence of primitive reflexes, delayed gross motor development, and a lack of progression through developmental milestones. Reye’s syndrome is associated with an antecedent viral infection with symptoms of malaise, nausea, and vomiting, progressive neurological deterioration occurs.

    Question:

    A term used to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is:

     

    hypertrophy.muscular atrophy.  Correctpseudohypertrophy.muscle weakness.

     

    Explanation:

    A term used to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is muscular atrophy. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in bulk of the muscle with proportionate strength. An increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is known as pseudohypertrophy. Muscular weakness is a term used to describe a lack of strength or firmness in a muscle.

    Question:

    Which one of the following senses is most often affected in patients on long-term antibiotic therapy?

     

    TouchTasteSmellHearing  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Many antibiotics can produce varying degrees of ototoxicity. The other senses are rarely, if ever, affected by long – term antibiotic use.

    Question:

    Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following?

     

    Walks by placing the heels of the feet down firstMoves about by crawling on the abdomen or all four extremitiesGenerally meets motor developmental milestones on schedulePresence of crossed or touching knees  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Cerebral palsy (CP) is a group of disorders that can involve the brain and nervous system functions, such as movement, learning, hearing, seeing, and thinking. There are several different types of cerebral palsy, including spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, hypotonic, and mixed. Symptoms usually depend on the type and can be seen before a child is 2 years old, and sometimes as early as 3 months. Symptoms may include delays in reaching and in developmental stages such as sitting, rolling, crawling, or walking, or abnormal gait. Arms may be tucked in toward the sides, knees may be crossed or touching, legs may make “scissor” movements, and child may walk on toes. Additionally, newborn reflexes may persist beyond the expected time frame for their disappearance.

    Question:

    The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are innervated by which Cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial nerve III (CN III)Cranial nerve V (CN V)  CorrectCranial nerve VII (CN VII)  IncorrectCranial nerve XII (CN XII)

     

    Explanation:

    The muscles responsible for closing the mouth are innervated by Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). Cranial nerve V innervates the masseter, the temporalis, and the internal pterygoids.

    Question:

    The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is:

     

    dystonia.  Correctbradykinesia.akinesia.  Incorrectdyskinesia.

     

    Explanation:

    Dystonia is a neurological disorder that causes involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs. Bradykinesia is the term used to describe the impaired ability to adjust to one’s body position. This symptom is noted in patients who have Parkinson’s disease. The absence or loss of control of voluntary muscle movements is akinesia. Dyskinesia is defined as the presence of involuntary muscle movements such as tics or chorea. These movements can be seen in children who have rheumatic fever.

    Question:

    Postural tremors appear when the affected part is:

     

    at rest.moving voluntarily. is actively maintaining a posture.  Correctgetting closer to its target.

     

    Explanation:

    Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements. Postural tremors appear when the affected part is actively maintaining a posture. Examples include the fine rapid tremor of hyperthyroidism, the tremors of anxiety and fatigue, and benign essential tremor. The other choices are not consistent with postural tremors.

    Question:

    A patient presents with sweating, tremors, palpitations, hunger, and confusion. This patient is most likely experiencing:

     

    a syncopic event.hypoglycemia.  Correctpostural hypotension.hypocapnia.

     

    Explanation:

    A patient presenting with sweating, tremors, palpitations, hunger, headache, abnormal behavior, confusion, could be experiencing classic symptoms of hypoglycemia. Syncope could present with nausea and vomiting, dizziness, and possible fainting. Postural hypotension usually occurs after one stands up. Usually there are no prodromal symptoms. The blood pressure returns to normal when the patient lies down. Hypocapnia is decreased carbon dioxide and symptoms include dyspnea, palpitations, chest discomfort, numbness and tingling in the hands and around the mouth lasting for several minutes. Consciousness is maintained.

    Question:

    Most peripheral nerves contain afferent and efferent fibers. The term afferent refers to:

     

    the cranial nerve fibers.spinal nerve fibers.sensory nerve fibers.  Correctmotor nerve fibers.

     

    Explanation:

    The peripheral nervous system includes spinal and peripheral nerves that carry impulses to and from the cord. Spinal nerve fibers co-mingle with similar fibers from other levels in plexuses outside the cord, from which peripheral nerves emerge. Most peripheral nerves contain both sensory (afferent) and motor (efferent) fibers.

    Question:

    During this type of seizure activity, the patient loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a:

     

    focal seizure with impairment of consciousness.Jacksonian seizure.focal seizure that become generalized. grand mal seizure.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    During a grand mal seizure the person loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. Focal seizures that become generalized are partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. Focal seizures with impairment of consciousness the person appears confused. Automatisms include automatic motor behaviors such as chewing, smacking the lips, walking about, and unbuttoning clothes. Tonic and then clonic movements that start unilaterally in the hand, foot, or face and spread to other body parts on the same side with the patient remaining conscious are known as Jacksonian seizures.

    Question:

    When assessing plantar reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the right foot. Absence of movement of the big toe is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

     

    Thoracic 8, 9, and 10Thoracic 10, 11, and 12Lumbar 5 and Sacral 1  CorrectSacral 2, 3, and 4

     

    Explanation:

    Superficial (cutaneous) reflexes and their corresponding spinal segments include the following: Abdominal reflexes: upper thoracic 8, 9, 10 and lower thoracic 10, 11, 12; Plantar: lumbar 5 and sacral 1; and Anal: sacral 2, 3, 4.

    Question:

    A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate:

     

    a normal finding.lower motor neuron disease.corticospinal tract lesion .  Correctcerebellum lesion.

     

    Explanation:

    A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate a corticospinal lesion originating in the contralateral hemisphere. An upward drift would be indicative of a lesion in the cerebellum. This test is called the Test for Pronator Drift and is used to test for upper motor neuron disease. APEA NURSING NR 509.

    Question:

    When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of:

     

    alcohol myopathy.polyneuropathy.  Correctmyositis.neuromuscular junction disorders.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Bilateral predominantly distal weakness suggests a polyneuropathy, as in diabetes. Proximal limb weakness, usually symmetric and without sensory loss, occurs in myopathies from alcohol, glucocorticoids, and inflammatory muscle disorders like myositis and dermatomyositis. In the neuromuscular junction disorder myasthenia gravis, there is proximal, typically asymmetric weakness that gets worse with effort.

    Question:

    Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of damage to which cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial Nerve II (CN II)Cranial Nerve III (CN III)  CorrectCranial Nerve IV (CN IV)Cranial Nerve V (CN V)

     

    Explanation:

    Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of 3rd nerve palsy (CN III)-Oculomotor nerve.

    Question:

    While palpating the temporal and masseter muscles, the patient is asked to clench his teeth and move his jaw from side to side. This maneuver would be assessing which cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial Nerve III (CN III)Cranial Nerve IV (CN IV)Cranial Nerve V (CN V)  CorrectCranial Nerve VII (CN VII)  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Palpation of the temporal and masseter muscles, when the patient clenches his teeth and moves his jaw from side to side. This maneuver assesses the Trigeminal nerve and cranial nerve (CN V).

    Question:

    With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was noted. This is a positive:

     

    Brudzinski’s sign.Kernig’s sign.nuchal rigidity sign.Babinski’s sign.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    To elicit Babinski sign, stroke the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Plantar flexion is normal. Dorsiflexion of the big toe is a positive Babinski’s sign. To elicit Brudzinski’s sign, flex the neck. Flexion of both the hips and knees is positive for Brudzinski’s. To test for Kernig’s sign, flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten the knee. Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee are positive for a Kernig’s sign. With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is positive nuchal rigidity and suggestive of meningeal inflammation from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage.

    Question:

    An ambulatory child with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet:

     

    high in potassium.low in fiber.low in sodium.high in calories.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Every child’s nutrient needs must be assessed individually. It is important to take a number of factors into consideration when estimating energy needs: age, activity level, growth rate, and muscle tone. A child with spastic cerebral palsy (CP) who is not ambulatory will likely have lower energy requirements than a child with spastic CP who is ambulatory. A child with ambulatory spastic CP needs a diet high in calories to provide for increased metabolic needs secondary to energy lost through spastic movements and tremors. Foods rich in fiber are needed to prevent constipation and other gastrointestinal problems associated with cerebral palsy. Diet with balanced electrolytes is preferred.

    Question:

    The part of the brain that relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system is known as the:

     

    cerebrum.brainstem.  Incorrectcerebellum.diencephalon.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    The diencephalon relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system. It also connects structures of the endocrine system with the nervous system and works in conjunction with limbic system structures to generate and manage emotions and memories. The cerebrum controls all voluntary actions of the body with the aid of the cerebellum. The nerve connections of the motor and sensory systems from the main part of the brain to the rest of the body pass through the brainstem. The brainstem controls most functions in the body but is mostly responsible for breathing, heart rate, and articulate speech. The cerebellum, which lies at the base of the brain, coordinates all movement and helps maintain the body upright in space. APEA NURSING NR 509.

    Question:

    Dysarthria refers to:

     

    the inability to produce or understand language.the loss of voice.an impairment in volume of the voice.a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Dysarthria refers to a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus (lips, tongue, palate, or pharynx). Dysphonia refers to less severe impairment in the volume, quality, or pitch of the voice. Aphonia refers to a loss of voice that accompanies disease affecting the larynx or its nerve supply. Aphasia refers to a disorder in producing or understanding language.

    Question:

    The inability to hop in place on each foot, could be suggestive of a:

     

    cerebellar dysfunction.  Correctcorticospinal tract weakness.  Incorrectproximal tract weakness.weakness of the quadriceps.

     

    Explanation:

    Inability to hop in place on each foot could denote cerebellar dysfunction, weakness, or lack of position sense. Hopping involves the proximal muscles of the legs as well as the distal ones and requires both good position sense and normal cerebellar function. Walking on the toes and heels may reveal distal muscular weakness in the legs. Inability to heel-walk is a sensitive test for corticospinal tract weakness. Difficulty performing a shallow knee bend would suggest proximal weakness in the extensors of the hip, weakness of the quadriceps, extensors of the knee, or both.

    Question:

    Hyperesthesia refers to:

     

    absence of touch sensation.decreased sensitivity to touch.increased sensitivity to touch.   Correctabsence of pain sensation.

     

    Explanation:

    Anesthesia is absence of touch sensation; hypesthesia is decreased sensitivity to touch; hyperesthesia is increased sensitivity to touch; and analgesia refers to absence of pain sensation.

    Question:

    The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the:

     

    basal ganglion.thalamus.hypothalamus.  Correctcerebellum.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis and regulates temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure. The hypothalamus affects the endocrine system and governs emotional behaviors such as anger and sexual drive. Hormones secreted in the hypothalamus act directly on the pituitary gland.

    Question:

    The patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling without movements and injury may occur. This type of a seizure is consistent with:

     

    a myoclonic seizure.an absent seizure.a myoclonic atonic seizure.  Correcta focal seizure with impairment of consciousness.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    During a myoclonic atonic seizure, the patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no movements. Injury may occur. A patient experiencing a myoclonic seizure manifests sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs. A sudden brief lapse of consciousness, with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with an absent seizure. Focal seizures with impairment of consciousness the person appears confused. Automatisms include automatic motor behaviors such as chewing, smacking the lips, walking about, and unbuttoning clothes.

    Question:

    Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of:

     

    facial tics.dystonic movements.athetoid movements.  Correctoral-facial dyskinesias.

     

    Explanation:

    Athetoid movements are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude. They most commonly involve the face and the distal extremities. Facial tics are brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals. Examples include repetitive winking, grimacing, and shoulder shrugging. Dystonic movements are similar to athetoid movements, but often involve larger portions of the body, including the trunk. Grotesque, twisted postures may result. Oral–facial dyskinesias are rhythmic, repetitive, bizarre movements that chiefly involve the face, mouth, jaw, and tongue: grimacing, pursing of the lips, protrusions of the tongue, opening and closing of the mouth, and deviations of the jaw. These are involuntary movements.

    Question:

    Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient?

     

    Check corneal responseCheck pupillary responseDilate the pupils  CorrectInspect the posterior pharynx  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    When assessing a comatose patient, the nurse practitioner should not dilate the eyes because pupillary reaction is the single most important clue to the underlying cause of the coma: structural or metabolic. The other procedures can be performed on a comatose patient.

    Question:

    A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is known as:

     

    Broca’s aphasia.  Incorrectanomic aphasia.  CorrectWernicke’s aphasia.global aphasia.

     

    Explanation:

    With anomic aphasia, the person has word-finding difficulties and because of the difficulties, the person struggles to find the right words for speaking and writing. In Broca’s aphasia, speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious effort. Inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, with nouns, transitive verbs, and important adjectives. Small grammatical words are often dropped. With Wernicke’s aphasia, speech is fluent, often rapid, voluble, and effortless. Inflection and articulation are good, but sentences lack meaning and words are malformed (paraphasias) or invented (neologisms). Speech may be totally incomprehensible. With global aphasia, the person has difficulty speaking and understanding words and is unable to read or write.

    Question:

    A neurological assessment to evaluate neurologic input to the cerebellum is:

     

    Glasgow coma scale.  Incorrectabdominal reflex.babinski test.romberg test.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Romberg test is performed by asking the patient to stand and with his eyes closed and feet together for at least 20 seconds and he should not sway. This test evaluates sensory input to the cerebellum to maintain truncal stability. The sensory inputs: proprioception, vision, and vestibular sense. Glasgow coma scale determines level of consciousness. An absent abdominal reflex could indicate a disease of the upper and lower neurons. A positive Babinski would indicate upper motor neuron disease in the pyramidal tract.

    Question:

    The three important questions that govern the neurological examination include: Is the mental status intact?, Are right-sided and left-sided findings symmetric?, and:

     

    Are deep tendon reflexes intact?.Are vital signs stable?If findings are abnormal, is the cause in the central or peripheral nervous system?.  CorrectAre the cranial nerves intact?.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    The three important questions that govern the neurological examination include: Is the mental status intact?, Are right-sided and left-sided findings symmetric?, and If findings are abnormal, is the cause in the central or peripheral nervous system?. The other questions are also important to ask but are not included in the 3 most important ones for the neurological exam.

    Question:

    Which developmental area is predominantly affected by lead poisoning?

     

    NutritionCommunicationCognition  CorrectMobility

     

    Explanation:

    Lead is a naturally-occurring element that can be harmful to humans when ingested or inhaled, particularly to children under the age of 6 years. Lead poisoning can cause a number of adverse human health effects, but is particularly detrimental to the neurological development of children.

    Question:

    A term used to describe an increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is:

     

    hypertrophy.muscular atrophy.pseudohypertrophy.  Correctmuscle weakness.

     

    Explanation:

    An increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is known as pseudohypertrophy. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in bulk of the muscle with a proportionate increase in strength. A term used to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is muscular atrophy. Muscular weakness is a term used to describe a lack of strength or firmness in a muscle.

    Question:

    On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are observed. These findings are consistent with:

     

    drug induced reaction.functional impairment.Parkinson’s disease.  Correctdepression.

     

    Explanation:

    Evidence of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, micrographia, shuffling gait, and difficulty rising from a chair are symptoms consistent with Parkinson’s disease.

    Question:

    A form of aphasia where articulation is good but sentences lack meaning is referred to as:

     

    Broca’s aphasia.  Incorrectanomic aphasia.Wernicke’s aphasia.  Correctglobal aphasia.

     

    Explanation:

    With Wernicke’s aphasia, speech is fluent, often rapid, voluble, and effortless. Inflection and articulation are good, but sentences lack meaning and words are malformed (paraphasias) or invented (neologisms). Speech may be totally incomprehensible. In Broca’s aphasia, speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious effort. Inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, with nouns, transitive verbs, and important adjectives. Small grammatical words are often dropped. With anomic aphasia, the person has word-finding difficulties and because of the difficulties, the person struggles to find the right words for speaking and writing. With global aphasia, the person has difficulty speaking and understanding words and is unable to read or write.

    Question:

    When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of :

     

    a lesion in the opposite cerebral hemisphere.polyneuropathy.  Correcta spinal cord lesion.  Incorrecta peripheral lesion.

     

    Explanation:

    When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of polyneuropathy. A hemisensory loss pattern would suggest a lesion in the opposite cerebral hemisphere. Spinal cord lesions would present with sensory loss from tract damage below the level of the lesion. A peripheral lesion with sensory loss would present with a stocking – glove distribution.

    Question:

    When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

     

    Cervical 5 and 6Cervical 6 and 7 Lumbar 2, 3, and 4  CorrectSacral 1

     

    Explanation:

    The segmented levels of the deep tendon reflexes are: Ankle: sacral 1; knee: lumbar 2,3, & 4; Supinator and biceps: cervical 5 & 6; and triceps: cervical 6 & 7. APEA NURSING NR 509.

    Question:

    Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in:

     

    Alzheimer’s disease.Muscular Dystrophy.Parkinson’s disease.  CorrectMultiple Sclerosis.

     

    Explanation:

    Glabellar tap is a primitive reflex that is characterized by blinking eyes when a patient is lightly tapped between the eyebrows. In less that 5 taps, a normal individual will stop blinking. In Parkinson’s disease, persistent blinking will occur until the examiner stops tapping. Difficulty walking heel-to-toe are common in Parkinson’s disease.

    Question:

    To evaluate a patient’s response to light touch sensation, the nurse practitioner would ask the patient to identify:

     

    a touch on the skin in response to touching the skin with a cotton wisp.  Correctan object as being hot or cold.a vibration sensation on the big toe.pain as sharp or dull when the thumb is touched using the sharp end of a safety pin.

     

    Explanation:

    A light touch on the skin in response to touching the skin with a cotton wisp would be an example of assessing for light touch. To evaluate for pain, a safety pin could be used to determine if the sensation is sharp or dull. To evaluate a patient’s response to temperature sensation, the nurse practitioner would ask the patient to identify an object as being hot or cold. To test for vibration, use a tuning fork over the interphalangeal joint of the big toe and ask the patient if he feels the vibration.

    Question:

    A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify a number drawn in the hand when the patient’s eyes are closed is:

     

    graphesthesia.  Correctstereognosis.two point discrimination.astereognosis.

