Category: Nursing

NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health (Question and Answers with Explanation)

Question 1:
 When palpating the cervix during the bimanual exam, cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign) is noted. This tenderness could be suggestive of:

Question 2:
 In a female diagnosed with a first-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix:

3: Daughters of women who took Diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy are at a high risk for developing all of the following abnormalities except:

4: A female patient presents with a profuse, yellowish, green vaginal discharge that is malodorous. This vaginal discharge is most consistent with:

5: The most common causes of sexual problems in females are …..

6: Chronic pelvic pain refers to pain that does not respond to therapy and:

7: In female patients with dyspareunia, superficial pain is most likely related to all of the following except:

8: If urethritis or inflammation of the paraurethral glands is suspected in a female patient, the index finger should be inserted into the vagina and:

9: Upon examination of the vagina, a swollen red ring is noted around the urethral opening. This finding is most consistent with a: NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health

10: When performing a bimanual vaginal exam, a solid, nodular-like lesion is palpated over the right ovary. This finding is most consistent with:

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11: Indications for performing a rectovaginal exam include all of the following except to:

12: Examination of a female patient’s right breast reveals a retraction of the nipple and areola. This finding is consistent with:

13: To assess pelvic floor muscle strength during the bimanual vaginal exam, have the patient squeeze around the inserted fingers for as long as possible. To consider full strength, snug compression should last for:

14: Upon examination of the vagina, a tense, hot, very tender abscess with labial swelling is noted. This finding is most consistent with a:

15: A female patient has a history of a retroverted uterus. This condition refers to:

16: Upon examination of the vagina, the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra create a bulge. This condition is most consistent with a: NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health

17: Urethritis in a female patient may arise from all of the following organisms except:

18: To palpate the uterus during a bimanual exam, the examiner would lubricate the index and middle fingers of one hand and insert them into the vagina. The other hand would be placed on the abdomen:

19: When do the ovaries become non-palpable after menopause?

20: When performing a rectal exam on a female, a hard nodular rectal “shelf” is palpable at the tip of the examiner’s finger. This finding is suggestive of:

21: A twenty-year-old female complains of a milky discharge bilaterally from her breasts. This suggests:

22: A woman complains of infrequent menses with intervals greater than 35 days. This condition is …..

23: The most common cause of acute pelvic pain in women is:

24: When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the upper blade as a retractor could expose a:

25: When preparing to perform a pelvic exam in an older female, vaginal atrophy is noted. Due to this finding, the speculum:

26: Upon examination of the cervix, a yellow drainage is visible around the cervical os. This finding is most likely suggestive of:

27: When examining the cervix, a bright, red, soft and fragile lesion is noted on the cervical surface. This finding is consistent with:

28: During examination of the vagina, a bulge in the upper two-thirds of the anterior vaginal wall is noted. This symptom is most consistent with a:

29: The most common type of hernia in women is the:

30: A female patient presents with a gray, thin, malodorous (fishy) vaginal discharge. These symptoms are most consistent with:

31: When performing a bimanual vaginal exam, a smooth and rather compressible non-tender lesion is palpated over the right ovary. This finding is most consistent with: NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health

32: When performing the bimanual vaginal exam, a nodule on the anterior uterine surface could suggest a (an):

33: Cessation of the menses for 12 months is ….

34: A woman complains of experiencing uterine bleeding between expected menstrual cycles. This condition is …..

35: A 45-year old female presents to the nurse practitioner with complaints of postcoital bleeding (greater than spotting) unrelated to the menstrual cycle. What is the most likely cause?

36: When performing the bimanual vaginal exam, uterine enlargement is …… This enlargement could suggest:

37: In which of the following situations would it be difficult for the examiner to palpate an ovary during the bimanual vaginal exam?