     

    Explanation:

    Graphesthesia or number identification is the ability to identify a number when drawn in the hand of a patient whose eyes are closed. A discriminative sensation. stereognosis, is the ability to identify an object by feeling it. The ability to identify an object touching 2 areas simultaneously is termed two-point discrimination. Astereognosis is a term used to describe the inability to recognize objects placed in the hand.

    Question:

    When assessing the patient’s sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is:

     

    considered a normal finding.suggestive of ataxia related to dorsal column disease.   Correctsuggestive of cerebellar ataxia. corticospinal track damage.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    When assessing the patient’s sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is a positive Romberg test and suggestive of ataxia related to a dorsal column disease. In cerebellar ataxia, the patient has difficulty standing with feet together whether the eyes are open or closed. With corticospinal tract damage, the gait is affected and the patient is unable to heel-walk.

    Question:

    A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern?

     

    ProximalDistalSymmetric  CorrectAsymmetric

     

    Explanation:

    To identify symmetric weakness, ask about experiencing weakness in the same area on both sides of the body.

    Question:

    With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is a positive:

     

    Brudzinski’s sign.Kernig’s sign.nuchal rigidity sign.  CorrectBabinski’s sign.

     

    Explanation:

    With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is positive for nuchal rigidity and suggestive of meningeal inflammation from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage. To elicit Brudzinski’s sign, flex the neck. Flexion of both the hips and knees is a positive for Brudzinski’s sign. To test for Kernig’s sign, flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and the knee and then straighten the knee. Pain and increased resistance to extending the knee are positive for Kernig’s sign. To elicit the Babinski response, stroke the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick, plantar flexion is normal. Dorsiflexion of the big toe is a positive Babinski’s sign.

    Question:

    When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a lethargic patient:

     

    opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused.appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep.  Correctarouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state.  Incorrectremains unarousable with eyes closed.

     

    Explanation:

    A lethargic patient appears drowsy but opens his eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. An obtunded patient opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. A stuporous patient arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state. A comatose patient remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli.

    Question:

    Aphasia refers to:

     

    the inability to produce or understand language.  Correctthe loss of voice.an impairment in volume of the voice.a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus.

     

    Explanation:

    Aphasia refers to a disorder in producing or understanding language. Aphonia refers to a loss of voice that accompanies disease affecting the larynx or its nerve supply. Dysphonia refers to less severe impairment in the volume, quality, or pitch of the voice. Dysarthria refers to a defect in the muscular control of the speech apparatus (lips, tongue, palate, or pharynx).

    Question:

    A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves:

     

    CorrectII.III.VIII.

     

    Explanation:

    Cranial Nerve I is the olfactory nerve responsible for the sense of smell. To test the sense of smell, the examiner presents the patient with familiar and nonirritating odors. A person should normally perceive odor on each side and correctly identify the source. Cranial Nerves II and III assess vision and pupillary reaction. Cranial Nerve VIII tests the hearing and balance.

    Question:

    When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to stick out his tongue and move it from side to side. This maneuver would be used to assess which cranial nerve?

     

    Cranial Nerve V (CN V)

    Cranial Nerve VII (CN VII)Cranial Nerve IX (CN IX)Cranial Nerve XII (CN XII)  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    Instructing the patient to stick out his tongue and move it from side to side would be used to assess cranial nerve XII (CN XII)-Hypoglossal nerve.

    Question:

    The level of consciousness that refers to the ability of the patient to respond fully and appropriately to stimuli is known as:

     

    obtundation.alertness.  Correctlethargy.stupor.

     

    Explanation:

    The level of consciousness that refers to the ability of the patient to respond fully and appropriately to stimuli is known as alertness. An obtunded patient opens his eyes, looks at the person speaking to him but responds slowly and appears confused. Lethargy refers to the patient that appears drowsy but can open his eyes, respond to questions, then fall back to sleep. A stuporous patient arouses from sleep only after painful stimuli.

    Question:

    A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with:

     

    a myoclonic seizure.an absent seizure.  Correcta myoclonic atonic seizure.a focal seizure with impairment of consciousness.

     

    Explanation:

    A sudden brief lapse of consciousness, with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with an absent seizure. A patient experiencing a myoclonic seizure manifests sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs. During a myoclonic atonic seizure, the patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no movements. Injury may occur. Focal seizures with impairment of consciousness the person appears confused. Automatisms include automatic motor behaviors such as chewing, smacking the lips, walking about, and unbuttoning clothes.

    Question:

    Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include:

     

    noticeable bleeding between the dura and the skull on X-ray.   Incorrectappropriate responses to questions.noticeable bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum on X-ray.  Correctabsent retinal hemorrhages. APEA NURSING NR 509.

     

    Explanation:

    Classic symptoms of subdural hemorrhages include: bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum, retinal hemorrhages, confusion, drowsiness, headaches, and possible seizures. Because this is a slow bleed, symptoms may develop slowly over several days or weeks. Bleeding between the dura and the skull are consistent with epidural bleeds.

    Question:

    Analgesia refers to:

     

    decreased sensitivity to pain.increased sensitivity to pain.  Incorrectabsence of pain sensation.  Correctabsence of touch sensation.

     

    Explanation:

    Analgesia refers to absence of pain sensation; hypalgesia to decreased sensitivity to pain; hyperalgesia to increased sensitivity; and anesthesia to absence of touch sensation.

    Question:

    While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a:

     

    bilateral hemispheric disease. central nervous system lesions.  Incorrectcranial nerve disorder.  Correctbrainstem lesion.

     

    Explanation:

    While assessing the trigeminal nerve, cranial nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a cranial nerve disorder, such as trigeminal neuralgia.

    Question:

    When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient:

     

    opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, responds slowly, and is somewhat confused.appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep.arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal response, and easily lapses into an unresponsive state.remains unarousable with eyes closed.  Correct

     

    Explanation:

    A comatose patient remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli. A lethargic patient appears drowsy but opens the eyes, looks at the examiners, answers the questions, and then falls asleep. An obtunded patient opens the eyes and looks at the examiner, but responds slowly and is somewhat confused. A stuporous patient arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, verbal responses are slow, and lapses into an unresponsive state.

    Question:

    Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the:

     

    voice.articulation of speech.written language.  Correctcomprehension of language.

     

    Explanation:

    Disorders of speech fall into three groups affecting: (1) the voice, (2) the articulation of words, and (3) the production and comprehension of language. The written language is not included in the disorders of speech.

    Question:

    What is an example of a disease or condition that appears in a dermatomal pattern?

     

    Fibromyalgia Shingles  CorrectDiabetic neuropathyReferred pain

     

    Explanation:

    A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is a dermatome. Symptoms that follow a dermatome (e.g. like pain or a rash) may indicate pathology that involves the related nerve root. Viruses that lie dormant in nerve ganglia (e.g. varicella zoster virus, which causes both chickenpox and herpes zoster shingles), often cause either pain, rash or both in a pattern defined by a dermatome. However, the symptoms may not appear across the entire dermatome. Referred pain usually involves a specific “referred” location so is not associated with a dermatome. Diabetic neuropathy results from nerve damage related to high levels of glucose in the body and the resulting pain or absence of pain does not follow a dermatomal pattern. Fibromyalgia appears to result from neuro-chemical imbalances including activation of inflammatory pathways in the brain which results in abnormalities in pain processing.

    Question:

    A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is:

     

    reassess the patient in 6 months.obtain cognitive and functional assessment.  Correctassess respiratory assessment.assess cardiac function.

     

    Explanation:

    High-risk older adults, namely those with a single fall in the past 12 months with abnormal gait and balance and those with two or more falls in the prior 12 months, an acute fall, and/or difficulties with gait and balance, require further assessment to determine the reasons for the falls. Obtaining relevant medical history, physical exam, cognitive and functional assessment and determining multifactorial fall risks are essential to the preventing future falls.

    Question:

    When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not considered part of the mental status assessment?

     

    Level of alertnessCranial Nerve II (CNII)  CorrectAppropriateness of responsesOrientation to time

     

    Explanation:

    When conducting a neurologic exam, mental status assessment should include evaluation of the level of alertness, appropriateness of responses, and orientation to person, place, and time. Assessing cranial nerve II would be part of the cranial nerve assessment.

    Question:

    Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria can be symptoms associated with all of the following conditions except:

     

    posterior fossa tumor.vertebrobasilar transient ischemic attack.polyneuropathy.  Correcthemicranial migraine.  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria are suspicious for vertebrobasilar transient ischemic attack or stroke, posterior fossa tumor and vertebrobasilar or hemicranial migraine. Polyneuropathy usually presents as bilateral distal weakness.

    Question:

    An ischemic stroke is:

     

    a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.   Incorrectan infarction of the central nervous system tissue that may be silent or symptomatic.  Correctthe abrupt onset of motor or sensory deficits.focal or asymmetric weaknesses caused by central and peripheral nerve damage.

     

    Explanation:

    Ischemic stroke is “an infarction of central nervous system tissue” that may be symptomatic or silent. TIA is now defined as “a transient episode of neurological dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without acute infarction.” The other terms are not related to the new definitions.

    Question:

    During this type of seizure activity, the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a:

     

    focal seizure with impairment of consciousness.Jacksonian seizure.  Incorrectfocal seizure that becomes generalized.   Correctgrand mal seizure.

     

    Explanation:

    Focal seizures that become generalized are partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. Focal seizures with impairment of consciousness the person appears confused. Automatisms include automatic motor behaviors such as chewing, smacking the lips, walking about, and unbuttoning clothes. Tonic and then clonic movements that start unilaterally in the hand, foot, or face and spread to other body parts on the same side with the patient remaining conscious are known as Jacksonian seizures. During a grand mal seizure the person loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows.

    Question:

    When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

     

    Thoracic 8, 9, and 10Thoracic 10, 11, and 12  CorrectLumbar 5 and Sacral 1Sacral 2, 3, and 4

     

    Explanation:

    Superficial (cutaneous) reflexes and their corresponding spinal segments include the following: Abdominal reflexes: upper thoracic 8, 9, 10 and lower thoracic 10, 11, 12; Plantar: lumbar 5 and sacral 1; and Anal: sacral 2, 3, 4.

    Question:

    An example of symmetric weakness is:

     

    the right shoulder. the right hand.both arms.  Correctone the right side of the face.

     

    Explanation:

    There are 4 different patterns of weakness: Proximal, distal, symmetric, and asymmetric. An example of proximal weakness is weakness in the shoulder or hip girdle. Distal weakness occurs in the hands or feet. Symmetric weakness occurs in the same areas on both sides of the body. An asymmetric weakness occurs in a portion of the face or extremity – a form of focal weakness.

    Question:

    Assessment of a 70-year-old’s ability to maintain personal safety would be most adversely affected by declining function in the:

     

    cardiovascular system.respiratory system.sensory perception system.  Correctgastrointestinal system.

     

    Explanation:

    The sensory system or sensory perception involves vision, touch, taste, smell, and hearing. With the aging process these perceptions are altered and these alterations put the elderly at risk for falls, burns, inability to smell smoke, and the inability to move fast enough to get out of harm’s way. These impact personal safety. Changes in the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and respiratory systems do not usually lead to safety issues.

    Question:

    When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the:

     

    Delirium Rating Scale (DRS).Confusion Assessment Method (CAM).  CorrectMini Mental State Examination (MMSE). Delirium Superimposed on Dementia Algorithm (DSDA).  Incorrect

     

    Explanation:

    Confusion Assessment Method (CAM), a screening tool specifically designed to detect delirium, is the most recommended because it provides the best supportive data for bedside use and takes 5 minutes to complete. The Delirium Rating Scale (DRS) covers a range of symptoms relating to delirium, and is useful for diagnostic purposes and for assessing severity and distinguishing delirium from other disorders. It is very complex and requires advanced training to administer. The MMSE is the most widely used instrument to test cognitive function. The Delirium Superimposed on Dementia Algorithm recommends a process to assess for delirium for people with a pre-existing dementia.

    NR 509 Week 1 Shadow Health History Assignment Completed

    Pre-brief

    Obtaining an accurate history is the critical first step in determining the etiology of a patient’s problem. A large percentage of the time, you will actually be able to make a diagnosis based on the history alone. The value of the history, of course, will depend on your ability to elicit relevant information. Your sense of what constitutes important data will grow exponentially as you practice your interviewing skills and through increased exposure to patients and illness…………………… Interviewing patients is an art and should remain an essential skill for successful practice.

    In this activity, you will interview Tina Jones to collect data to assess Ms. Jones’ condition. You will also have the opportunity to educate and empathize with Tina to engage in effective therapeutic communication; create a problem listusing evidence from the data you collected; prioritize the identified problems to differentiate immediate from non-immediate care; plan how to best address the most important concern with further assessment, interventions, and patient education; and compare your documentation to model documentation.

    Ms. Jones is a pleasant, 28-year-old obese African American single woman who presents to establish care and with a recent right foot injury. She is the primary source of the history. Ms. Jones offers information freely and without contradiction. Her speech is clear and coherent and she maintains eye contact throughout the interview.

    Reason for visit:
     Patient presents for an initial primary care visit today complaining of an infected foot wound.

    |
     Overview

    | Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | Information Processing

    | Lab Pass: Certificate of Completion

     
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    NR 509 Week 1 Shadow Health: Conversation Concept Lab

    NR 509 Week 1 Assignment Shadow Health Digital Clinical Experience DCE Orientation Spring 2018

    NR 509 Week 1 Quiz Questions and Answers

        A patient tells the FNP that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot”. This type of data would be:

    2.     The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

    3.     The FNP is reviewing information about evidence-based practice. Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?

    4.     A 59-year-old patient tells the FNP that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having black stools for the last 24 hours. How would the FNP best document his reason for seeking care?

    5.     A 29-year-old woman tells the FNP that she has excruciating pain in her back. Which would be an appropriate response by the FNP to the woman statement?

    6.     In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient who denies having had any, which note by the FNP would be most accurate?7.      If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

    8.     If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

    9.     Which of these statements represents subjective data the FNP obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin?

    10.  The FNP is obtaining a history for a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient?

    11.  Which statement indicates that the FNP understands the pain experienced by an elderly person?

    12.  The FNP is performing a vision examination. Which of these charts is most widely used for visual examination?

    13.  During a complete health assessment, how would the FNP test the patients hearing?

    14.  The FNP has just completed an examination of a patient’s extra-ocular muscles. When documenting the findings, the FNP should document the assessment of which cranial nerves?

    15.  A patient’s uvula rises midline when she says “ahh” and she has a positive gag reflex. The FNP has just tested which cranial nerve?

    16.  During an examination the FNP notices that a patient is unable to stick out his tongue. Which cranial nerve is involved with successful performance of this action?

    17.  A patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the FNP‘s resistant hands. What cranial nerve is involved with successful shoulder shrugging?

    18.  During an examination, the patient has just successfully completed the finger to nose and rapid alternating movements test and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin. The FNP would conclude that the patient’s___ function is intact

    19.  A five-year-old child is in the clinic for checkup. The FNP would expect him to:

    20.  When the FNP performs the confrontation test the FNP has assessed:

    21.  Which of these statements is true regarding the complete physical assessment?

    22.  Which of these statements is true regarding recording of data from the history and physical examination?

    23.  Which of these is included in assessment of general appearance?

    24.  The FNP is performing a review of symptoms. Which of these questions are appropriate as Health promotion questions to ask during this time?

    25.  The FNP is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the community portion of the FICA questions?

    26.  The FNP is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins?

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    NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Spring 2018

    Pre Brief

    Tina had an asthma episode 2 days ago. At that time she used her albuterol inhaler and her symptoms decreased although they did not completely resolve. Since that incident she notes that she has had ten episodes of wheezing and has shortness of breath approximately every four hours. Tina presents with continued shortness of breath and wheezing. Be sure to ask pertinent questions during the interview about related body systems. This case study will provide the opportunity to carefully assess lung sounds during the physical examination. Be sure to appropriately document your findings using correct medical terminology.

    Reason for visit:
     Patient presents complaining of a recent asthma episode that is not fully resolved.

    |
     Overview

    | Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | Student Pre-Survey

    | Lifespan Activity

    | Review Questions

    | Self-Reflection Activity

     
    NR 509 Week 2 Alternate Writing Assignment: Respiratory Summer 2018

    Purpose

    As a family nurse practitioner, you must possess excellent physical assessment skills. This alternative writing assignment mirrors the discussion content of the debriefing session and will allow the student to expand their knowledge of physical health assessment principles specific to the advanced practice role.

    Course Outcomes

    This assignment is guided by the following Course Outcomes (COs):

    Apply advanced practice nursing knowledge to collecting health history information and physical examination findings for various patient populations. (PO 1, 2)

    Differentiate normal and abnormal health history and physical examination findings. (PO 1, 2)

    Adapt health history and physical examination skills to the developmental, gender-related, age-specific, and special population needs of the individual patient. (PO 1, 2)

    The purposes of this assignment are to: (a) identify and articulate advanced assessment health history and physical examination techniques which are relevant to a focused body system (CO 1), (b) differentiate normal and abnormal findings with regard to a disease or condition that impacts the body system (CO 2), and (c) adapt advanced assessment skills if necessary to suit the needs of specific patient populations (CO 4).

    NOTE
    : 
    You are to complete this alternative writing assignment ONLY if you had not participated or do not plan to participate in a debriefing session for the given week.

    Due Date: 
    This alternative written assignment is due no later than the 
    Sunday of the week in which you did not attend the weekly debriefing session
    . The standard MSN Participation Late Assignment policy applies to this assignment.

    Preparing the Paper:

    Select a focused body system from the weekly lesson which corresponds with the week of the written assignment.

    Carefully read and review the selected body system in your course textbooks.

    Incorporate at least 
    one
    scholarly peer-reviewed journal article that relates to the body system. It may be useful to identify an article that relates to a disease that impacts the body system.

    The paper must clearly articulate the relevance of advanced physical assessment skills, techniques, application of advanced practice knowledge, and assessment modification (when necessary) to accommodate for specific patient populations.

    Provide concluding statements that should summarize key points of the overall assignment content.

    In-text citations and reference page(s) must be written using proper APA format (6thedition).