38: Causes of post menopausal bleeding typically include all of the following except:

39: A 35-year-old female presents with complaints of swelling of her right breast. Findings reveal edema of the lower portion of her right breast. The skin appears thickened with enlarged pores. This condition is consistent with:

40: The shiny, pink area located around the cervical os is ….as nr 509 apea exam

41: During a speculum exam of the cervix the speculum is maintain in an open position by:

42: A female patient presents with a white and curd-like thin vaginal discharge. This discharge is most consistent with:

Question 43:
 Upon examination of the vagina, a bulge is …..in the lower posterior wall of the vagina. This finding is most consistent with a:

Question 44:
 Upon examination of the cervix, an irregular cauliflower-like growth was ….around the cervical os. This finding is most suggestive of:

45: Upon examination of the vagina, a small, red, benign tumor is …..at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. This finding is most consistent with a:

46: To palpate an indirect inguinal hernia in a woman, have her stand and palpate in the labia majora and:

47: An ulcerated vulvar lesion in an elderly woman may indicate nr 509 apea exam

48: Pelvic floor muscle weakness may be due to all of the following except:

49: In a female diagnosed with a third-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix:

50: A woman complains of abnormally heavy and prolonged menstrual periods that occur at regular intervals. This condition is most likely:

51: In a female diagnosed with a second-degree uterine prolapse, the cervix:

52: A woman complains of experiencing frequent menses with intervals of fewer than 21 days. This condition is …..

53: If performed correctly and in a timely fashion, which one of the following is most definitive for the diagnosis of breast cancer?

54: Retraction of the nipple and areola suggest:

55: The vaginal mucosa lies in transverse folds ……

56: The most important risk factor for cervical cancer is nr 509 apea exam

57: When performing a bimanual exam of the vagina, the examiner should lubricate the index and middle fingers of a gloved hand. From a standing position, the fingers should be ….into the vagina while exerting pressure primarily:

58: Fixed flattening of the nipple suggests:

59: Chronic pelvic pain may be secondary to all of the above except:

60: When discussing the female anatomy, the introitus is also ….as the nr 509 apea exam

61: When performing a breast exam, a mobile mass becomes fixed when the arm relaxes. This suggests that the mass is:

62: To palpate the right ovary when performing the bimanual vaginal exam, the abdominal hand should be on the right lower quadrant and the pelvic hand needs to be:

63: When performing an examination of the external genitalia of a female patient, a small, firm, round cystic nodule in the labia is …… This lesion is most consistent with: NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health

64: Primary dysmenorrhea results from:

65: The deep red area located around the cervical os is ….as nr 509 apea exam

66: When examining the cervix, a translucent nodule is …..on the cervical surface. This finding is consistent with:

67: To palpate the left ovary when performing the bimanual vaginal exam, the abdominal hand should be on the left lower quadrant and the pelvic hand needs to be:

68: When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the lower blade as a retractor during bearing down could expose an anterior wall defect such as a: NR 509 APEA Exam – Women’s Health

NR 509 Week 1 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

A patient tells the FNP that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot”. This type of data would be:

The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

The FNP is reviewing information about evidence-based practice. Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?

A 59-year-old patient tells the FNP that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having black stools for the last 24 hours. How would the FNP best document his reason for seeking care?

A 29-year-old woman tells the FNP that she has excruciating pain in her back. Which would be an appropriate response by the FNP to the woman statement?

In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient who denies having had any, which note by the FNP would be most accurate?

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If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

Which of these statements represents subjective data the FNP obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin?

The FNP is obtaining a history for a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient? NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

Which statement indicates that the FNP understands the pain experienced by an elderly person?

The FNP is performing a vision examination. Which of these charts is most widely used for visual examination?

During a complete health assessment, how would the FNP test the patients hearing? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP has just completed an examination of a patient’s extra-ocular muscles. When documenting the findings, the FNP should document the assessment of which cranial nerves?

A patient’s uvula rises midline when she says “ahh” and she has a positive gag reflex. The FNP has just tested which cranial nerve?

During an examination the FNP notices that a patient is unable to stick out his tongue. Which cranial nerve is involved with successful performance of this action?

A patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the FNP‘s resistant hands. What cranial nerve is involved with successful shoulder shrugging?

During an examination, the patient has just successfully completed the finger to nose and rapid alternating movements test and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin. The FNP would conclude that the patient’s___ function is intact

A five-year-old child is in the clinic for checkup. The FNP would expect him to:

When the FNP performs the confrontation test the FNP has assessed: nr 509 week 1 quiz

Which of these statements is true regarding the complete physical assessment?

…. recording of data from the history and physical examination?

… in assessment of general appearance? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP is performing a review of symptoms. Which of these questions are appropriate as Health promotion questions to ask during this time? NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

The FNP is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the community portion of the FICA questions?

The FNP is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins?

 

NR 509 Week 2 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

A mother brings her two month old daughter in for an examination says “my daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has the spot soft on the top of her head, is there something terribly wrong?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

During percussion the FNP knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. This most likely results from:

The patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The FNP suspects Damage to:

When examining the face, the FNP is aware that the two pairs of salivary gland‘s that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The FNP suspects damage to cranial nerve ____ and proceeds with the examination by____

When examining a patient’s cranial nerve function, the FNP remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

The patient’s laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The FNP would proceed with an examination of the _____ gland

A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adams apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that leaves the FNP to suspect that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump:

The FNP notices that the patient’s submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the FNP would assess the patient’s:

The FNP is aware that the four areas in the body were lymph nodes accessible are the: nr 509 week 2 quiz

A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his eyes. The FNP should know that floaters are usually not significant and are caused by:

The FNP is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How should the FNP proceed?

A patient’s vision is recorded as 20/30 when the Snellen eye chart is used. The FNP interprets these results to indicate that:

A patient is unable to read even the largest letters on the Snellen chart. The FNP should take which action next:

A patient’s vision is ……as 20/80 in each eye. The FNP interprets this finding to mean that nr 509 week 2 quiz

When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the FNP notes that the light is …..at 2 o’clock in each eye. The FNP should

The FNP is performing the diagnostic positions test. Normal findings would be which of these results? nr 509 week 2 quiz

During an assessment of the sclera of an African-American patient, the FNP would consider which of these an expected finding?

A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an examination. The FNP suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. How should the FNP check for this?

The FNP is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale gray and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

The FNP is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation?

During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old African-American patient, the FNP notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the FNP do in response to these findings

During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a three day history of nausea and vomiting the FNP notices dry mucous and deep vertical fissures on the tongue. These findings are reflective of:

The FNP is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?

The FNP student is reviewing physical assessment findings of the HEENT system associated with pregnancy. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of expected HEENT changes associated with pregnancy? During pregnancy:

 

NR 509 Week 3 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

A teenage girl has arrived complaining of pain in her left wrist. She was playing basketball when she fell and landed on her left hand. The FNP examined her hand and will expect a fracture if the girl complains:

A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and asked the FNP “what is osteoporosis?” The FNP explains to the patient that osteoporosis is defined as:

Patient states, “I can hear a crunching or grating sound when I kneel”. She also states “that it is very difficult to get out of bed in the morning because of stiffness and pain in my joints”. The FNP should assess for signs of what problem?

When taking the history on a patient with a seizure disorder the FNP assesses whether the patient has an aura. Which of these would be the best question for obtaining this information?

The FNP is teaching a class on osteoporosis prevention to a group of post menopausal women. A participant shows that she needs more instruction when she states I will:

The FNP is performing a neurological assessment on a 41-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. When testing her ability to feel the vibrations of a tuning fork the FNP notices that the patient is unable to feel vibrations on the great toe or ankle bilaterally, but she is able to feel vibrations on both patella. Given this information what would the FNP suspect?

And 80-year-old woman is visiting the clinic for a check up. She states “I can’t walk as much as I used to”. The FNP is observing from motor dysfunction in her hip and should have her:

The FNP is testing the function of cranial nerve XI. Which of these best describes the response the FNP should expect if the nerve is intact? The patient:

A 50-year-old woman is in a clinic for weakness in her left arm and leg that she noticed for the past week. The FNP should perform which type of neurologic examination?