    NR 509 Week 2 Shadow Health HEENT Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    Pre-Brief

    For the last week, Tina has experienced sore, itchy throat, itchy eyes, and runny nose. She states that these symptoms started spontaneously and have been constant in nature. … has treated her throat pain with occasional throat lozenges which has “helped a little”. She states that her nose “runs all day” and has clear discharge. … denies cough and recent illness. … denies fevers, chills, and night sweats. This case study will allow you to use standard office equipment to physically examine the patient’s eyes, ears, nose, and throat. You will need to document what you find in the Electronic Health Record (EHR). Be certain to use medically appropriate terminology, such as “erythematous” to describe redness of the skin, mucous membranes, or conjunctiva.

    | Overview

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | Lifespan

    | Review Questions

    | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz

    A mother brings her two month old daughter in for an examination says “my daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has the spot soft on the top of her head, is there something terribly wrong?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    During percussion the FNP knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. This most likely results from:

    The patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The FNP suspects Damage to:

    When examining the face, the FNP is aware that the two pairs of salivary gland‘s that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands

    A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The FNP suspects damage to cranial nerve ____ and proceeds with the examination by____

    When examining a patient’s cranial nerve function, the FNP remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

    The patient’s laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The FNP would proceed with an examination of the _____ gland

    A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adams apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that leaves the FNP to suspect that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump:

    The FNP notices that the patient’s submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the FNP would assess the patient’s:

    The FNP is aware that the four areas in the body were lymph nodes accessible are the:

    A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his eyes. The FNP should know that floaters are usually not significant and are caused by:

    The FNP is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How should the FNP proceed?

    A patient’s vision is recorded as 20/30 when the Snellen eye chart is used. The FNP interprets these results to indicate that:

    A patient is unable to read even the largest letters on the Snellen chart. The FNP should take which action next:

    A patient’s vision is reported as 20/80 in each eye. The FNP interprets this finding to mean that

    When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the FNP notes that the light is reflected at 2 o’clock in each eye. The FNP should

    The FNP is performing the diagnostic positions test. Normal findings would be which of these results?

    During an assessment of the sclera of an African-American patient, the FNP would consider which of these an expected finding?

    A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an examination. The FNP suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. How should the FNP check for this?

    The FNP is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale gray and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

    The FNP is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation?

    During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old African-American patient, the FNP notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the FNP do in response to these findings

    During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a three day history of nausea and vomiting the FNP notices dry mucous and deep vertical fissures on the tongue. These findings are reflective of:

    The FNP is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?

    The FNP student is reviewing physical assessment findings of the HEENT system associated with pregnancy. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of expected HEENT changes associated with pregnancy? During pregnancy:

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz Review – (Jarvis 8,9,13,14,15,16,18), (Swartz 4,6,7,8,9,10)

    1.     
      What does dullness when percussing lung fields: Jarvis pg 427

    2.       Facial sensation controlled by which CN: Jarvis 283,

    3.       Know what two salivary glands are accessible during exam

    4.       What CN is being … when pt shrugs shoulders Jarvis 646

    5.       What muscles are being …. when …. CN 11 (spinal accessory nerve)

    6.       Concern for malignant nodules versus benign lymph nodule

    7.       Know what you’d do next if you palpated a submental lymph node: Jarvis pg 253

    8.       Define visual acuity

    9.       Know what to do if your patient can’t read the largest number on the Snellen chart: Jarvis 289

    10.   Example of good visual acuity : Jarvis 289

    11.   Example of poor visual acuity: Jarvis 289

    12.   What is …. with corneal light reflex-

    13.   Know normal variances of sclera : Jarvis 283

    14.   Know how to check for Ptosis: Jarvis 292

    15.   What does ptosis indicate: Jarvis 292

    16.   Nasal fissure of pt with chronic allergies : Jarvis 271

    ·         Acute allergies : Jarvis p 363 .

    17.   What is an abnormal palpation of sinuses: Jarvis 362

    ·         Normal palpation of sinuses

    18.   Know normal variations in gingival margin

    19.   Know what a dehydrated oral cavity will look like: Jarvis 387

    20.   What is tactile fremitus, how do you test for it and what does it indicate. Jarvis 425

    NR 509 Week 3 Alternate Writing Assignment Neurological System Summer 2018

    Purpose

    As a family nurse practitioner, you must possess excellent physical assessment skills. This alternative writing assignment mirrors the discussion content of the debriefing session and will allow the student to expand their knowledge of physical health assessment principles specific to the advanced practice role.

    The purposes of this assignment are to: (a) identify and articulate advanced assessment health history and physical examination techniques which are relevant to a focused body system (CO 1), (b) differentiate normal and abnormal findings with regard to a disease or condition that impacts the body system (CO 2), and (c) adapt advanced assessment skills if necessary to suit the needs of specific patient populations (CO 4).

    NOTE
    : 
    Complete this alternative writing assignment ONLY if you had not participated or do not plan to participate in a debriefing session for the given week.

    Due Date: 
    Alternative written assignment is due no later than the Sunday of the week in which you did not attend the weekly debriefing session.

    Preparing the Paper:

    Select a focused body system from the weekly lesson which corresponds with the week of the written assignment.

    Carefully read and review the selected body system in your course textbooks.

    Incorporate at least 
    one
    scholarly peer-reviewed journal article that relates to the body system. It may be useful to identify an article that relates to a disease that impacts the body system.

    The paper must clearly articulate the relevance of advanced physical assessment skills, techniques, application of advanced practice knowledge, and assessment modification (when necessary) to accommodate for specific patient populations.

    Provide concluding statements that should summarize key points of the overall assignment content.

    In-text citations and reference page(s) must be written using proper APA format (6thedition).

     
    NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Assessment Musculoskeletal Spring 2018

    Subjective:

    HPI: Ms. Jones presents to the clinic complaining of back pain that began 3 days ago after she “tweaked it” while lifting a heavy box while helping a friend move. She states that lifted several boxes before this event without incident and does……………………………… She presents today as the pain has continued and is interfering with her activities of daily living.

    Social History: Ms. Jones’ job is mostly supervisory, although she does report that she may have to sit or stand for extended periods of time……………. use of tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drugs. She does not exercise.

    ROS: General: Denies changes in weight, fatigue, weakness, fever, chills, and night sweats. •

    Musculoskeletal: Denies muscle weakness, pain, joint instability, or swelling. She does state that she has difficulties with range of motion…… lower back has impacted her comfort while sleeping and sitting in class…….. numbness, tingling, radiation, or bowel/bladder dysfunction. She denies previous musculoskeletal injuries or fractures. •

    Neurologic: Denies loss of sensation, numbness, tingling, tremors, weakness, paralysis, fainting, blackouts, or seizures.

    Objective:

    ROS: General: Ms. Jones is a pleasant, obese 28-year-old African American woman in no acute distress. She is alert and oriented. She maintains eye contact throughout interview and examination.

    Musculoskeletal: Bilateral upper extremities without muscle atrophy or joint deformity. Bilateral upper extremities with full range of motion of shoulder, elbow, and wrist……………….. upper extremity strength equal and 5/5 in neck, shoulders, elbows, wrists, hands. Bilateral lower extremity strength equal and 5/5 in hip flexors, knees, and ankles.

    ASSESSMENT:
     Low back muscle strain related to lifting

    | Overview 

    | Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection 

    | Objective Data Collection 

    | Education & Empathy 

    | Documentation

    | Lifespan

    | Review Questions

    | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 3 Shadow Health Neurological Physical Assignment Completed

    Pre Brief

    Two days after a minor, low-speed car accident in which Tina was a passenger, she noticed daily bilateral headaches along with neck stiffness. She reports that it hurts to move her neck, and she believes her neck might … swollen. She did not lose consciousness in the accident and denies changes in level of consciousness since that time. … that she gets a headache every day that lasts approximately 1-2 hours. … occasionally takes 650 mg of over the counter Tylenol with relief of the pain. This case study will allow you the opportunity to examine the patient’s optic nerve via use of the ophthalmoscope as well as assess her visual acuity. You will need to document your findings using appropriate medical terminology. Be sure to assess for foot neuropathy using the monofilament test. Reason for visit: Patient presents complaining of headache.NR 509 Neurological Results | Transcript

    Interview Questions (113)

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Subjective Data Collection: 18 of 20 (90.0%)

    NR-509 Neurological Results | Objective Data Collection: 36.75 of 37 (99.32%)

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Education & Empathy: 4 of 4 (100.0%)

    Symptoms

    Cause of Injury

    Medications

    Vision

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Pre-Survey Lifespan

    Tina’s three-year-old neighbor presents to the clinic with fever, neck pain, headache, and confusion. He has no symptoms of an upper respiratory infection. The parents mention that they do not believe in immunizations. Based on the information given, what diagnosis is of the greatest concern? What is your next action?

    Tina’s 83-year-old great uncle forgets where he is during his yearly check-up. He doesn’t remember if he’s had memory problems before and no family members came to your office with him. List your differential diagnosis. What assessments would you perform?

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Review Questions

    To assess spinal levels L2, L3 and L4 in Tina, which deep tendon reflexes would have to be tested?

    Imagine that you were preparing to irrigate a Foley catheter of a patient with a spinal cord injury at T4 in a urology clinic. Upon moving the leg bag, the patient became suddenly flushed and diaphoretic above the nipple line. What would you suspect was happening?

    Which of the following is not a common symptom of Parkinson’s disease?

    Name at least three ways to assess cerebellar function during a physical exam.

    If Tina had a fever and photophobia, you would have had to test for meningitis. Describe how you would have tested for the Kernig’s sign

    Suppose you assessed pain sensation over Tina’s left foot, and noticed that she had decreased sensation. How would you have proceeded with your exam?

    NR 509 Neurological Results | Self-Reflection

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

    NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment Chamberlain 2018

    1.     
      A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the FNP expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

    2.       The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these

    3.       In assessing the carotid artery’s of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the FNP would

    4.       When listening to heart sounds the FNP knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are

    5.       The sack that surrounds and protects the heart is called the

    6.       When assessing a newborn infant who is five minutes old the FNP knows that which of these statements would be true?

    7.       The FNP is performing an assessment on an adult. The adults vital signs are normal and capillary refill is five seconds. What should the FNP do next?

    8.       During an assessment of an older adult the FNP should expect to notice which finding as normal physiologic change associated with aging process?

    9.       The mother of a three month old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning the FNP finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short amount of time hungry again. What other information with the FNP want to have?

    10.   In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease which would the FNP want to include when taking a history?

    11.   The FNP is … the pulses of a patient who has been admitted for untreated hyperthyroidism. The FNP should expect to find a____pulse

    12.   A patient complains of leg pain that wakes him at night. He states that he has been having problems with his legs. ….. his legs when they are … and disappears when he dangles them. He recently noticed a sore on the inner aspect of his right ankle. On the basis of this history information the FNP interprets that the patient is most likely experiencing

    13.   During an assessment the FNP uses the profile sign to detect

    14.   Which of these statements describes the closure of the valves in a normal cardiac cycle?

    15.   When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient the FNP is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient skin is warm and capillary refill is normal. The FNP should next

    16.   A 67-year-old patient states that he “recently began have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment”. This pain is relieved by sitting for about two minutes then he’s able to resume activities. The FNP interprets this patient is most likely experiencing

    17.   In assessing a 70-year-old man the FNP finds the following blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, heart rate 104 and slightly irregular, split S2. Which of these findings can… by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?

    18.   The FNP is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy three year old child. Which finding should the FNP expect?

    19.   The FNP is preparing to perform modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test?

    20.   A 25-year-old woman is in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. In reviewing her previous exam the FNP notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mmHg. When evaluating this change what does the FNP know to be true?

    21.   Findings from an … of a 70-year-old patient with swelling in his ankles include jugular venous pusations, 5 cm above the sternal angle when the head of his bed is …. 45°. The FNP knows that this finding indicate:

    22.   The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the

    23.   The FNP is reviewing anatomy and physiology of the heart. Which statement best … by atrial kick?

    24.   A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. I’ll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can’t catch my breath. The FNP‘s best response to this would be

    25.   When assessing a patient the FNP notes that the left femoral pulse as diminished 1+/4+. What should the FNP do next?

    NR 509 Week 4 Shadow Health Cardiovascular Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    Overview

    | 
    Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation

    | Lifespan

    | Review Questions

    | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 4 Shadow Health Chest Pain Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    Overview

    | 
    Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation

    Document: Provider Notes

    Document: Vitals

    | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment Chamberlain 2018

    1.     
      A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the FNP expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

    2.       The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these

    3.       In assessing the carotid artery’s of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the FNP would

    4.       When listening to heart sounds the FNP knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are

    5.       The sack that surrounds and protects the heart is called the

    6.       When assessing a newborn infant who is five minutes old the FNP knows that which of these statements would be true?

    7.       The FNP is performing an assessment on an adult. The adults vital signs are normal and capillary refill is five seconds. What should the FNP do next?

    8.       During an assessment of an older adult the FNP should expect to notice which finding as normal physiologic change associated with aging process?

    9.       The mother of a three month old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning the FNP finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short amount of time hungry again. What other information with the FNP want to have?

    10.   In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease which would the FNP want to include when taking a history?

    11.   The FNP is … the pulses of a patient who has been admitted for untreated hyperthyroidism. The FNP should expect to find a____pulse

    12.   A patient complains of leg pain that wakes him at night. He states that he has been having problems with his legs. ….. his legs when they are … and disappears when he dangles them. He recently noticed a sore on the inner aspect of his right ankle. On the basis of this history information the FNP interprets that the patient is most likely experiencing

    13.   During an assessment the FNP uses the profile sign to detect

    14.   Which of these statements describes the closure of the valves in a normal cardiac cycle?

    15.   When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient the FNP is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient skin is warm and capillary refill is normal. The FNP should next

    16.   A 67-year-old patient states that he “recently began have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment”. This pain is relieved by sitting for about two minutes then he’s able to resume activities. The FNP interprets this patient is most likely experiencing

    17.   In assessing a 70-year-old man the FNP finds the following blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, heart rate 104 and slightly irregular, split S2. Which of these findings can… by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?

    18.   The FNP is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy three year old child. Which finding should the FNP expect?

    19.   The FNP is preparing to perform modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test?

    20.   A 25-year-old woman is in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. In reviewing her previous exam the FNP notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mmHg. When evaluating this change what does the FNP know to be true?

    21.   Findings from an … of a 70-year-old patient with swelling in his ankles include jugular venous pusations, 5 cm above the sternal angle when the head of his bed is …. 45°. The FNP knows that this finding indicate:

    22.   The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the

    23.   The FNP is reviewing anatomy and physiology of the heart. Which statement best … by atrial kick?

    24.   A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. I’ll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can’t catch my breath. The FNP‘s best response to this would be

    25.   When assessing a patient the FNP notes that the left femoral pulse as diminished 1+/4+. What should the FNP do next?

    NR 509 Week 5 Shadow Health Abdominal Pain Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    ·  Overview

    ·  | Transcript

    ·  | Subjective Data Collection

    ·  | Objective Data Collection

    ·  | Education & Empathy

    ·  | Documentation

    ·         
    Document: Provider Notes

    ·         
    Document: Vitals

    ·  | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 5 Shadow Health Gastrointestinal Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    Transcript

    | 
    Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation 

    | Lifespan 

    | Review Questions 

    | Self-Reflection

    NR 509 Week 5 Quiz 2 Practice Versions Advanced Physical Assessment Chamberlain 2018

    1.    
       An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The FNP knows that this condition could be related to

    2.       ….. examining a patient who tells the FNP “I sure sweat a lot especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor”. The FNP knows that this could … related to

    3.       During an abdominal assessment the FNP elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The FNP interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder which of these structures?

    4.       An Inuit visiting Nevada from anchorage has come to the clinic in July during the hottest part of the day. It so happens that the clinics air conditioning is broken and the temperature is very hot. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true about the Inuit sweating tendencies?

    5.       The FNP notices that a patient has black, tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would …

    6.       ….. an abdominal …. deep palpation is used to determine

    7.       The FNP is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding an aging adult and abdominal assessment is true?

    8.       During examination the FNP finds that a patient has excessive dryness of the skin. The best term to describe this condition is

    9.       A FNP notices that a patient has ascites, which indicates the presence of

    10.   The FNP is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes during the abdominal assessment may include

    11.   The FNP is caring for a black child who has … with marasmus. The FNP would expect to find the

    12.   … patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination the FNP would expect to find

    13.   The FNP is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having acid indigestion all the time. The FNP knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause

    14.   The patient has abdominal borborygmi. The FNP knows that this term refers to

    15.   A patient has a terrible itch for several months that he … scratching continuously. On examination the FNP might expect to find

    16.   During aging process, the hair can look gray or white and begin to feel thin and fine. The FNP knows that this occurs because of a decrease in number of functioning

    17.   The FNP notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding the FNP would report this as a

    18.   During an abdominal assessment the FNP would consider which of these findings as normal?

    19.   A 52 -year-old Woman has a papule on her nose that has a rounded pearly border and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it is slowly growing larger. The FNP suspects which condition?

    20.   The FNP is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true about bowel sounds?

    21.   The FNP is watching a new graduate FNP perform auscultation of a patient abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation proceeds percussion and palpitation of the abdomen?

    22.   A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The FNP knows that this symptom is most often indicative of

    23.   The patient is … of having inflammation of the gallbladder or cholecystitis. The FNP should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition?

    24.   A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well baby check. The FNP observes the infant for possibility of fluid loss because of which these factors?

    25.   During an assessment of a newborn infant, the FNP recalls that pyloric stenosis would … manifested by

    NR 509 Week 5 Quiz: Skin, Hair, Abdomen

    1.       
    Question: The FNP is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding the agind adult and abdominal assessment is true?

    2.       Question: The FNP notices that a patient has had a black tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would be

    3.       Question: The FNP knows that during an abdominal assessment deep palpitation is used to determine

    4.       Question: A patient has abdominal borboygmi. The FNP knows that this term refers to

    5.       Question: During an abdominal assessment, the FNP would consider which of these findings as normal?

    6.       Question: The FNP is caring for a black child who has been diagnosed with marasmus. The FNP would expect to find the

    7.       Question: An Inuit visiting Nevada from Anchorage has come to the clinic in July during the hottest part of the day. It so happens that the clinic’s air conditioning is broken and the temperature is very hot. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true about the Inuit sweating tendencies?

    8.       Question: The FNP is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes heard during the abdominal assessment may include:

    9.       Question: During an abdominal assessment, the FNP elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The FNP interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder of which of these structures?