During the neurological assessment of a healthy 35-year-old patient the FNP asks him to relax his muscles completely. The FNP then moves each extremity through full range of motion. Which of these results would the FNP expect to find?

A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain. The FNP tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift and posture is known as

A patient is able to flex his right arm forward without difficulty or pain but is unable to abduct his arm because of pain and muscle spasm’s. The FNP should suspect:

A professional tennis player comes into the clinic complaining of a sore elbow. The FNP will assess for tenderness at the:

The FNP suspect that a patient has carpal tunnel syndrome and wants to perform the Phalens test. To perform this task the FNP should instruct the patient to:

During the history a patient tells the FNP that “it feels like the room is spinning around me”. The FNP would document this as: nr 509 week 3 quiz

The assessment of a 60-year-old patient has taken longer than anticipated. In testing his pain perception the FNP decides to complete the test as quickly as possible. When the FNP applies the sharp point of a pin on his arm several times he is only able to identify these as one very sharp prick. What would be the most accurate explanation for this?

An 85-year-old patient comments during his annual physical that “he seems to be getting shorter as he ages”. The FNP should explain that decrease height occurs with aging because:

A patient is complaining of pain in his joints that is worse in the morning, is better after he has moved around for a while, and then gets worse again if he sits for long periods of time. The FNP should assess for other signs of what problem?

When the FNP asks a 68-year-old patient to stand with feet together and arms at his side with his eyes closed he starts to sway and moves his feet farther apart. The FNP would document this finding as:

During an assessment of the cranial nerves the FNP finds the following asymmetry when the patient smiles or frowns, uneven lifting of eyebrows, sagging of lower eyelids, and escape of air when the FNP presses against the right path cheek. This would indicate dysfunction of which of these cranial nerves? nr 509 week 3 quiz

The FNP is teaching a class on osteoporosis prevention to a group of postmenopausal women which of these actions is the best way to prevent or delay bone loss in this group?

In obtaining a history on a 74 year old patient the FNP notes that he drinks alcohol daily and that he has noticed a tremor in his hands that affects his ability to hold thing. With this information what should the FNP‘s response be?

During a history of a 78-year-old man his wife states that “he occasionally has problems with short-term memory loss and confusion. He can’t even remember how to button his shirt”. In doing the assessment of his sensory system which action of the FNP‘s is most appropriate?

While obtaining a history of a 3 month old infant from the mother the FNP asks about the infants ability to suck and grass the mothers finger. What is the FNP assessing? nr 509 week 3 quiz

The FNP is doing an assessment on a 29-year-old woman who visits the clinic complaining of always dropping things and falling down. While testing rapid alternating movements the FNP notices that the woman is unable to pat both her knees. Her response is very slow and she misses frequently. What should the FNP suspect?

 

NR 509 Week 4 Quiz (25 Points)

A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the FNP expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these

In assessing the carotid artery’s of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the FNP would

When listening to heart sounds the FNP knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are

The sack that surrounds and protects the heart is called the

When assessing a newborn infant who is five minutes old the FNP knows that which of these statements would be true?

The FNP is performing an assessment on an adult. The adults vital signs are normal and capillary refill is five seconds. What should the FNP do next?

During an assessment of an older adult the FNP should expect to notice which finding as normal physiologic change associated with aging process?

The mother of a three month old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning the FNP finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short amount of time hungry again. What other information with the FNP want to have?

In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease which would the FNP want to include when taking a history?

The FNP is assessing the pulses of a patient who has been admitted for untreated hyperthyroidism. The FNP should expect to find a____pulse NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

A patient complains of leg pain that wakes him at night. … states that he has been having problems with his legs. He has pain in his legs when they are … and disappears when he dangles them. He recently noticed a sore on the inner aspect of his right ankle. On the basis of this history information the FNP interprets that the patient is most likely experiencing

During an assessment the FNP uses the profile sign to detect nr 509 week 4 quiz

 … these statements describes the closure of the valves in a normal cardiac cycle?