    10.   Question: A patient has a terrible itch for several months that he has been scratching continuously. On examination, the FNP might expect to find

    11.   Question: The FNP is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true of bowel sounds?

    12.   Question: A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The FNP knows that this symptom is most often indicative of

    13.   Question: The FNP notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding, the FNP would report this as a

    14.   Question: A patient is suspected of having inflammation of the gallbladder, or cholecystitis. The FNP should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition?

    15.   Question: The FNP just noted from a patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination, the FNP would expect to find

    16.   Question: During an examination, the FNP finds that a patient has excessive dryness of skin. The best term to describe this condition is

    17.   Question: An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The FNP knows that this condition could be related to

    18.   Question: A 52 year old woman has a papule on her nose that has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it has slowly grown larger. The FNP suspects which condition?

    19.   Question: The FNP is watching a new graduate FNP perform auscultation of a patient’s abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation precedes percussion and palpation of the abdomen?

    20.   Question: A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well-baby check. The FNP observes the infant for the possibility of fluid loss because of which of these factors?

    NR 509 Week 5 Quiz Review

    1.       
    Tenderness in RLQ is concerning for

    2.       Inuit people tend to sweat more on face than trunk and extremities when exposed to heat

    3.       spot on face with round pearly boarder with central red lesion concerning for

    4.       Murphy sign= positive with deep palpation causes pain on inspiration

    5.       Why do you auscultate first in abd assessment

    6.       Tympany in the umbilical area

    7.       Pt with decreased gastric secretions is at increase

    8.       Another name for hyperactive bowels

    9.       Black tarry stool concerning

    10.   Lichenification caused by

    11.   A papule is

    12.   Older adults have

    13.   CVA tenderness

    14.   Confluent lesions

    15.   Dryness of the skin

    16.   Newborns are at greater risk of fluid loss

    17.   High pitched irregular bowel sounds

    18.   Changes in hair texture and color of an AA child with Marasmus

    19.   Know how to assess for enlarged organs in the abd region

    20.   Know three sounds heard in percussion

    NR 509 Week 6 Shadow Health Mental Health Physical Assessment Assignment Summer 2018

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Transcript

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Subjective Data Collection

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Education and Empathy

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Documentation

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Life Span

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Review Questions

    NR 509 Mental Health Results | Self Reflection

    NR 509 Week 7 Shadow Health Comprehensive Health History and Physical Assessment Assignment

    NR 509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Experience Overview

    Digital Clinical Experience Score: Score 98.4%

    Student Performance Index: 121 out of 123

    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Transcript (FNP Student Conducting Interview)

    NR-509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Subjective Data Collection: 50 of 50 (100%)

    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Objective Data Collection: 71.0 of 73 (97.3%)

    NR-509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    NR 509 Comprehensive Assessment Results: Plan My Exam

    Your Final Plan

    Head and neck,

    Anterior chest,

    Posterior chest,

    Abdomen,

    Upper extremities,

    Lower extremities,

    Full body

    NR 509: Comprehensive Assessment Results: Self-Reflection

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons

    learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

    NR 509 Week 7 Assignment Immersion Completion Spring 2018

    __________, my name is ____________, I will be doing your exam today. I’ll begin with inspecting your face. I’ll note that I don’t see any discolorations or lesions & the head is midline & symmetrical.

    LYMPH NODES: 
    Next, I’ll palpate the lymph nodes. I’ll begin with the preauricular lymph nodes & postauricular lymph nodes. Next the occipital lymph nodes. I’ll move forward to palpate the tonsillar lymph nodes, submandibular & submental. I’m palpating the anterior cervical lymph nodes & posterior cervical lymph nodes & lastly the supraclavicular lymph nodes. I don’t feel any enlargement & they’re equal bilaterally.

    FACE : 
    I’m testing 
    trigeminal nerve
    , which is 
    cranial nerve # 5
    . Palpating over the masseter muscle as the pt clenches the jaw. I don’t feel any distortions & my pt has great strength. Now, I’m testing the sensory portion of the 
    trigeminal nerve
    . I’ll ask my pt to close your eyes & let me know where you feel my touch. (>> Forehead, right cheek, left cheek, chin, nose)………. which is 
    cranial nerve # 7
    . I’m going to ask you to do some facial expressions. I’m going to have you smile, next, frown for me. Now raise your eyebrows & puff up your cheeks, pucker your lips. I notice all expressions have bilateral symmetry.

    EARS

    EYES

    NOSE

    MOUTH

    NECK & THROAT

    HEART/CHEST
    ((pt sitting))

    UPPER EXTREMITIES

    ABDOMEN
    ((have pt lie down))

    LOWER EXTREMITIES

    NR 509 Week 6 Quiz Practice 2 Versions Advanced Physical Assessment Chamberlain 2018

    1.       
    A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance-abuse problem. She admits to using cocaine just before arrival. Which of these assessment findings would the FNP expect to find when examining the woman?

    2.       A 63-year-old Chinese American man enters the office with complaints of chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Which statement most accurately reflect the FNPs best course of action?

    3.       The FNP is planning to assess new memory with the patient. The best way for the FNP to do this would be

    4.       During the health history the FNP asks a female patient “how many alcoholic drinks do you have a week?” Which answer by the patient would indicate at risk drinking?

    5.       Symptoms such as pain are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain?

    6.       The FNP suspect abuse when a 10-year-old child is taken to the urgent care center for leg injury. The best way to document the history and physical findings is to

    7.       During a mental status assessment, which question by the FNP would best assess a persons judgment?

    8.       The FNP is performing a mental status assessment on a five-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might leave FNP to be concerned about the girls mental status?

    9.       During mental status examination, the FNP wants to assess a patient’s affect. The FNP should ask the patient which question?

    10.   During an examination FNP notices a patterned injury on a patients back. Which of these would cause such an injury?

    11.   The FNP is aware that intimate partner violence screening should occur with which situation?

    12.   Which statement is best for the FNP to use when preparing to administer the abuse assessment screen?

    13.   The FNP is conducting a class on alcohol and the effects of alcohol on the body. How many standard drinks (each containing 12 g alcohol) Per day are associated with increased deaths from cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus and injuries in men?

    14.   A woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant is in the clinic for her first obstetric visit. She asked the FNP how many drinks a day safe for my baby? The FNP‘s best response is

    15.   The FNP is performing the Denver II screen test on a 12 month old infant during a routine well child visit. The FNP should tell the infants parents that the Denver II

    16.   Which term refers to a one produced by tearing or splitting of body tissue usually from blunt impact of a bony surface

    17.   When reviewing the use of alcohol by older adults the FNP notes that the older adults have several characteristics that can increase the risk of alcohol use which would increase the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods of time in the older adult?

    18.   The FNP is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain. Which statement is

    true regarding pain?

    19.   The FNP is planning to assess a child using behavioral checklist. This tool is most appropriate for a(an)

    20.   The FNP is assessing orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses … leave the FNP to … that the patient is … ?

    21.   As a mandatory reporter of elder abuse, which of these must be present before an FNP notifies the authorities?

    22.   A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of prior suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the FNP‘s best response in this situation?

    23.   For persons age 12 years and older which of these illicit substances was one of the most commonly used?

    24.   Which of these individuals would the FNP consider at highest risk for suicide attempt?

    25.   The FNP is …. a patient who has … for cirrhosis of the liver secondary to chronic alcohol use. During the physical … the FNP looks for cardiac problems that are … with chronic heavy use of alcohol such as

    NR 509 Week 7 Quiz Practice 2 Versions Advanced Physical Assessment Chamberlain 2018

    1.       
    During an examination of an aging male the FNP recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:

    2.       During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks “can I get that vaccine for HPV? I have gentle warts and I’d like them to go away!” What is the FNP‘s best response?

    3.       During a speculum inspection of the vagina the FNP would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?

    4.       A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. The symptoms are most consistent with which of the following?

    5.       When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man the FNP notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information the FNP would:

    6.       The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the FNP to discuss the recognition of puberty. The FNP should reply by saying:

    7.       The uterus is usually … tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as

    8.       A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the FNP where sperm is produced. The FNP knows that sperm production occurs in

    9.       A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of dull pain and pulling in the scrotal area. On examination the FNP palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testes on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine in refills when he is up right. This description is consistent with:

    10.   In performing an assessment of a woman’s axillary lymph system the FNP should assess which of these nodes?

    11.   A patient contacts the office and tells the FNP that she is worried about her 10-year-old daughter having breast cancer. She describes a unilateral enlargement of the right breast with associated tenderness. She is worried because the left breast is not enlarged. What would be the FNP‘s best response?

    12.   An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The FNP notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. …. which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The FNP should:

    13.   A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the FNP include in patient education? A post menopausal woman:

    14.   A 62-year-old man states that his doctor told him that he has an inguinal hernia. He asks the FNP to explain what a hernia is……:

    15.   When performing a genital assessment on a middle-age man, the FNP notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristics of:

    16.   If a patient reports a recent breast infection, then the FNP should expect to find_____node enlargement

    17.   A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. After some initial shyness she finally asked “am I normal? I don’t seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never get breasts?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    18.   Which of these statements about the testes this true?

    19.   During an examination FNP observes a female patients vestibule and expect to see the

    20.   A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking history, the FNP should ascertain which of the following? The age:

    21.   A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the FNP that she is afraid that the infection will hurt the fetus. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true?

    22.   In performing a breast examination the FNP knows that it is especially important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant

    23.   An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the

    24.   Which of these statements is true regarding the penis?

    25.   A woman who is 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a check up. The FNP reads on her chart that her cervix is … cyanotic. The FNP knows that the woman is exhibiting____sign and _____sign

    NR 509 Week 8 Reflection MSN program outcome 1 and the MSN Essential

    Reflect back over the past eight weeks and describe how the achievement of the course outcomes in this course have prepared you to meet the MSN program outcome #1 and the MSN Essential I.

    NR 509 Week 1 Discussion (Patient Information: JDS, 30, M, African American, Cigna)

    NR.509 Week 2 Discussion (Patient Information: KMW, 27, F, African American, Aetna)

    NR 509 Week 3 Discussion (Patient Information: SJS 33, F, African American, Cigna)

    Using a friend, family member, or colleague, perform a 
    neurovascular (include all cranial nerves), musculoskeletal, and cardiopulmonary (includes the heart, lungs, and peripheral vasculature) exam
    . Document the physical examination findings in the SOAP note format.

    Even though your patient may have abnormal findings, you must document the expected normal exam findings for the system. If you would like to include the abnormal findings they should be noted in parenthesis next to the normal expected findings. The complete 
    subjective
     and 
    objective
     sections must be included………… plan portion of the SOAP note, but these sections will not be graded.

    You should devise a chief complaint so that you may document the OLDCART (HPI) data. 
    You must use the chief complaint of headache, back pain, and cough. ______
     ROS based on the patient’s chief complaint and the body systems being examined. Refer to the SOAP Note Format document in Course Resources as necessary. This will be the same format that faculty will follow during the immersion weekend.

    * There are videos of the exams to be performed at immersion in Modules → Introduction and Resources→ Immersion section. Also the immersion evaluation forms are located in the Course Resources section. They should be reviewed and practiced often.

    NR.509 Week 4 Discussion (Patient Information: NJL, 22, M, African American, Cigna)

    Using a friend, family member, or colleague, perform a 
    detailed men’s health history
    . Document the history and the expected normal physical examination findings in the SOAP note format.

    Even though your patient may have abnormal findings, you must document the expected normal exam findings for the system. If you would like to include the abnormal findings they should be noted in parenthesis next to the normal expected findings. The complete 
    subjective
     and 
    objective
     sections must be included…………..assessment and plan portion of the SOAP note, but these sections will not be graded.

    You should devise a chief complaint so that you may document the OLDCART (HPI) data. 
    You must use the chief complaint of penile discharge, rectal bleeding, or frequent urination.
     You should also focus the ROS based on the patient’s chief complaint and the body systems being examined. Refer to the SOAP Note Format document in Course Resources as necessary. This will be the same format that faculty will follow during the immersion weekend.

    * There are videos of the exams to be performed at immersion in Modules → Introduction and Resources→ Immersion section. Also the immersion evaluation forms are located in the Course Resources section. They should be reviewed and practiced often.

    NR 509 Week 5 Discussion (Patient Information: JDS, 21, M, African American, Blue Cross Blue Shield)

    Using a friend, family member, or colleague, perform a 
    detailed women’s health history
    . Document the history and the expected normal physical examination findings in the SOAP note format.

    Even though your patient may have abnormal findings, you must document the expected normal exam findings for the system. If you would like to include the abnormal findings they should be noted in parenthesis next to the normal expected findings. The complete 
    subjective
     and 
    objective
     sections must be included.  You may include the assessment and plan portion of the SOAP note, but these sections will not be graded.

    You should devise a chief complaint so that you may document the OLDCART (HPI) data. 
    You must use the chief complaint of burning while urinating, irregular menstrual cycle, or pelvic pain…
    ……. focus the ROS based on the patient’s chief complaint and the body systems being examined. Refer to the SOAP Note Format document in Course Resources as necessary. This will be the same format that faculty will follow during the immersion weekend.

    * There are videos of the exams to be performed at immersion in Modules → Introduction and Resources→ Immersion section. Also the immersion evaluation forms are located in the Course Resources section. They should be reviewed and practiced often.

    NR 509 Focused Exam Cough Assignment Completed Shadow Health

    Introduction

    Daniel “Danny” Rivera is an 8-year-old boy who comes to the clinic with a cough. Students determine if Danny is in distress, explore the underlying cause of his cough, and look for related symptoms in other body systems.

    Case Highlights

    Ask about a variety of psychosocial factors related to home life, such as second-hand smoke exposure

    Observe non-verbal cues as Danny presents with intermittent coughing and visible breathing difficulty

    Rule out asthma, a common childhood affliction, by examining Danny

    NR 509 Focused Exam Cough | Transcript

    Interview Questions (76)

    Statements (8)

    Exam Actions (96)

    NR 509 Focused Exam Cough | Subjective Data Collection: 20 of 20 (100.0%)

    NR-509 Focused Exam Cough | Objective Data Collection: 12.6 of 13 (96.92%)

    NR 509 Focused Exam Cough | Education & Empathy:  4 of 5 (80.0%)

    Symptoms

    Medications

    Vitamins

    Secondhand Smoke

    Family History

    NR 509 Focused Exam-Cough | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    Document: Vitals

    Document: Provider Notes

    NR 509 Focused Exam Cough | Self-Reflection

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional nursing practice.

  • Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder

    Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder

    Complex Regional Pain Disorder

    White Male With Hip Pain

    BACKGROUND

    This week, a 43-year-old white male presents at the office with a chief complaint of pain. He is assisted in his ambulation with a set of crutches. At the beginning of the clinical interview, the client reports that his family doctor sent him for psychiatric assessment because the doctor felt that the pain was “all in his head.” He further reports that his physician believes he is just making stuff up to get “narcotics to get high.”

    BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    SUBJECTIVE

    The client reports that his pain began about 7 years ago when he sustained a fall at work. He states that he landed on his right hip. Over the years, he has had numerous diagnostic tests done (x-rays, CT scans, and MRIs). He reports that about 4 years ago, it was discovered that the cartilage surrounding his right hip joint was 75% torn (from the 3 o’clock to 12 o’clock position). He reports that none of the surgeons he saw would operate because they felt him too young for a total hip replacement and believed that the tissue would repair with the passage of time. Since then, he reported development of a strange constellation of symptoms including cooling of the extremity (measured by electromyogram). He also reports that he experiences severe cramping of the extremity. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. He reports that one of the neurologists diagnosed him with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), also known as reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD). However, the neurologist referred him back to his family doctor for treatment of this condition. He reports that his family doctor said “there is no such thing as RSD, it comes from depression” and this was what prompted the referral to psychiatry. He reports that one specialist he saw a few years ago suggested that he use a wheelchair, to which the client states “I said ‘no,’ there is no need for a wheelchair, I can beat this!”

    The client reports that he used to be a machinist where he made “pretty good money.” He was engaged to be married, but his fiancé got “sick and tired of putting up with me and my pain, she thought I was just turning into a junkie.”

    He reports that he does get “down in the dumps” from time to time when he sees how his life has turned out, but emphatically denies depression. He states “you can’t let yourself get depressed… you can drive yourself crazy if you do. I’m not really sure what’s wrong with me, but I know I can beat it.”

    During the client interview, the client states “oh! It’s happening, let me show you!” this prompts him to stand with the assistance of the corner of your desk, he pulls off his shoe and shows you his right leg. His leg is turning purple from the knee down, and his foot is clearly in a visible cramp as the toes are curled inward and his foot looks like it is folding in on itself. “It will last about a minute or two, then it will let up” he reports. Sure enough, after about two minutes, the color begins to return and the cramping in the foot/toes appears to be releasing. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. The client states “if there is anything you can do to help me with this pain, I would really appreciate it.” He does report that his family doctor has been giving him hydrocodone, but he states that he uses is “sparingly” because he does not like the side effects of feeling “sleepy” and constipation. He also reports that the medication makes him “loopy” and doesn’t really do anything for the pain.

    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    The client is alert, oriented to person, place, time, and event. He is dressed appropriately for the weather and time of year. He makes good eye contact. Speech is clear, coherent, goal directed, and spontaneous. His self-reported mood is euthymic. Affect consistent to self-reported mood and content of conversation. He denies visual/auditory hallucinations. No overt delusional or paranoid thought processes appreciated. Judgment, insight, and reality contact are all intact. He denies suicidal/homicidal ideation, and is future oriented. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Diagnosis: Complex regional pain disorder (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)

    Decision Point One

    Select what the PMHNP should do:

    Savella 12.5 mg orally once daily on day 1; followed by 12.5 mg BID on day 2 and 3; followed by 25 mg BID on days 4-7; followed by

    Savella 12.5 mg orally once daily on day 1; followed by 12.5 mg BID on day 2 and 3; followed by 25 mg BID on days 4-7; followed by 50 mg BID thereafter

    50 mg BID thereafter

    Amitriptyline 25 mg po QHS and titrate upward weekly by 25

    Amitriptyline 25 mg po QHS and titrate upward weekly by 25 mg to a max dose of 200 mg per day

    mg to a max dose of 200 mg per day

    Neurontin 300 mg po BEDTIME with weekly increases of 300

    Neurontin 300 mg po BEDTIME with weekly increases of 300 mg per day to a max of 2400 mg if needed

    mg per day to a max of 2400 mg if needed

    The Assignment

    Examine Case Study: A Caucasian Man With Hip Pain. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to prescribe to this client. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    At each decision point stop to complete the following:

    • Decision #1

    o Which decision did you select?