When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient the FNP is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient skin is warm and capillary refill is normal. The FNP should next

A 67-year-old patient states that he “recently began have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment”. This pain is relieved by sitting for about two minutes then he’s able to resume activities. The FNP interprets this patient is most likely experiencing

In assessing a 70-year-old man the FNP finds the following blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, heart rate 104 and slightly irregular, split S2. nr 509 week 4 quiz  Which of these findings can … explained by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?

The FNP is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy three year old child. Which finding should the FNP expect?

The FNP is preparing to perform modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test?

A 25-year-old woman is in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. In reviewing her previous exam the FNP notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mmHg. When evaluating this change what does the FNP know to be true?

Findings from an assessment of a 70-year-old patient with swelling in his ankles include jugular venous pusations, 5 cm above the sternal angle when the head of his bed is … 45°. The FNP knows that this finding indicate:

The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the nr 509 week 4 quiz

The FNP is reviewing anatomy and physiology of the heart. Which statement best describes what is … by atrial kick?

A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. I’ll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can’t catch my breath. The FNP‘s best response to this would be NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

When assessing a patient the FNP notes that the left femoral pulse as diminished 1+/4+. What should the FNP do next?

 

NR 509 Week 5 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

An older patient has been diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The FNP knows that this condition could be related to

The FNP is examining a patient who tells the FNP “I sure sweat a lot especially on my face and feet but it doesn’t have an odor”. The FNP knows that this could be related to

During an abdominal assessment the FNP elicits tenderness on light palpation in the right lower quadrant. The FNP interprets that this finding could indicate a disorder which of these structures?

An Inuit visiting Nevada from anchorage has come to the clinic in July during the hottest part of the day. It so happens that the clinics air conditioning is broken and the temperature is very hot. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true about the Inuit sweating tendencies?

The FNP notices that a patient has black, tarry stool and recalls that a possible cause would be

The FNP knows that during an abdominal assessment deep palpation is used to determine

The FNP is assessing the abdomen of an aging adult. Which of these statements regarding an aging adult and abdominal assessment is true?

During examination the FNP finds that a patient has excessive dryness of the skin. The best term to describe this condition is

A FNP notices that a patient has ascites, which indicates the presence of nr 509 week 5 quiz

The FNP is performing percussion during an abdominal assessment. Percussion notes during the abdominal assessment may include

The FNP is caring for a black child who has been diagnosed with marasmus. The FNP would expect to find the

The FNP just noted from a patient’s medical record that the patient has a lesion that is confluent in nature. On examination the FNP would expect to find

The FNP is assessing the abdomen of a pregnant woman who is complaining of having acid indigestion all the time. The FNP knows that esophageal reflux during pregnancy can cause

The patient has abdominal borborygmi. The FNP knows that this term refers to nr 509 week 5 quiz

A patient has a terrible itch for several months that he has been scratching continuously. On examination the FNP might expect to find NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

During aging process, the hair can look gray or white and begin to feel thin and fine. The FNP knows that this occurs because of a decrease in number of functioning

The FNP notices that a patient has a solid, elevated, circumscribed lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter. When documenting this finding the FNP would report this as a

During an abdominal assessment the FNP would consider which of these findings as normal?

A 52 -year-old Woman has a papule on her nose that has a rounded pearly border and a central red ulcer. She said she first noticed it several months ago and that it is slowly growing larger. The FNP suspects which condition?

The FNP is listening to bowel sounds. Which of these statements is true about bowel sounds?

The FNP is watching a new graduate FNP perform auscultation of a patient abdomen. Which statement by the new graduate shows a correct understanding of the reason auscultation proceeds percussion and palpitation of the abdomen?

A patient is complaining of a sharp pain along the costovertebral angles. The FNP knows that this symptom is most often indicative of

The patient is ….of having inflammation of the gallbladder or cholecystitis. The FNP should conduct which of these techniques to assess for this condition?

A newborn infant is in the clinic for a well baby check. The FNP observes the infant for possibility of fluid loss because of which these factors?