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #2

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different? Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    • Decision #3

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients.

    Note: Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement.

    Below is a simple paper for reference, the needs an introduction and a conclusion.

    Assessing and Treating Clients with Anxiety Disorder

    Introduction

    Anxiety disorders refer to a syndrome of mental disorders typified by substantial feelings of fear and anxiety. The anxiety and fears may cause physical symptoms like shakiness and rapid heart rate. Various forms of anxiety disorders include panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, among other disorders (Locke et al, 2015). The focus of this assignment is on a 46-year-old male who presented with symptoms of anxiety disorder that included shortness of breath, chest tightness as well as a feeling of impending doom. Lab results and EKG in the ER were normal which ruled out myocardial infarction. (HAM-A) scale yielded a score of 26 and a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) was made. Following the diagnosis, three decisions will be made about the treatment regimen for the client. After making each decision, a rationale supported by clinical evidence and patient data will be provided. Moreover, after making each decision, factors likely to impact the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes for the client will be considered when making decisions. Finally, ethical considerations likely to impact the client’s treatment plan will be discussed. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Decision # 1

    The first decision for this client would be to start Zoloft 50 mg orally daily. This decision was made because Zoloft is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and SSRIs are the recommended first-line treatments for anxiety disorders. SSRIs work by increasing the amount of serotonin within the brain; serotonin is a brain chemical that is very important for mood regulation (Locher et al, 2017). Accordingly, SSRIs such as Zoloft work by hindering serotonin reuptake in the brain and therefore increases the level of serotonin in the brain; availability of serotonin thus helps in regulating moods and hence improves anxiety symptoms. In addition, evidence shows that Zoloft is effective in improving anxiety symptoms manifest in GAD; this is because anxiety depletes serotonin in the brain and this is addressed by an SSRI such as Zoloft which replaces the depleted serotonin in the brain (Patel et al, 2018).

    Imipramine (Tofranil) at 25 mg BID and Buspirone (Buspar) 10 mg orally twice daily choices were not selected because evidence shows that SSRIs as the first-line medications in the treatment of anxiety disorders. Both Imipramine and Buspirone takes about 2 – 4 weeks before making any improvement on the symptoms. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. Moreover, these two medications are not well tolerated as Zoloft and also have numerous side effects when compared to Zoloft.

    By selecting the decision to begin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily, it was expected that symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder manifested by the client would gradually clear away. It was also expected that the HAM-A score for the client would significantly reduce indicating an improvement of the anxiety symptoms. This is because evidence shows that Zoloft as an SSRI is effective in the treatment of GAD symptoms (Patel et al, 2018). In addition, it was hoped that the client would have minimal side effects and tolerate the medication because evidence shows that SSRIs have minimal side effects are well tolerated (Clevenger et al, 2018)

    There was no significant difference between the actual outcome of the decision and the expected results because when the client came for review the anxiety symptoms had significantly reduced and manifested by the client not having symptoms such as shortness of breath or chest tightness. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. Moreover, the client reported that he had stopped worrying about his job and also the HAM-A score dropped from 28 to 18 which shows that the client was responding to treatment, although partially.

    Decision # 2

    The chosen second decision is to increase the client’s Zoloft dose to 75 mg orally daily. This decision was selected because the client’s HAM-A score dropped from 28 to 18 which indicated a partial response to treatment which shows that the client is responding to the treatment. Therefore, the increase of the dose from 50 mg to 75mg will further increase the availability of serotonin within the brain and thus further improve the anxiety symptoms for the client. Evidence supports the gradual increase of the SSRIs dosage if the clients are not satisfactorily responsive to the treatment (Jakubovski et al, 2016). This decision was also based on the fact that the client seems to be tolerating Zoloft medication well and without any side effect.

    The option to increase Zoloft to 100mg was not chosen because dosage increase and titration are supposed to be gradual to ensure the client continues to tolerate the medication well with minimal side effects. On the other hand, the option to have the client continue with the same dose and have him reassessed after four weeks was not selected because the client’s response is partial and therefore it is essential to increase the dosage to ensure complete response to the medication (Jakubovski et al, 2016).

    By choosing this decision, the expectation was that the anxiety symptoms would continue reducing and this would be indicated by a significantly reduced HAM-A score. There was no noticeable difference between the actual decision and the expected decision because on coming to the clinic the client’s anxiety symptoms had further reduced as indicated by the further reduction of the HAM-A score. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Decision # 3

    For the third decision, the decision will be to maintain the client on the current dose of Zoloft 75 mg orally daily. This decision was made because with the current regime the client is showing improvement of the anxiety symptoms as such as tightness in the chest, difficulty breathing or the feeling that something terrible is about to happen and also the HAM-A score indicated significant reduction with the current dose. This means that the client is responding to the current medication and dose adequately. In addition, with the current dose, the client is not experiencing any side effects and he is tolerating the medication very well. Evidence and clinical guidelines recommend titration of medications according to the response of the client; in this case, the client is responding very well and hence there is no need to titrate medication any further (Jakobsen et al, 2017).

    The option to either augment the current treatment with Buspar or the option of increasing the current dose of Zoloft to 100mg was not chosen since the client is showing a satisfactory response to the current dose of Zoloft 75 mg.

    By selecting this decision, the expectation is that the client will show a complete response to the treatment where the client will report complete clearance of the symptoms and the HAM-A score will significantly reduce.

    Impact of Ethical Considerations on the Treatment Plan

    For this client, the ethical considerations will encompass informed consent, confidentiality, and autonomy. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. First, it is essential to seek informed consent from the client to ensure that the client has full information about the recommended treatment before he consents to the treatment (Millum, 2013). Secondly, the confidentiality of the client should be respected. This means that any information and the client’s treatment regimen should not be disclosed to any other party without the consent of the client. Lastly, the client’s autonomy should be respected where the client should not be forced or coerced to have any treatment; he should decide to accept or refuse the treatment. Any decision the client makes about the treatment should be respected (Millum, 2013).

    Conclusion

    The selected first decision is to begin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily. The rationale for selecting this decision is because SSRIs such as Zoloft are the first treatment choice for anxiety disorders and evidence shows that the medication is effective in treating anxiety symptoms. There was significant improvement with this decision. The second decision was to increase the dose to the Zoloft dose to 75 mg orally daily. This decision was made because the client was showing partial response as indicated by the HAM-A score and hence increasing the dose would facilitate a satisfactory response. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. The third decision is to maintain the current dose because the client is showing a satisfactory response to the treatment as indicated by the reduced HAM-A score and reduced symptoms as per the subjective data. Finally, the ethical considerations that should be considered include autonomy, confidentiality, and informed consent.

    References

    Clevenger S, Devvrat M, Dang J, Vanle B & William I. (2018). The role of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in preventing relapse of major depressive disorder. Ther Adv Psychopharmacology. 8(1): 49–58.

    Jakubovski E, Anjali V, Freemantle N, Taylr M & Bloch M. (2016). Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis: Dose-Response Relationship of Selective-Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors in Major Depressive Disorder. Am J Psychiatry. 173(2): 174–183.

    Jakobsen J, Kumar K, Timm A, Gluud C, Ebert E et al. (2017). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors versus placebo in patients with major depressive disorder. A systematic review with meta-analysis and Trial Sequential Analysis. BMC Psychiatry. 17(58).

    Locke A, Faafp M, Krist N & Shultz C. (2015). Diagnosis and Management of Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder in Adults. Am Fam Physician. 1;91(9),617-624. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Locher, C., Koechlin, H., Zion, S. R., Werner, C., Pine, D. S., Kirsch, I. & Kossowsky, J. (2017).

    Efficacy and Safety of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors, Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors, and Placebo for Common Psychiatric Disorders Among Children and Adolescents: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis. JAMA Psychiatry. 74(10), 1011–1020.

    Millum J. (2013). Introduction: Case Studies in the Ethics of Mental Health Research. J Nerv Ment Dis. 200(3), 230–235.

    Patel D, Feucht C, Brown K & Ramsay J. (2018). Pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders in children and adolescents: a review for practitioners. Transl Pediatr. 7(1): 23–35. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Introduction

    Complex regional pain syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects the limbs and is likely to be induced by trauma or surgery.  Apart from complicating the entire recovery process, it tends to impair the psychosocial and functional well-being of an individual. It’s characterized by vasomotor abnormalities, hyperalgesia, , and allodynia. The pain that a patient experiences is often disproportionate to the degree of tissue injury that occurs and may persist beyond the anticipated period required for tissue healing (Stanton-Hicks, 2018). Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. The major goals of therapy are: to ensure pain relief, to restore functioning and psychologically stabilize a patient.

    Many drugs are often used in pain management to improve functional status. However, mental health practitioners should ensure that the choice of drugs promotes compliance and have fewer side effects. This paper discusses the management of a 43-year-old who presented with complex regional pain disorder. In his management, three decisions are to be made regarding the most effective medications, expected outcomes, , and actual outcomes. A description of the ethical issues when engaging clients with complex regional pain disorder and their families will also be provided.

    Decision #1

    Decision Selected

    Start Savella 12.5 mg orally once daily on day 1; followed by 12.5 mg BID on day 2 and 3; followed by 25 mg BID on days 4-7; followed by 50 mg BID thereafter

    Reasons for Selecting This Decision

               
    Patients with regional pain disorder have a low pain threshold which may be caused by changes in the central nervous system. These changes cause a patient to be more sensitive to pain due to wrong neurotransmitter levels in the brain. As selective norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that has an equal effect on both neurotransmitters, Savella is an NMDA antagonist that works on nerve endings to produce analgesic effects (Stanton-Hicks, 2018).  It promotes the reuptake of the neurotransmitters in the brain thus easing the pain, reducing fatigue and promoting memory. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant that has proven to be effective in the management of neuropathic pain off label could also be a good option (Benzon, Liu & Buvanendran, 2016).  However, it has a side effect of drowsiness and dizziness that the client initially stated clearly that he didn’t like. Therefore, prescribing this medication for a start might only trigger non-compliance.

    Neurontin, also referred to as gabapentin, is an anti-epileptic / anticonvulsant, is used in for nerve pain relief. Therefore, it could also be a good option for the management of this patient. However, it also has the side effects of drowsiness and in high doses, results in extreme somnolence and drowsiness (Finnerup, et al., 2015).  Since the patient expressed his dislike for the side effect of feeling sleepy from the start, prescribing it would only lead to non-compliance. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Expected Outcome

    By starting the patient on Savella, it was expected that his pain will significantly reduce to 3 on a scale of 1-10 and be able to walk without support. It was also expected that he would resume to a normal work routine and be able to perform activities of daily life will very minimal or no assistance (Stanton-Hicks, 2018).  His mood would be happy or joyous and he would have a stable effect.

    Difference between Expected outcome and Actual Outcome

               
    The client returned to the clinic after four weeks walking without crutches but minimally limping.  He reported that the main was more manageable and he was able to walk around with no assistance. However, he noted that the pain was worse during the morning hours and got better as the day progressed.  On a scale of 1-10, his pain was reportedly 4 but admitted that he could be able to live and tolerate a level of 3. The client also noted that he occasionally experienced bouts of sweating that he couldn’t explain with some sleep disturbance. An assessment revealed that he had a blood pressure of 147/92mmhg and a pulse of 110 beats/ min. He was still future-oriented and denied homicidal/suicidal ideation. One of the major side effects of Savella is heart palpitations (Finnerup, et al., 2015).  It is for this reason that the patient experienced bouts of sweating, sleep disturbance and had a high blood pressure. Reducing the dosage can help to minimize this side effect.

    Decision #2

    Decision Selected

    Continue With the Current medication but reduce the dosage to 25 mg twice daily

    Reasons for Selecting This Decision

    During the first visit, the client reported that he experienced unexplained symptoms of bouts of sweats, sleep disturbance and he had a high blood pressure. These symptoms were the resultant side effects of Savella. According to Stanton-Hicks (2018), by reducing the dosage of Savella, its side effects are also minimized resulting in more improved health outcomes. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Expected Outcome

    By reducing the dosage of Savella, it was expected that the patient’spatient’s pain level will also be minimized, he will still be able to perform most activities of daily life with very minimal support and that his social, professional and physical functioning will also improve (Benzon, Liu & Buvanendran, 2016). Above all, the dosage reduction aimed to ensure that the side effects weren’t adverse and that he would live a near normal life.

    Difference between Expected outcome and Actual Outcome

               
    After four weeks, the patient returned to the clinic walking with crutches. He stated that the pain was 7 out of 10 and admitted that he didn’t feel good as compared to the previous month. He frequently woke up at night due to pain on his right leg and foot. He, however,, however, denied homicidal and suicidal ideation. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder. His blood pressure was 124/85 and pulse rate was 87 beats/ min. He looked sad and discouraged by the slip in the management of his pain. The decision to lower the dosage of Savella in managing the client’s initial side effects to the dug inspired this difference at the cost of uncontrolled pain (Murnion, 2018).

    Decision #3

    Decision Selected

    Change Savella to 25 mg orally in the morning and 50 mg orally at bedtime

    Reasons for Selecting This Decision

               
    During the client’s first visit to the clinic, he clearly stated that the medication Savella was effective for his pain management but the pain worsened early morning and improved as the day progressed. As supported by Finnerup, et al., (2015), starting with dose reductions during parts of the day when pain is mostly under control is a good idea that can still contribute to the achievement of therapeutic goals.

    Expected Outcome

    It was expected that the patient’s pain will effectively be managed to a level of 3 on a scale of 1-10. He will also be able to walk and perform most of his activities of daily life with minimal or no support. As supported by Stanton-Hicks (2018), the patient would no longer experience sleep disturbance and that his affect and mood will gradually be stable. With regards to the drugs side effects, it was expected that the patient’s blood pressure and pulse rate will gradually normalize and that he will no longer experience palpitations or unexplained bouts of sweating.

    Difference between Expected outcome and Actual Outcome

    The client returned to the clinic after four weeks walking without crutches. He reported his pain level to be 4 on a scale of 1-10 and expressed how he was grateful but would love it to reduce to 3 since it’s the best level that he could easily manage. His blood pressure was 120/84mmhg and pulse rate 86beats/min. He denied suicidal/homicidal ideation and was still future-oriented. At this point, it will be necessary to explain to the client that he has a neuropathic pain syndrome which probably may never respond to pain medications. Therefore, it would be practical to collaboratively set realistic expectations and make the patient understand that he will frequently experience some pain level daily (Benzon, Liu & Buvanendran, 2016). What matters most is to manage it in such a manner that permits him to effectively perform activities of daily life.  The patient should also be educated that medications are not a final solution but a part of a complex regimen of chiropractic care, physical therapy, massage and heat therapy (Murnion, 2018).

    How Ethical Considerations Might Impact Treatment plan and Communication With Clients

    The most significant ethical consideration for this client is that of informed consent, autonomy, beneficence, and non-maleficence. Before changing any treatments, it is important to seek informed consent just to ensure that he is fully aware of what he is consenting to, possible dangers and outcomes involved (Millum, 2013).  Secondly, any treatment options considered should only be for the patient’s best interest/benefit and have fewer side effects. This will guarantee that all treatment options cause no harm. Lastly, the client’s autonomy should also be respected such that, he shouldn’t be forced or coerced to agree to a treatment modality that his conscience is against (Millum, 2013). Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Conclusion

    The management of regional pain disorder in adults requires a careful and thorough assessment of a patients needs which will help to decide the best medications to use as part of a broader regimen of heat and massage therapy, chiropractic care and physical therapy. Savella, an SNRI was the best medication choice for the management of this patient’s pain. It has minimal side effects with the major side effect being heart palpitations which can be managed with dosage reduction. Although in patients with regional pain disorder dose reduction comes with the cost of uncontrolled pain, string reductions during the parts of a day when pain is mostly under control helphelp to achieve the desired therapeutic goals as it was in this case.

    References

    Benzon, H. T., Liu, S. S., & Buvanendran, A. (2016). Evolving definitions and pharmacologic management of complex regional pain syndrome.

    Finnerup, N. B., Attal, N., Haroutounian, S., McNicol, E., Baron, R., Dworkin, R. H., .& Kamerman, P. R. (2015). Pharmacotherapy for neuropathic pain in adults: a systematic review and meta-analysis. 
    The Lancet Neurology
    , 
    14
    (2), 162-173. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

    Millum J. (2013). Introduction: Case Studies in the Ethics of Mental Health Research. J Nerv Ment Dis. 200(3), 230–235.

    Murnion, B. P. (2018). Neuropathic pain: current definition and review of drug treatment. 
    Australian Prescriber
    , 
    41
    (3), 60.

    Stanton-Hicks, M. (2018). Complex regional pain syndrome. In 
    Fundamentals of Pain Medicine
    (pp. 211-220). Springer, Cham. Assessing and Treating Clients With Pain Essay – Complex Regional Pain Disorder.

  • Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay

    Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay

    Delusional Disorders

    Pakistani Female With Delusional Thought Processes

    BACKGROUND

    The client is a 34-year-old Pakistani female who moved to the United States in her late teens/early 20s. She is currently in an “arranged” marriage (her husband was selected for her since she was 9 years old). She presents to your office today following a 21 day hospitalization for what was diagnosed as “brief psychotic disorder.” She was given this diagnosis as her symptoms have persisted for less than 1 month.

    Prior to admission, she was reporting visions of Allah, and over the course of a week, she believed that she was the prophet Mohammad. She believed that she would deliver the world from sin. Her husband became concerned about her behavior to the point that he was afraid of leaving their 4 children with her. One evening, she was “out of control” which resulted in his calling the police and her subsequent admission to an inpatient psych unit. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    During today’s assessment, she appears quite calm, and insists that the entire incident was “blown out of proportion.” She denies that she believed herself to be the prophet Mohammad and states that her husband was just out to get her because he never loved her and wanted an “American wife” instead of her. She tells you that she knows this because the television is telling her so.