During an assessment of a newborn infant, the FNP recalls that pyloric stenosis would be manifested by nr 509 week 5 quiz

 

NR 509 Week 6 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance-abuse problem. She admits to using cocaine just before arrival. Which of these assessment findings would the FNP expect to find when examining the woman?

A 63-year-old Chinese American man enters the office with complaints of chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Which statement most accurately reflect the FNPs best course of action?

The FNP is planning to assess new memory with the patient. The best way for the FNP to do this would be

During the health history the FNP asks a female patient “how many alcoholic drinks do you have a week?” Which answer by the patient would indicate at risk drinking?

Symptoms such as pain are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain? NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

The FNP suspect abuse when a 10-year-old child is taken to the urgent care center for leg injury. nr 509 week 6 quiz The best way to document the history and physical findings is to

During a mental status assessment, which question by the FNP would best assess a persons judgment?

The FNP is performing a mental status assessment on a five-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might leave FNP to be concerned about the girls mental status?

During mental status examination, the FNP wants to assess a patient’s affect. The FNP should ask the patient which question?

During an examination FNP notices a patterned injury on a patients back. Which of these would cause such an injury?

The FNP is aware that intimate partner violence screening should occur with which situation?

Which statement is best for the FNP to use when preparing to administer the abuse assessment screen?

The FNP is conducting a class on alcohol and the effects of alcohol on the body. How many standard drinks (each containing 12 g alcohol) Per day are associated with increased deaths from cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus and injuries in men?

A woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant is in the clinic for her first obstetric visit. She asked the FNP how many drinks a day safe for my baby? The FNP‘s best response is

The FNP is performing the Denver II screen test on a 12 month old infant during a routine well child visit. The FNP should tell the infants parents that the Denver II

Which term refers to a one produced by tearing or splitting of body tissue usually from blunt impact of a bony surface NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

When reviewing the use of alcohol by older adults the FNP notes that the older adults have several characteristics that can increase the risk of alcohol use which would increase the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods of time in the older adult?

The FNP is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain. Which statement is true regarding pain?

The FNP is planning to assess a child using behavioral checklist. This tool is most appropriate for a(an)

The FNP is … orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses would leave the FNP to conclude that the patient is … ?

As a mandatory reporter of elder abuse, which of these must be present before an FNP notifies the authorities?

A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of prior suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the FNP‘s best response in this situation? nr 509 week 6 quiz

For persons age 12 years and older which of these illicit substances was one of the most commonly used?

Which of these individuals would the FNP consider at highest risk for suicide attempt?

The FNP is assessing a patient who has … admitted for cirrhosis of the liver secondary to chronic alcohol use. nr 509 week 6 quiz During the physical assessment the FNP looks for cardiac problems that are … with chronic heavy use of alcohol such as

NR 509 Week 7 Quiz – Question and Answers

During an examination of an aging male the FNP recognizes that normal changes to expect would be:

During a health history, a 22-year-old woman asks “can I get that vaccine for HPV? I have gentle warts and I’d like them to go away!” What is the FNP‘s best response?

During a speculum inspection of the vagina the FNP would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?

A 62-year-old man is experiencing fever, chills, malaise, urinary frequency and urgency. He also reports urethral discharge and a dull aching pain in the perineal and rectal area. The symptoms are most consistent with which of the following?

When performing a genital examination on a 25-year-old man the FNP notices deeply pigmented, wrinkled scrotal skin with large sebaceous follicles. On the basis of this information the FNP would:

The mother of a 10-year-old boy asks the FNP to discuss the recognition of puberty. The FNP should reply by saying:

The uterus is usually positioned tilting forward and superior to the bladder. This position is known as

A male patient with possible fertility problems asks the FNP where sperm is produced. The FNP knows that sperm production occurs in

A 15-year-old boy is seen in the clinic for complaints of dull pain and pulling in the scrotal area. On examination the FNP palpates a soft, irregular mass posterior to and above the testes on the left. This mass collapses when the patient is supine in refills when he is up right. This description is consistent with:

In performing an assessment of a woman’s axillary lymph system the FNP should assess which of these nodes?