    She currently weighs 140 lbs, and is 5’ 5”

    SUBJECTIVE

    Client reports that her mood is “good.” She denies auditory/visual hallucinations, but believes that the television does talk to her. She believes that Allah sends her messages through the TV. At times throughout the clinical interview, she becomes hostile towards the PMHNP, but then calms down.

    You reviewed her hospital records and find that she has been medically worked up by a physician who reported her to be in overall good health Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Lab studies were all within normal limits.

    Client admits that she stopped taking her Risperdal about a week after she got out of the hospital because she thinks her husband is going to poison her so that he can marry an American woman.

    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    The client is alert, oriented to person, place, time, and event. She is dressed appropriately for the weather and time of year. She demonstrates no noteworthy mannerisms, gestures, or tics. Her speech is slow and at times, interrupted by periods of silence. Self-reported mood is euthymic. Affect constricted. Although the client denies visual or auditory hallucinations, she appears to be “listening” to something. Delusional and paranoid thought processes as described, above. Insight and judgment are impaired. She is currently denying suicidal or homicidal ideation. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    The PMHNP administers the PANSS which reveals the following scores:

    -40 for the positive symptoms scale

    -20 for the negative symptom scale

    -60 for general psychopathology scale

    Diagnosis: Schizophrenia, paranoid type

    RESOURCES

    § Kay, S. R., Fiszbein, A., & Opler, L. A. (1987). The Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale (PANSS) for schizophrenia. Schizophrenia Bulletin, 13(2), 261-276.

    § Clozapine REMS. (2015). Clozapine REMS: The single shared system for clozapine. Retrieved from https://www.clozapinerems.com/CpmgClozapineUI/rems/pdf/resources/Clozapine_REMS_A_Guide_for_Healthcare_Providers.pdf

    § Paz, Z., Nalls, M. & Ziv, E. (2011). The genetics of benign neutropenia. Israel Medical Association Journal. 13. 625-629.

    Decision Point One

    Select what the PMHNP should do:

    Start Zyprexa 10 mg orally at BEDTIME

    Start Zyprexa 10 mg orally at BEDTIME

    Start Invega Sustenna 234 mg intramuscular X1 followed by 156 mg intramuscular on day 4 and monthly thereafter

    Start Invega Sustenna 234 mg intramuscular X1 followed by 156 mg intramuscular on day 4 and monthly thereafter

    Start Abilify 10 mg orally at BEDTIME

    Start Abilify 10 mg orally at BEDTIME

    Examine Case Study: Pakistani Woman with Delusional Thought Processes. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to prescribe to this client. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.

    At each decision point stop to complete the following:

    • Decision #1

    o Which decision did you select?

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #2

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different? Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    • Decision #3

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients.

    Note: Support your rationale with a minimum of three academic resources. While you may use the course text to support your rationale, it will not count toward the resource requirement.

    Below is a simple paper for reference.

    “Bipolar” refers to a mental condition characterized by a sudden shift in the energy and the moods of the patient. The condition may also result in the occurrence of manic phases along with slight depression. The condition is quite difficult to diagnose being that one may exhibit depression-like symptoms and/or manic phases. Symptoms associated with bipolar disorder are common, often symptoms of other disorders Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Cases of misdiagnosis for this condition is also common. This, in turn, results in wrong medication prescribed to the patient. Under such circumstance, the condition of the patient might become more complicated, and worst-case scenario, some might lose their lives (Stahl, 2013). It is therefore important to thoroughly assess the symptoms exhibited by a client before making a diagnosis. This is in a bid to eliminate any case of misdiagnosis. This paper will provide three medical decisions that can be taken in the treatment of a patient diagnosed with Bipolar disorder.

    Background

    The client that I assessed this week is a 26-year-old Korean female. The client has been hospitalized for 21 days as a result of manic phases that she experienced. During the assessment process, the client would fiddle with things. She weighed 110lbs while standing 5’5”. She explains how she only sleeps for five hours since “sleeping is not fun.” Her medical history indicated that she is of good health and the results from the lab evaluation indicated that her vital signs are within normal limits. A gene test of the client indicated that she is positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, which means any medication offered to her would not yield the desired results. She reports that she stopped taking the medications that she was prescribed within hospital (Laureate Education, 2016f). The client is alert and oriented to the events taking place around her. However, she is dressed inappropriately and her speaking rapidly. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. She reports her mood as unbothered and affects as broad. She denies any form of hallucination or paranoia. Her judgment is intact while her insight is slightly affected. Nonetheless, she denies suicidal ideations.

    Decision #1

    Selected Decision

    The first decision is to start Risperdal 1mg orally BID

    Reason For Selecting This Decision

    Risperdal, originally referred to as risperidone, is a typical antipsychotic that has proven to be highly effective in the management of bipolar disorders. It does so by trying to influence a rebalance in serotonin and dopamine thus resulting in good conduct. Since the patient was having bipolar confusion, Risperdal happens to be the best alternative also considering that it is readily accessible (Culpepper, 2014). In the past treatment therapy, the patient happened to default lithium. Therefore, it wouldn’t be a smart option to start lithium 300mg since the chances of the patient not adhering to treatment are high. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Also, Lithium has a lot of side effects and the patient will be subjected to monitoring therapeutic range periodical to avoid toxic range, which means the patient have to go to a lab and have her blood drawn periodical. Similarly, Seroquel XR could be a good alternative, but it’s mostly used for acute Schizophrenia and Schizophrenia maintenance. However, its side effects of increase diabetes, dyslipidemia, constipation and weight addition might contribute to non-compliance thus not achieving the therapeutic goals (John & Antai-Otong, 2016). This leaves Risperdal as the best option in this case.

    Expected Outcomes

    Within four weeks on treatment, the patient is expected to show immense progress. The current manifestations of bipolar disorder that she experiences are also expected to diminish to an extent that the patient has a peaceful state of mind. The patient should be restful and be able to conduct her activities of daily life with little or no difficulty (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Risperdal is the best choice to influence mental action and improve the patient’s capacity to be of rational sound mind in the way she addresses issues. It is also expected that the patient’s self-destructive practices and tension would diminish and will respond to her environment and social interactions positively (Fang, et al., 2017).

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    After four weeks, the client returned to the clinic accompanied by her mother looking very lethargic and sedated. They, however, agreed that the patient’s self-destructive practices had significantly diminished. The client’s mother explained that the client had been lethargic for about a week after the last visit. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. It should be noted that one of the side effects of Risperdal is sedation (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Similarly, based on the fact that the client is reportedly positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, it is probable that she might be having a slow rate of clearance of Risperdal from her systems leading to higher levels than normal of Risperdal in blood (Chen et al., 2015).

    Decision #2

    Selected Decision

    Based on the client’s presentation and the initial decision, the second-best decision, in this case, would be reducing Risperdal to 1mg HS.

    Reason for Selecting This Decision

    Based on the patient’s progress during the second visit, it was evident that Risperdal was effective in attaining therapeutic goals of treatment. However, the unwanted side effects were the major concerns. It is therefore wise to decrease the dosing to deal with the side effects rather than change to another drug. Decreasing the dosage to one mg HS would be the best alternative that will help to reduce the significant impact of the side effects (Culpepper, 2014). Changing the drug to lithium will possibly result in non-compliance since the client has already developed some demeanor towards it. Besides, the patient may turn out to generally have a negative attitude towards all medicines which may be prescribed by the mental health practitioner. Giving the patient support to adapt to an alternate dosage of the same medication will also improve their dedication, trust, and understanding to collaborate in achieving the treatment goals (John & Antai-Otong, 2016).

    Expected Outcomes

    As earlier stated, Risperdal has proven to be effective in managing the symptoms of bipolar disorder by influencing a balance in serotonin and dopamine to help address a patient’s self-destructive behaviors. Based on the fact that the client is positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, the initial dosage could have resulted in an accumulation of Risperdal which is slowly being cleared (John & Antai-Otong, 2016). Reducing the dosage to one mg HS will definitely reduce the amount of Risperdal accumulated in the body and subsequent side effects of lethargy and sedation. By adjusting this dosage, it is expected that the patient will record some positive progress in terms of reduced self-destructive behaviors, ease in performing activities of daily life and thinking patterns (Fang, et al., 2017). It is also expected that the client will have minimal episodes of lethargy and sedation.

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    After four weeks, the client returned to the clinic accompanied by her mother. She was less sedated, less lethargic and showed a lot of improvement in symptoms. The young mania rating scale had also reduced from 22 to 16, an illustration that there was more than a 25% reduction in symptoms. These outcomes were actually foreseen and were the reason the dosage of Risperdal was reduced to one mg HS (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Risperdal is a powerful choice for bipolar disorder; its side effects are easily manageable and help in the achievement of therapeutic goals for bipolar patients more easily.

    Decision #3

    Selected Decision

    My third decision would be to continue at the same dosage of 1 mg HS.

    Reason for Selecting This Decision

    From the initial visit, it was evident that the client has good progress in terms of reducing self-destructive behaviors and management of the drugs side effects. Maintaining this dosage and reassessing the client after four weeks will contribute to the achievement of the treatment goals for both the client and the attending mental health practitioner. The initial dosage of 1 mg BID had turned out to be detrimental to the patient’s health (Fang, et al., 2017). Therefore, going back to it would prompt similar side effects. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Besides, changing to Seroquel is not recommendable in this case since Seroquel is FDA approved for bipolar II depression and schizophrenia which differs from the patient’s presentation that we are trying to manage.

    Expected Outcomes

    It is expected that, within four weeks, the patient will record immense progress by reducing self-destructive behaviors. Besides, she will report very minimal or no side effects from Risperdal. She will have a good state of mind, conduct, and good thinking patterns. Risperdal is FDA approved for managing bipolar symptoms and has proven to be highly effective with manageable side effects (John & Antai-Otong, 2016)

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    As initially expected, the patient has some significant progress and very minimal side effects of lethargy and sedation. The reassessment proved that Risperdal had adequately helped to achieve the necessary treatment goals in the entire course of treatment. Given the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of Risperdal, these are certainly the outcomes that ought to be expected. Since the client is for positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, Risperdal could be clearing at a slower rate resulting to higher than normal levels in the blood (Fang, et al., 2017).

    However, the effect, in this case, may not be significant as compared to the initial point.

    How Ethical Considerations Might Impact the Treatment Plan and Communication with Clients

    The major ethical considerations that ought to be considered in managing clients with bipolar disorder are beneficence, nonmaleficence, and autonomy. Despite the fact that clients need treatment to live near-normal lives, the risks of the choice of medications used should balance with the corresponding benefits. Alternatively, a mental healthcare provider should consider giving the patient some of the best available options for management to maximize the benefits of treatment (Ratheesh et al., 2017). The impairment or insight and judgment that is always characterized by mania and mood episodes may render a patient as not able to provide informed consent nor incapable of making rational decisions regarding their treatment. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Besides, a number of clinical presentations such as delusional thinking and irritability could probably be a threat in damaging the therapeutic alliance that exists between a client and a mental healthcare provider. It should also be noted that, due to the relapsing-remitting nature of bipolar disorder, there are instances where a patient might feel well and question the need to continue with treatment (Ratheesh et al., 2017). This place the treatment goals laid by the mental healthcare provider is in conflict with the patient’s autonomy to make decisions.

    Background Information

    For this assignment, the patient was a 34-year old Pakistani female who relocated to the United States while in her early 20s. Currently, she was in an organized marriage with a husband who was selected for her since she was 9 years old.  Today, she presents at the clinic following hospitalization for 21 days for a ‘brief psychotic disorder’ since her symptoms had lasted for less than a month.

    Prior admission, the client reported of visions of Allah and in an entire week, she strongly believed that she was Prophet Mohammad and would deliver the entire world from sin. Her husband became more concerned about her behavior to the extent that he was afraid of leaving their children with her. One evening, the client was described to be out of control. As a result, the husband called the police which was followed by a subsequent admission to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    In today’s assessment, the patient appeared to be calm and emphasizes that the whole incident was just blown out of proportion. She also denies having believed that she was Prophet Mohammad and stated that her husband was out to get her since he never loved her and wanted a wife who was American instead of her. She informs that she knows this since the television told her so. Currently, she was 140 lbs. and 5’5’’.

    Based on this case study, this paper discusses three major decisions regarding the medication to be prescribed to this client suffering from Schizophrenia, paranoid type. A description of the expected outcomes and actual outcomes will be provided for every decision with an explanation for any differences likely to be witnessed. Major ethical considerations that are likely to impact the client’s treatment plan and communication with clients will also be provided Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    Decision Pont 1

    Decision Selected

    Start Zyprexa 10 mg orally at bedtime

    Reason for Selecting this Decision

    Zyprexa, also known as olanzapine is an antipsychotic drug which affects brain chemicals. It is approved to treat symptoms of mental health disorders such as bipolar disorder and schizophrenia in both children and adults who are 13 years or older. Zyprexa is an atypical antipsychotic, which functions by helping to restore the balance of neurotransmitters in the brain. In terms of dosing, it is administered once daily (Wei Xin, 2016). Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Zyprexa is used to treat dysfunctional behaviors, malfunctions, speeches and distorted interpretations of the issues and events surrounding them.

    Abilify could be a good option but only for a patient who has a good response to oral abilify. It should also be remembered that, Abilify does not bind to D2 receptor for quite a long time. Therefore, it can be less effective for some patients. Another possible side effect of Abilify is akathisia which is an extrapyramidal side effect that may lead to medication non-adherence. On the other hand, Invega Sustenna could also be a good option. However, it increases the risk of  memory loss  and  its side effects of pain, redness, swelling at the site of injection increases the chances of the patient failing to turn up for appointments. Invega Sustenna also leads to muscle spasms, high cholesterol and weight gain, which may generally impair the client’s physical wellbeing based on her current weight.

    Expected Outcomes

    By administering Zyprexa, it was expected that the client will have no hallucinations or delusional thoughts and she would be able to think more positively and clearly about herself. It was also expected that she would feel less agitated and actively participate in activities of daily life (Drug, 2015).

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    After four weeks, the client returned to the clinic accompanied by her husband. The client’s PANSS had decreased to a partial response of 25%.  The client also reported a weight gain of 5 pounds. When questioned further, the client stated that she could never seem to get satisfied with her meals. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. As a result, she constantly snacked in an entire day. One of the major side effects of Zyprexa is increased appetite which influences an increase in the frequency of taking meals hence weight gain.  Among all atypical antipsychotics, Zyprexa causes the most significant weight gain. Zyprexa has also been associated with increasing the risk of hyperglycemia hence newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus in clients (Takeuchi et al., 2015).

    Decision Point 2

    Decision Selected

    Reduce Zyprexa to 7.5 mg orally at bedtime

    Reason for Selecting this Decision

    Based on the client’s visit, it was evident that she was concerned about the weight gain and increased appetite which was caused by the medication Zyprexa at dosing of 10mg Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Therefore, reducing the dosage to 7.5mg orally at bedtime is an effort to purposely counter the side effect of weight gain and increased appetite while treating the psychotic symptoms of delusions, hallucinations, dysfunctional thoughts, mood and behaviors (Drug, 2015).

    Expected Outcomes

               
    It was expected that, by reducing the dosage of Zyprexa from 10 mg orally at bedtime to 7.5mg orally at bedtime, the patient would not gain additional weight. Additionally, the currently revised dosage of 7.5mg orally at bedtime is within the patient’s weight. Apart from being advised to stop snacking an entire day, the client will be advised to observe normal meal schedules and actively engage in regular physical exercise to lose the excess weight that she had initially added(Wei Xin, 2016).

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    The client returned to the clinic after four weeks accompanied by her husband. She had worsened. Her PANNS had increased by 10%, an indicator that all her negative symptoms were gradually worsening. However, her weight had stabilized and excess hunger episodes had abated. According to the husband’s explanation, the client was gradually becoming less manageable at home, which forced him to take time off work as he was fearful to leave her alone. This was clear that the therapeutic goals were not being achieved with the current dosing of 7.5 mg of Zyprexa orally at bedtime (Takeuchi et al., 2015). Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    Decision Point 3

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    Decision Selected

    Increase the dosage of Zyprexa to 10mg orally at bedtime and

    Reason for Selecting this Decision

               
    From the client’s previous visit, it was notable that the dosage of 7.5 mg failed to help achieve the desired therapeutic levels. Despite the fact that having no complaints of weight gain and a manageable appetite, the client was reportedly unmanageable which also inconvenienced the husband. This also means that 7.5mg was an under dosage for the patient hence was insufficient to achieve the desired therapeutic goals for treatment. However, by returning to a dosage of 10 mg orally at bedtime, the client will receive similar side effects as that of the initial point of weight gain and increased appetite. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay. Besides, she will also be at risk of Diabetes mellitus (Drug, 2015). Therefore, Risperdal could be considered a perfect option. Nonetheless, since Risperdal is dosed twice daily, compliance for this patient could be a problem. Evidence exists to support the efficacy of administering Risperdal once which is a good option in case compliance for this patient becomes an issue. Despite the fact that weight gain is also a side effect of Risperdal, it is not as serious as Zyprexa (Takeuchi et al., 2015).

    Expected Outcomes

    With Risperdal as an alternative, it is expected that the client will be more manageable and display less severe psychotic symptoms. She will report little or no delusions, hallucinations and significantly improve in terms of being more manageable (Takeuchi et al., 2015). Besides, the client will be able to execute her activities of daily life with little or no assistance and associated symptoms will have very minimal effect/impact on her overall life. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

               
    Although the patient reported minor on and off delusional symptoms, there was no significant difference between the expected outcome and the actual outcome. The client demonstrated to be alert and oriented with a stable mood and fluent affect. She also reported no side effects of increased appetite or weight gain, an indicator that therapeutic goals were gradually being achieved (Takeuchi et al., 2015).

    How Ethical Considerations Might Impact the Treatment Plan and Communication with Clients

    A major ethical consideration in counseling this client and making the treatment plan is that of informed consent. Patients with schizophrenia tend to have neurological deficits such that, they are not mentally/psychologically fit to make decisions for themselves regarding treatment. The same way, it is difficult to tell whether by consenting to a treatment plan, they fully understand what they are consenting to. As supported by Young, Taylor & Lawrie (2015), while attempting to get an informed and voluntary consent from the patient, caution should be taken to ensure that any decisions made do not harm the patient. This means that a mental health practitioner ought to strive to strike a balance between the principle of autonomy and non-maleficence. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

    References

    The drug, A. A. (2015). 8 Olanzapine (Zyprexa).
    Top Drugs: Their History, Pharmacology, and Syntheses
    , 138.