A patient contacts the office and tells the FNP that she is … about her 10-year-old daughter having breast cancer. She describes a unilateral enlargement of the right breast with associated tenderness. She is … because the left breast is not enlarged. What would be the FNP‘s best response?

An 11-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. The FNP notices that she has begun to develop breasts, and during the conversation the girl reveals that she is worried about her development. … use which of these techniques to best assist the young girl in understanding the expected sequence for development? The FNP should: NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

A 54-year-old woman who has just completed menopause is in the clinic today for yearly physical examination. Which of these statements should the FNP include in patient education? A post menopausal woman:

A 62-year-old man states that his doctor told him that he has an inguinal hernia. He asks the FNP to explain what a hernia is….. :

When performing a genital assessment on a middle-age man, the FNP notices multiple soft, moist, painless papules in the shape of cauliflower like patches scattered across the shaft of the penis. These lesions are characteristics of:

If a patient reports a recent breast infection, then the FNP should expect to find_____node enlargement

A 9-year-old girl is in the clinic for a sports physical. After some initial shyness she finally ….“am I normal? I don’t seem to need a bra yet, but I have some friends who do. What if I never get breasts?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

Which of these statements about the testes this true?

During an examination FNP observes a female patients vestibule and expect to see the

A 14-year-old girl is anxious about not having reached menarche. When taking history, the FNP should ascertain which of the following? The age:

A woman who is 22 weeks pregnant has a vaginal infection. She tells the FNP that she is afraid that the infection will hurt the fetus. The FNP knows that which of these statements is true?

In performing a breast examination the FNP knows that it is especially important to examine the upper outer quadrant of the breast. The reason for this is that the upper outer quadrant

An accessory glandular structure for the male genital organs is the

 …. true regarding the penis?

__ 8 weeks pregnant is in the clinic for a check up. The FNP reads on her chart that her cervix is … and looks cyanotic. The FNP knows that the woman is exhibiting____sign and _____sign NR 509 WEEK 1-7 QUIZ

NR 509 Week 1 Quiz (25 Points) – Question and Answers

A patient tells the FNP that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot”. This type of data would be:

The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

The FNP is reviewing information about evidence-based practice. Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?

A 59-year-old patient tells the FNP that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having black stools for the last 24 hours. How would the FNP best document his reason for seeking care?

A 29-year-old woman tells the FNP that she has excruciating pain in her back. Which would be an appropriate response by the FNP to the woman statement?

In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient who denies having had any, which note by the FNP would be most accurate?

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If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

Which of these statements represents subjective data the FNP obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin?

The FNP is obtaining a history for a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient?

Which statement indicates that the FNP understands the pain experienced by an elderly person?

The FNP is performing a vision examination. Which of these charts is most widely used for visual examination?

During a complete health assessment, how would the FNP test the patients hearing? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP has just completed an examination of a patient’s extra-ocular muscles. When documenting the findings, the FNP should document the assessment of which cranial nerves?

A patient’s uvula rises midline when she says “ahh” and she has a positive gag reflex. The FNP has just tested which cranial nerve? NR 509 WEEK 1 QUIZ

During an examination the FNP notices that a patient is unable to stick out his tongue. Which cranial nerve is involved with successful performance of this action?

A patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the FNP‘s resistant hands. What cranial nerve is involved with successful shoulder shrugging?

During an examination, the patient has just successfully completed the finger to nose and rapid alternating movements test and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin. The FNP would conclude that the patient’s___ function is intact

A five-year-old child is in the clinic for checkup. The FNP would expect him to:

When the FNP performs the confrontation test the FNP has assessed: nr 509 week 1 quiz

Which of these statements is true regarding the complete physical assessment?

…. recording of data from the history and physical examination?

… in assessment of general appearance? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP is performing a review of symptoms. Which of these questions are appropriate as Health promotion questions to ask during this time?

The FNP is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the community portion of the FICA questions?