    Takeuchi, H., Fervaha, G., Lee, J., Agid, O., & Remington, G. (2015). The effectiveness of different dosing regimens of risperidone and olanzapine in schizophrenia.
    European Neuropsychopharmacology
    , 
    25
    (3), 295-302.

    Wei Xin Chong, J., Hsien-Jie Tan, E., Chong, C. E., Ng, Y., & Wijesinghe, R. (2016). Atypical antipsychotics: A review on the prevalence, monitoring, and management of their metabolic and cardiovascular side effects. 
    Mental Health Clinician
    , 
    6
    (4), 178-184.

    Young, S. L., Taylor, M., & Lawrie, S. M. (2015). “First do no harm.” A systematic review of the prevalence and management of antipsychotic adverse effects. 
    Journal of Psychopharmacology
    , 
    29
    (4), 353-362. Assessing and Treating Clients With Psychosis and Schizophrenia Sample Essay.

  • Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay

    Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay

    Generalized Anxiety Disorder

    Middle-Aged White Male With Anxiety

    BACKGROUND INFORMATION

    The client is a 46-year-old white male who works as a welder at a local steel fabrication factory. He presents today after being referred by his PCP after a trip to the emergency room in which he felt he was having a heart attack. He stated that he felt chest tightness, shortness of breath, and feeling of impending doom. He does have some mild hypertension (which is treated with low sodium diet) and is about 15 lbs. overweight. He had his tonsils removed when he was 8 years old, but his medical history since that time has been unremarkable. Myocardial infarction was ruled out in the ER and his EKG was normal. Remainder of physical exam was WNL.

    He admits that he still has problems with tightness in the chest and episodes of shortness of breath- he now terms these “anxiety attacks.” He will also report occasional feelings of impending doom, and the need to “run” or “escape” from wherever he is at.

    In your office, he confesses to occasional use of ETOH to combat worries about work. He admits to consuming about 3-4 beers/night. Although he is single, he is attempting to care for aging parents in his home. He reports that the management at his place of employment is harsh, and he fears for his job. You administer the HAM-A, which yields a score of 26.

    Client has never been on any type of psychotropic medication.

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    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    The client is alert, oriented to person, place, time, and event. He is appropriately dressed. Speech is clear, coherent, and goal-directed. Client’s self-reported mood is “bleh” and he does endorse feeling “nervous”. Affect is somewhat blunted, but does brighten several times throughout the clinical interview. Affect broad. Client denies visual or auditory hallucinations, no overt delusional or paranoid thought processes readily apparent. Judgment is grossly intact, as is insight. He denies suicidal or homicidal ideation.

    The PMHNP administers the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A) which yields a score of 26.

    Diagnosis: Generalized anxiety disorder. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    RESOURCES

    § Hamilton, M. (1959). Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale. Psyctests, doi:10.1037/t02824-0

    Decision Point One

    Select what the PMHNP should do:

    Begin Zoloft 50 mg po daily

    Begin Zoloft 50 mg po daily

    Begin Imipramine 25 mg po BID

    Begin Imipramine 25 mg po BID

    Begin Buspirone 10 mg po BID

    Begin Buspirone 10 mg po BID

    The Assignment

    Examine Case Study: A Middle-Aged Caucasian Man With Anxiety. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to prescribe to this client. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.

    At each decision point stop to complete the following:

    • Decision #1

    o Which decision did you select?

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #2

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #3

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different? Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients.

    Below is a simple paper for reference.

    Week 2 Assignment: Assessing and Treating Pediatric Clients with Mood Disorders

    Depression is considered an affective disorder due to its effect on the internal emotions and external mood seen by others (Stahl, 2013). Symptoms of depression include generalized sadness which can lead to feelings of guilt, fatigue, anxiety, poor concentration, changes in sleep pattern, increased or poor appetite and social isolation among many others. It is theorized that the cause of depression is due to a deficiency of monoamine neurotransmitters which are responsible for the amount of norepinephrine, serotonin and dopamine in the brain (Stahl, 2013). When treating a patient with depression, medications generally target this deficiency in hopes to provide relief from the symptoms the client is experiencing.

    Case Study Information

    The case study presented this week consists of an 8-year-old African American male presenting to the emergency department with mom due to increased feelings of sadness, withdrawn behavior in school, decreased appetite and occasional agitated behaviors (Laureate Education, 2016e). While the physical examination and laboratory studies were within normal limits, the mental status exam proved to be normal with reported “sad” mood, blunted affect but appropriately smiled at times and endorses thoughts of passive suicidal ideation (Laureate Education, 2016e). The client scored a 30 on the Children’s Depression Rating Scale, indicating significant depression (Laureate Education, 2016e).

    The purpose of this assignment is to consider the 8-year-old client and information and make three decisions concerning medications to prescribe to the client. Each decision offers multiple options to choose from. The decision will be chosen based on evidence consisting of recent academic resources and research studies along with a rational for why the other two options were not chosen. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay. Each outcome will be discussed based on if it was expected or not and what the next step will be. Lastly, ethical considerations will be discussed and how they may impact the treatment plan for the client and the communication with the client and his family.

    Decision One

    The first decision point the Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) must choose which medication the client will start. The medications to choose from include Zoloft (sertraline) 25 mg by mouth daily, Paxil (paroxetine) 10 mg by mouth daily, and Wellbutrin (bupropion) 75 mg by mouth twice daily (Laureate Education, 2016e). As the PMHNP caring for this client, Zoloft 25 mg daily would be the first choice of therapy for this patient. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are known to be the first line of treatment for children with depression (DeFilippis & Wagner, 2014). While sertraline and paroxetine are both SSRIs, sertraline is FDA approved when treating children whereas paroxetine has been found to be affective when treating children with depression, it is not specifically approved by the FDA at this point in time (Stahl, 2014b). Sertraline is approved by the FDA for use in children with depression beginning at the age of six (Stahl, 2013). Additionally, paroxetine is not recommended in use for children due to its short half-life which can lead to withdrawal when the medication is stopped abruptly (Nathan & Gorman, 2015).

    The safety and efficacy of bupropion have not been established thus far but it some research that has been done suggests that this medication is effective for treatment of a client with both attention deficit disorder and depression, something that the client in this case study does not exhibit (Stahl, 2014b). Research has also shown that often the placebo effect alone on prescription medications can play a part in reduction of depressive symptoms in both children and adults (DeFilippis & Wagner, 2014). Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    As a new prescriber, I would most likely make a cautious decision when treating a child for the first time. Due to the fact that sertraline is FDA approved in the treatment of depression in children, I would most likely go with that medication as a primary action for prescribing for this client. The goal of this treatment is to alleviate depressive symptoms in the client while minimizing the risk for side effects of the medication.

    When the client returned to the clinic four weeks after starting on Zoloft 25 mg daily, there was no change in the depressive symptoms at all (Laureate Education, 2016e). I am surprised that there was absolutely no change given the fact that the effects can be either medicinal or placebo, with changes seen as early as a week into the medication trial (Nathan & Gorman, 2015). As with all medications, there is always the chance that the client does not see an improvement in symptoms.

    Decision Two

    After the initial trial of Zoloft 25 mg yielded no change in the client’s symptoms, the treatment options are to increase the dose to 37.5 mg daily, increase the dose to 50 mg daily or to change the medication completely to Prozac 10 mg daily (Laureate Education, 2016e). Because the patient has not exhibited any adverse reactions to the medication, there is no need to change the medication at this time. As for titrating the sertraline, it can be titrated in increments of 25 mg with the maximum dosage not to exceed 200 mg daily (Southammakosane & Schmitz, 2015). Once the medication is started and tolerated, research supports titrating the medication up to minimize depressive symptoms (Cheung et al., 2018). Paroxetine, in general, was not recommended for treatment of pediatric depression based on research by Nathan & Gorman (2015) and this will not be considered for this client.

    Based on this research, the decision was made to increase the Zoloft dose to 50 mg daily for the client. Again, the goals of treatment are to find a medication that reduces depressive symptoms in this pediatric patient while minimizing adverse effects. Once that goal is accomplished, long term goals for the client would be medication compliance and absence of relapse in depressive symptoms and suicidality.

    The client returned to the clinic in four weeks with a decrease in depressive symptoms by 50% and is tolerating the medication well (Laureate Education, 2016e). While I anticipated the patient to have a reduction in depressive symptoms with the increase in dose, I had hoped the low dose would be effective for this patient. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay. I am pleasantly surprised that the patient is not exhibiting any side effects from the medication.

    Decision Three

    The increase in the Zoloft dose to 50 mg yielded decreased depressive symptoms and no side effects (Laureate Education, 2016e). The next decision for the client involves maintaining the current dose, increasing the dose by 25 mg again to achieve a total dose of 75 mg daily or changing the medication to a SNRI (Laureate Education, 2016e). When discussing the medication with the client and parent, it would be important to discuss medication adherence to assure the client is taking the medication as directed. If this is the case, I would likely recommend increasing the dose to 75 mg due to the fact that the medication can be titrated up in 25 mg increments with the maximum prescribed dose of Zoloft being no more than 200 mg by mouth each day (Southammakosane & Schmitz, 2015). If the patient had seen no response and had reached the upper limit of Zoloft already, I would consider changing the medication, but it appears as though there is some desired effect from the medication without adverse reactions, which is the goal of treatment.

    Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI’s) such as duloxetine, venlafaxine and desvenlafaxine are considered second-line or third-line treatments for children with depression (Koechlin et al., 2018). Additionally, some research shows that there is significant cost benefit as well as safety in using SSRI’s over SNRI’s (Locher et al., 2107). In this case, I would continue with the SSRI medication I have been utilizing for this patient, which is a first line medication until I have exhausted my dosage options.

    With increasing the dose of the Zoloft to 75 mg daily, I am hopeful that the medication will have an increased effect, perhaps 75-100% effective with little to no side effects. The response to the decision was that the client had a sufficient response to the medication with associated symptom reduction (Laureate Education, 2016e). It was recommended to either continue the Zoloft at 50 mg daily considering there was a response to the medication and evaluate again in four weeks to see if the medication continues to work or to increase it to 75 mg daily considering it was not complete remission of depressive symptoms (Laureate Education, 2016e).

    While an increased dose may yield potential adverse effects, it can also give the necessary response of decreased depressive symptoms. This could be an opportunity to discuss the medication and symptoms with both the client and his parents to make them apart of the decision making. Although the client is only 8-years-old, he is capable of discussing his feelings as well as his response to the medication. Family can offer additional feedback from an external source about the client’s symptoms (Stahl, 2013). Should the patient not be able to tolerate the medication increase, the dose can be decreased as well. As I anticipated with the third decision, there is no reason to change the medication to an SNRI at this time considering the client is tolerating the Zoloft dose and exhibiting a response to it.

    Conclusion

    While there is not one correct answer when treating a child with depression, beginning drug therapy with a SSRI and titrating up slowly and as indicated has proved to be effective for my 8-year-old client with depression. When combined with therapy, such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) treatment is enhanced and side effects of medications are diminished (Giles & Martini, 2016). Along with follow up for medication management, this client and his mom should also be educated on potential side effects including potential increase in suicidality. Should this happen, the client should be encouraged to reach out to a parent or adult he trusts and seek an appointment immediately.

    Ethically, when treating clients with medications, benefit of treatment must outweigh potential harm (Merry et al., 2017). When discussing the treatment plan with the client and family, we must remain transparent and educate them on the pros and cons of the medications and also the potential for a placebo effect from taking an antidepressant medication. Information should be provided based on educational level and should be basic enough for an 8-year-old to understand and also complex enough for the parent to gauge an understanding of the medication their child is taking.

    This assignment was an opportunity to examine different medication therapy for a child with depression and make changes as needed to help alleviate the client’s symptoms. Although there is not one clear answer when diagnosing and treating patients, it is important we treat each patient individually and based upon their needs and responses to medications prescribed.

    References

    Cheung, A. H., Zuckerbrot, R. A., Jensen, P. S., Laraque, D., Stein, R. E., & GLAD-PC

    STEERING GROUP. (2018). Guidelines for adolescent depression in primary care (GLAD-PC): Part II. Treatment and ongoing management. Pediatrics, 141(3), e20174082.

    DeFilippis, M., & Wagner, K. D. (2014). Management of treatment-resistant depression in

    children and adolescents. Pediatric Drugs, 16(5), 353-361

    Giles, L. L., & Martini, D. R. (2016). Challenges and promises of pediatric

    psychopharmacology. Academic pediatrics, 16(6), 508-518.

    Koechlin, H., Kossowsky, J., Gaab, J., & Locher, C. (2018). How to address the placebo

    response in the prescription SSRIs and SNRIs in children and adolescents.

    Laureate Education (2016e). Case study: An African American child suffering from depression

    [Interactive media file]. Baltimore, MD: Author. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    Locher, C., Koechlin, H., Zion, S. R., Werner, C., Pine, D. S., Kirsch, I. & Kossowsky, J. (2017).

    Efficacy and Safety of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors, Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors, and Placebo for Common Psychiatric Disorders Among Children and Adolescents: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis. JAMA Psychiatry, 74(10), 1011–1020. http://doi.org/10.1001/ jamapsychiatry.2017.2432

    Merry, S. N., Hetrick, S. E., & Stasiak, K. (2017). Effectiveness and Safety of Antidepressants

    for Children and Adolescents: Implications for Clinical Practice. JAMA psychiatry, 74(10), 985-986.

    Nathan, P. E., & Gorman, J. M. (Eds.). (2015). A guide to treatments that work. Oxford

    University Press.

    —————————— ————–

    Assessing and Treating Clients with Anxiety Disorder

    Introduction

    Anxiety disorders refer to a syndrome of mental disorders typified by substantial feelings of fear and anxiety.  The anxiety and fears may cause physical symptoms like shakiness and rapid heart rate. Various forms of anxiety disorders include panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, among other disorders (Locke et al, 2015).  The focus of this assignment is on a 46-year-old male who presented with symptoms of anxiety disorder that included breath shortness, chest tightness as well as a feeling of impending doom. Results of ER and ECK were normal which ruled out myocardial infarction. (HAM-A) scale yielded a score of 26 and a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) was made. Following the diagnosis, three decisions will be made about the treatment regimen for the client. After making each decision, a rationale supported by clinical evidence and patient data will be provided. Moreover, after making each decision, factors likely to impact the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes for the client will be considered when making decisions. Finally, ethical considerations likely to impact the client’s treatment plan will be discussed.

    Decision Point One

    The first choice for the client would be to begin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily. This decision was selected because Zoloft is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and SSRIs are the recommended first-line treatments for anxiety disorders. SSRIs work by increasing the amount of serotonin within the brain; serotonin is a brain chemical that is very important for mood regulation (Locher et al, 2017). Accordingly, SSRIs such as Zoloft work by hindering serotonin reuptake in the brain and therefore increases the level of serotonin in the brain; availability of serotonin thus helps in regulating moods and hence improves anxiety symptoms. In addition, evidence shows that Zoloft is effective in improving anxiety symptoms manifest in GAD; this is because anxiety depletes serotonin in the brain and this is addressed by an SSRI such as Zoloft which replaces the depleted serotonin in the brain (Patel et al, 2018).

    Imipramine (Tofranil) at 25 mg BID and Buspirone (Buspar) 10 mg orally twice daily choices were not selected because as aforementioned evidence recommends SSRIs as the first-line medications in the treatment of anxiety disorders Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay. Moreover, these two medications are not well tolerated as Zoloft and also have numerous side effects when compared to Zoloft.

    By selecting the decision to begin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily, it was expected that symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder manifested by the client would gradually clear away. It was also expected that the HAM-A score for the client would significantly reduce indicating an improvement of the anxiety symptoms. This is because evidence shows that Zoloft as an SSRI is effective in the treatment of GAD symptoms (Patel et al, 2018). In addition, it was hoped that the client would have minimal side effects and tolerate the medication because evidence shows that SSRIs have minimal side effects are well tolerated (Clevenger et al, 2018)

    There was no significant difference between the actual outcome of the decision and the expected results because when the client came for review the anxiety symptoms had significantly reduced and manifested by the client not having symptoms such as shortness of breath or chest tightness. Moreover, the client reported that he had stopped worrying about his job and also the HAM-A score dropped from 28 to 18 which shows that the client was responding to treatment, although partially.

    Decision Point Two

    The chosen second decision is to increase the client’s Zoloft dose to 75 mg orally daily. This decision was selected because the client’s HAM-A score dropped from 28 to 18 which indicated a partial response to treatment which shows that the client is responding to the treatment. Therefore, the increase of the dose from 50 mg to 75mg will further increase the availability of serotonin within the brain and thus further improve the anxiety symptoms for the client.  Evidence supports the gradual increase of the SSRIs dosage if the clients are not satisfactorily responsive to the treatment (Jakubovski et al, 2016). This decision was also based on the fact that the client seems to be tolerating Zoloft medication well and without any side effect.

    The option to increase Zoloft to 100mg was not chosen because dosage increase and titration are supposed to be gradual to ensure the client continues to tolerate the medication well with minimal side effects.  On the other hand, the option to have the client continue with the same dose and have him reassessed after four weeks was not selected because the client’s response is partial and therefore it is essential to increase the dosage to ensure complete response to the medication (Jakubovski et al, 2016). Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    By choosing this decision, the expectation was that the anxiety symptoms would continue reducing and this would be indicated by a significantly reduced HAM-A score. There was no noticeable difference between the actual decision and the expected decision because on coming to the clinic the client’s anxiety symptoms had further reduced as indicated by the further reduction of the HAM-A score.

    Decision Point Three

    For the third decision, the chosen decision is to have the client maintain the current dose of Zoloft 75 mg orally daily. This decision was chosen because with the current decision the client is showing improvement of the anxiety symptoms as indicated by the subjective data and the HAM-A score; the client reported that he was no longer experiencing the symptoms and also the HAM-A score indicated significant reduction with the current dose. This means that the client is responding to the current medication and dose adequately. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay. In addition, with the current dose, the client is not experiencing any side effects and he is tolerating the medication very well. Evidence and clinical guidelines recommend titration of medications according to the response of the client; in this case, the client is responding very well and hence there is no need to titrate medication any further (Jakobsen et al, 2017).

    The option to either augment the current treatment with Buspar or the option of increasing the current dose of Zoloft to 100mg was not chosen since the client is showing a satisfactory response to the current dose of Zoloft 75 mg.

    By selecting this decision, the expectation is that the client will show a complete response to the treatment where the client will report complete clearance of the symptoms and the HAM-A score will significantly reduce.

    Impact of Ethical Considerations on the Treatment Plan

    For this client, the ethical considerations will encompass informed consent, confidentiality, and autonomy. First, it is essential to seek informed consent from the client to ensure that the client has full information about the recommended treatment before he consents to the treatment (Millum, 2013). Secondly, the confidentiality of the client should be respected. This means that any information and the client’s treatment regimen should not be disclosed to any other party without the consent of the client. Lastly, the client’s autonomy should be respected where the client should not be forced or coerced to have any treatment; he should decide to accept or refuse the treatment. Any decision the client makes about the treatment should be respected (Millum, 2013).

     

    Conclusion

    The selected first decision is to begin Zoloft 50 mg orally daily. The rationale for selecting this decision is because SSRIs such as Zoloft are the first treatment choice for anxiety disorders and evidence shows that the medication is effective in treating anxiety symptoms. There was significant improvement with this decision. The second decision was to increase the dose to the Zoloft dose to 75 mg orally daily. This decision was made because the client was showing partial response as indicated by the HAM-A score and hence increasing the dose would facilitate a satisfactory response. The third decision is to maintain the current dose because the client is showing a satisfactory response to the treatment as indicated by the reduced HAM-A score and reduced symptoms as per the subjective data. Finally, the ethical considerations that should be considered include autonomy, confidentiality, and informed consent.

     

     

    References

    Clevenger S, Devvrat M, Dang J, Vanle B & William I. (2018). The role of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors in preventing relapse of major depressive disorder.
    Ther Adv Psychopharmacology
    . 8(1): 49–58. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

    Jakubovski E, Anjali V, Freemantle N, Taylr M & Bloch M. (2016). Systematic Review and Meta-Analysis: Dose-Response Relationship of Selective-Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors in Major Depressive Disorder.
    Am J Psychiatry
    . 173(2): 174–183.

    Jakobsen J, Kumar K, Timm A, Gluud C, Ebert E et al. (2017). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors versus placebo in patients with major depressive disorder. A systematic review with meta-analysis and Trial Sequential Analysis.
    BMC Psychiatry
    . 17(58).

    Locke A, Faafp M, Krist N & Shultz C. (2015). Diagnosis and Management of Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder in Adults.
    Am Fam Physician.
      1;91(9),617-624.

    Locher, C., Koechlin, H., Zion, S. R., Werner, C., Pine, D. S., Kirsch, I. & Kossowsky, J. (2017).

    Efficacy and Safety of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors, Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors, and Placebo for Common Psychiatric Disorders Among Children and Adolescents: A Systematic Review and Meta-analysis.
    JAMA Psychiatry
    . 74(10), 1011–1020.

    Millum J. (2013). Introduction: Case Studies in the Ethics of Mental Health Research.
    J Nerv Ment Dis
    . 200(3), 230–235.

    Patel D, Feucht C, Brown K & Ramsay J. (2018). Pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders in children and adolescents: a review for practitioners.
    Transl Pediatr
    . 7(1): 23–35. Assessing and Treating Clients With Anxiety Disorders Sample Essay.

  • Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay

    Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay

    Bipolar Therapy

    Client of Korean Descent/Ancestry

    BACKGROUND INFORMATION

    The client is a 26-year-old woman of Korean descent who presents to her first appointment following a 21-day hospitalization for onset of acute mania. She was diagnosed with bipolar I disorder.

    Upon arrival in your office, she is quite “busy,” playing with things on your desk and shifting from side to side in her chair. She informs you that “they said I was bipolar, I don’t believe that, do you? I just like to talk, and dance, and sing. Did I tell you that I liked to cook?”

    She weights 110 lbs. and is 5’ 5”

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    SUBJECTIVE

    Patient reports “fantastic” mood. Reports that she sleeps about 5 hours/night to which she adds “I hate sleep, it’s no fun.”

    You reviewed her hospital records and find that she has been medically worked up by a physician who reported her to be in overall good health. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay. Lab studies were all within normal limits. You find that the patient had genetic testing in the hospital (specifically GeneSight testing) as none of the medications that they were treating her with seemed to work.

    Genetic testing reveals that she is positive for CYP2D6*10 allele.

    Patient confesses that she stopped taking her lithium (which was prescribed in the hospital) since she was discharged two weeks ago.

    MENTAL STATUS EXAM

    The patient is alert, oriented to person, place, time, and event. She is dressed quite oddly- wearing what appears to be an evening gown to her appointment. Speech is rapid, pressured, tangential. Self-reported mood is euthymic. Affect broad. Patient denies visual or auditory hallucinations, no overt delusional or paranoid thought processes readily apparent. Judgment is grossly intact, but insight is clearly impaired. She is currently denying suicidal or homicidal ideation.

    The Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) score is 22

    RESOURCES

    § Chen, R., Wang, H., Shi, J., Shen, K., & Hu, P. (2015). Cytochrome P450 2D6 genotype affects the pharmacokinetics of controlled-release paroxetine in healthy Chinese subjects: comparison of traditional phenotype and activity score systems. European Journal of Clinical Pharmacology, 71(7), 835-841. doi:10.1007/s00228-015-1855-6 Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    Decision Point One

    Select what the PMHNP should do:

    Begin Lithium 300 mg orally BID

    Begin Risperdal 1 mg orally BID

    Begin Seroquel XR 100 mg orally at HS

    To prepare for this Assignment:

    • Review this week’s Learning Resources. Consider how to assess and treat clients requiring bipolar therapy.

    The Assignment

    Examine Case Study: An Asian American Woman With Bipolar Disorder. You will be asked to make three decisions concerning the medication to prescribe to this client. Be sure to consider factors that might impact the client’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic processes.

    At each decision point stop to complete the following:

    • Decision #1

    o Which decision did you select?

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #1 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #2

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #2 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    • Decision #3

    o Why did you select this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o What were you hoping to achieve by making this decision? Support your response with evidence and references to the Learning Resources.

    o Explain any difference between what you expected to achieve with Decision #3 and the results of the decision. Why were they different?

    Also include how ethical considerations might impact your treatment plan and communication with clients.

    Decision #1

    Selected Decision

    The first decision is to start Risperdal 1mg orally BID

    Reason For Selecting This Decision

    Risperdal, originally referred to as risperidone, is a typical antipsychotic that has proven to be highly effective in the management of bipolar disorders.  It does so by trying to influence a rebalance in serotonin and dopamine thus resulting in good conduct. Since the patient was having bipolar confusion, Risperdal happens to be the best alternative also considering that it is readily accessible (Culpepper, 2014).  In the past treatment therapy, the patient happened to default lithium. Therefore, it wouldn’t be a smart option to start lithium 300mg since the chances of the patient not adhering to treatment are high. Similarly, Seroquel XR could be a good alternative. However, its side effects of constipation and weight addition might contribute to non-compliance thus not achieving the therapeutic goals (John & Antai-Otong, 2016).  This leaves Risperdal as the best option in this case. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    Expected Outcomes

    Within four weeks on treatment, the patient is expected to show immense progress. The current manifestations of bipolar disorder that she experiences are also expected to diminish to an extent that the patient has a peaceful state of mind. The patient should be restful and be able to conduct her activities of daily life with little or no difficulty (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Risperdal is the best choice to influence mental action and improve the patient’s capacity to be of rational sound mind in the way she addresses issues. It is also expected that the patient’s self-destructive practices and tension would diminish and will respond to her environment and social interactions positively (Fang, et al., 2017).

     
    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    After four weeks, the client returned to the clinic accompanied by her mother looking very lethargic and sedated. They, however, agreed that the patient’s self-destructive practices had significantly diminished. The client’s mother explained that the client had been lethargic for about a week after the last visit. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay. It should be noted that one of the side effects of Risperdal is sedation (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Similarly, based on the fact that the client is reportedly positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, it is probable that she might be having a slow rate of clearance of Risperdal from her systems leading to higher levels than normal of Risperdal in blood (Chen et al., 2015). Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    Decision #2

    Selected Decision

    Based on the client’s presentation and the initial decision, the second best decision, in this case, would be reducing Risperdal to 1mg HS.

    Reason for Selecting This Decision

    Based on the patient’s progress during the second visit, it was evident that Risperdal was effective in attaining therapeutic goals of treatment. However, the unwanted side effects were the major concerns. It is therefore wise to decrease the dosing to deal with the side effects rather than change to another drug.  Decreasing the dosage to one mg HS would be the best alternative that will help to reduce the significant impact of the side effects (Culpepper, 2014). Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay. Changing the drug to lithium will possibly result in non-compliance since the client has already developed some demeanor towards it. Besides, the patient may turn out to generally have a negative attitude towards all medicines which may be prescribed by the mental health practitioner. Giving the patient support to adapt to an alternate dosage of the same medication will also improve their dedication, trust, and understanding to collaborate in achieving the treatment goals (John & Antai-Otong, 2016).

    Expected Outcomes

    As earlier stated, Risperdal has proven to be effective in managing the symptoms of bipolar disorder by influencing a balance in serotonin and dopamine to help address a patient’s self-destructive behaviors. Based on the fact that the client is positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, the initial dosage could have resulted in an accumulation of Risperdal which is slowly being cleared (John & Antai-Otong, 2016). Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay. Reducing the dosage to one mg HS will definitely reduce the amount of Risperdal accumulated in the body and subsequent side effects of lethargy and sedation. By adjusting this dosage, it is expected that the patient will record some positive progress in terms of reduced self-destructive behaviors, ease in performing activities of daily life and thinking patterns (Fang, et al., 2017). It is also expected that the client will have minimal episodes of lethargy and sedation.

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    After four weeks, the client returned to the clinic accompanied by her mother. She was less sedated, less lethargic and showed a lot of improvement in symptoms. The young mania rating scale had also reduced from 22 to 16, an illustration that there was more than a 25% reduction in symptoms. These outcomes were actually foreseen and were the reason the dosage of Risperdal was reduced to one mg HS (John & Antai-Otong, 2016) Risperdal is a powerful choice for bipolar disorder; its side effects are easily manageable and help in the achievement of therapeutic goals for bipolar patients more easily Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    Decision #3

    Selected Decision

    My third decision would be to continue at the same dosage of 1 mg HS.

    Reason for Selecting This Decision

    From the initial visit, it was evident that the client has good progress in terms of reducing self-destructive behaviors and management of the drugs side effects. Maintaining this dosage and reassessing the client after four weeks will contribute to the achievement of the treatment goals for both the client and the attending mental health practitioner. The initial dosage of 1 mg BID had turned out to be detrimental to the patient’s health (Fang, et al., 2017). Therefore, going back to it would prompt similar side effects.  Besides, changing to Latuda is not recommendable in this case since Latuda is FDA approved for bipolar I depression which differs from the patient’s presentation that we are trying to manage. Besides, Latuda is costly and most health insurance companies would decline to pay for it until other drugs have been attempted and proven to fail (John & Antai-Otong, 2016). Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    Expected Outcomes

    It is expected that, within four weeks, the patient will record immense progress by reducing self-destructive behaviors. Besides, she will report very minimal or no side effects from Risperdal. She will have a good state of mind, conduct, and good thinking patterns. Risperdal is FDA approved for managing bipolar symptoms and has proven to be highly effective with manageable side effects (John & Antai-Otong, 2016)

    Difference between Expected Outcomes and Actual Outcomes

    As initially expected, the patient has some significant progress and very minimal side effects of lethargy and sedation. The reassessment proved that Risperdal had adequately helped to achieve the necessary treatment goals in the entire course of treatment. Given the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of Risperdal, these are certainly the outcomes that ought to be expected. Since the client is for positive for CYP2D6*10 allele, Risperdal could be clearing at a slower rate resulting to higher than normal levels in the blood (Fang, et al., 2017).

    However, the effect, in this case, may not be significant as compared to the initial point.

    How Ethical Considerations Might Impact the Treatment Plan and Communication With Clients

               
    The major ethical considerations that ought to be considered in managing clients with bipolar disorder are beneficence, nonmaleficence, and autonomy. Despite the fact that clients need treatment to live near-normal lives, the risks of the choice of medications used should balance with the corresponding benefits. Alternatively, a mental healthcare provider should consider giving the patient some of the best available options for management to maximize the benefits of treatment (Ratheesh et al., 2017).  The impairment or insight and judgment that is always characterized by mania and mood episodes may render a patient as not able to provide informed consent nor incapable of making rational decisions regarding their treatment. Besides, a number of clinical presentations such as delusional thinking and irritability could probably be a threat in damaging the therapeutic alliance that exists between a client and a mental healthcare provider. It should also be noted that, due to the relapsing-remitting nature of bipolar disorder, there are instances where a patient might feel well and question the need to continue with treatment (Ratheesh et al., 2017).  This places the treatment goals laid by the mental healthcare provider in conflict with the patient’s autonomy to make decisions. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

    References

    Chen, R., Wang, H., Shi, J., Shen, K., & Hu, P. (2015). Cytochrome P450 2D6 genotype affects the pharmacokinetics of controlled-release paroxetine in healthy Chinese subjects: comparison of traditional phenotype and activity score systems.
    European Journal of Clinical Pharmacology
    , 71(7), 835-841.

    Culpepper, L. (2014). The diagnosis and treatment of bipolar disorder: decision-making in primary care. 
    The primary care companion for CNS disorders
    , 
    16
    (3).

    Fang, F., Wang, Z., Wu, R., Calabrese, J. R., & Gao, K. (2017). Is there a ‘weight neutral’second-generation antipsychotic for bipolar disorder?. 
    Expert review of Neurotherapeutics
    , 
    17
    (4), 407-418.

    John, R. L., & Antai-Otong, D. (2016). Contemporary Treatment Approaches to Major Depression and Bipolar Disorders. 
    Nursing Clinics
    , 
    51
    (2), 335-351.

    Ratheesh, A., Cotton, S. M., Davey, C. G., Adams, S., Bechdolf, A., Macneil, C., & McGorry, P. D. (2017). Ethical considerations in preventive interventions for bipolar disorder. 
    Early intervention in psychiatry
    , 
    11
    (2), 104-112. Assessing and Treating Clients with With Bipolar Disorder Essay.

  • Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay

    Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay

    Asthma

    Asthma is a disease that affects over 30 million Americans, and is mostly diagnosed during childhood to (Huether & McCance, 2017). When Asthma is not properly diagnosed or diagnosed late, it could lead to chronic changes in the airways. Asthma is a chronic disease and can show up at any age and is not gender specific (National Asthma Education, 2007). According to Huether and McCance (2017), asthma can present itself in children when exposed to high level of allergens. Smoking, exposure to allergens, air pollution and re-occurring respiratory infection all put an individual at risk for asthma. When an individual inhales irritants, it could create some permanent changes in the airways. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.

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    Pathophysiology

    When the bronchial mucosa is exposed to allergens, it stimulates the dendritic cells, and this pushes antigen to the T-helper cells. The T-helper cells release both cytokines and interleukins that stimulates plasma cells and eosinophils. Thus, leading to obstruction of the airways (Huether & McCance, 2017). The plasma cells create IgE, and it connects to the mast cells, and it causes degranulation due to the discharge of inflammatory mediators like histamine and bradykinins. Inflammatory mediators lead to mucosal edema, bronchospasm, and vasodilations which contribute to narrowing the airways. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.

    Asthma manifest differently in people, and they can range from an acute exacerbation to a severe attack (Hammer & McPhee, 2014). Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay. Wheezing is a classic sign of asthma, and this is caused by the contraction of smooth muscles in the airways (Hammer & McPhee, 2014). Dyspnea, tachypnea, cough (non-productive), tachycardia and prolonged expiration are manifestations of asthma. When the usual treatment is no longer effective for bronchospasm which is an inflammatory response, then the patient is believed to have status asthmaticus (Huether & McCance, 2017).

    Diagnosis and Treatment

    The first step in diagnosing asthma is by looking at the patients’ history of allergies and check for classic signs such as wheezing, non-productive cough, shortness of breath and chest tightness or intolerance of exercise. According to Huether and McCance (2017), arterial blood gases (ABG) is one way to diagnose asthma. Expiratory flow rates which measure the speed at which someone exhales is another method diagnose asthma and how severe it is. Administration of oxygen and short-acting bronchodilator is used for the treatment of acute asthma. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay. The nurse practitioner should also administer oral corticosteroids; closely monitor airflow and how the patient reacts to the treatment (Lawlor, 2015).

    Ethnicity

    Asthma is not raced specific, but it has been discovered that people of black descent are more likely to suffer from asthma than white people and black children are twice likely to develop asthma than their white peers (CDC, 2016). According to the CDC (2016), blacks and people of mixed race are unlikely to seek medical assistance such as going to the emergency room and most times these are associated with the cost of care Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.

    Conclusion

    Asthma is not gender or age specific and is mostly like to occur in black and people of mixed races than whites (CDC, 2016). If re-occurring respiratory infections are not well treated, it could lead to permanent changes known as airway remodeling in the airways obstructing airflow to the lungs such as asthma (Huether & McCance, 2017).  It is germane for people to seek early treatments for respiratory infections to avoid airway remodeling consequently worsening the situation. It is imperative for nurse practitioners to recognize the signs of asthma and differentiate between an acute exacerbation and chronic asthma attack because that will help the nurse practitioner tailor their treatment and management correctly. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.

     

     

    References

    Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). (2016).
    Asthma’s Impact on the Nation
    ; Data from the CDC National Asthma Control Program. Retrieved from: https://www.cdc.gov/asthma/impacts-nation/asthmafactsheet.pdf

    Hammer, G. D., & McPhee, S. J. (2014).
    Pathophysiology of disease: An introduction to clinical medicine
    (7th ed.). New York, NY: McGraw-Hill Medical. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.

    Huether, S. E., & McCance, K. L. (2017).
    Understanding pathophysiology
    (6th ed.). St. Louis, MO: Mosby.

    Lawlor, R. (2015). Management of asthma in children.
    Practice Nursing, 26
    (7),326-330. Asthma pathophysiology nursing sample essay.