The FNP is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins? NR 509 WEEK 1 QUIZ

NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

1. A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic for an infection in his left foot. Which of these findings should the FNP expect to see during an assessment of this patient?

a. Hard and fixed cervical nodes

b. Enlarged and tender inguinal nodes

c. Bilateral enlargement of the popliteal nodes

d. Pelletlike nodes in the supraclavicular region

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2. The direction of blood flow through the heart is best described by which of these

a. Vena cava right atrium right ventricle lungs pulmonary artery left atrium left ventricle

b. Right atrium right ventricle pulmonary artery lungs pulmonary vein left atrium left ventricle

c. Aorta right atrium right ventricle lungs pulmonary vein left atrium left ventricle vena cava

d. Right atrium right ventricle pulmonary vein lungs pulmonary artery left atrium left ventricle

3. In assessing the carotid arteries of an older patient with cardiovascular disease, the FNP would

a. Palpate the artery in the upper one third of the neck. NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

b. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope to assess for bruits.

c. Simultaneously palpate both arteries to compare amplitude.

d. Instruct the patient to take slow deep breaths during auscultation.

4. When listening to heart sounds the FNP knows that the valve closures that can be heard best at the base of the heart are

a. mitral, tricuspid.

b. tricuspid, aortic.

c. aortic, pulmonic.

d. mitral, pulmonic.

5. The sack that surrounds and protects the heart is called the

a. pericardium.

b. myocardium.

c. endocardium.

d. pleural space.

6. When assessing a newborn infant who is five minutes old the FNP knows that which of these statements would be true?

a. The left ventricle is larger and weighs more than the right.

b. The circulation of a newborn is identical to that of an adult.

c. There is an opening in the atrial septum where blood can flow into the left side of the heart.

d. The foramen ovale closes just minutes before birth and the ductus arteriosus closes immediately after.

7. The FNP is performing an assessment on an adult. The adults vital signs are normal and capillary refill is five seconds. What should the FNP do next? NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

a. ask the parent if the child has had frostbite in the past.

b. suspect that the child has a venous insufficiency problem.

c. consider this a delayed capillary refill time and investigate further.

d. consider this a normal capillary refill time that requires no further assessment.

8. During an assessment of an older adult the FNP should expect to notice which finding as normal physiologic change associated with aging process?

a. Hormonal changes causing vasodilation and a resulting drop in blood pressure

b. Progressive atrophy of the intramuscular calf veins, causing venous insufficiency

c. Peripheral blood vessels growing more rigid with age, producing a rise in systolic blood pressure

d. Narrowing of the inferior vena cava, causing low blood flow and increases in venous pressure resulting in varicosities

9. The mother of a three month old infant states that her baby has not been gaining weight. With further questioning the FNP finds that the infant falls asleep after nursing and wakes up after a short amount of time hungry again. What other information with the FNP want to have?

a. The position that baby sleeps in

b. Sibling history of eating disorders

c. Amount of background noise when eating

d. Presence of dyspnea or diaphoresis when sucking

10. In assessing a patient’s major risk factors for heart disease which would the FNP want to include when taking a history?

a. Family history, hypertension, stress, age

b. Personality type, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking

c. Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, high cholesterol

d. Alcohol consumption, obesity, diabetes, stress, high cholesterol

11. The FNP is assessing… the pulses of a patient who has been admitted for untreated hyperthyroidism. The FNP should expect to find a—— pulse NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

a. normal

b. absent

c. bounding

d. weak, thread

12. A patient complains of leg pain that wakes him at night. He states that he has been having problems with his legs. He has pain in his legs his legs when they are elevated, which disappears when he dangles them. He recently noticed a sore on the inner aspect of his right ankle. On the basis of this history information the FNP interprets that the patient is most likely experiencing

a. pain related to lymphatic abnormalities.

b. problems related to arterial insufficiency.

c. problems related to venous insufficiency.

d. pain related to musculoskeletal abnormalities.

13. During an assessment the FNP uses the profile sign to detect

a. Pitting edema. NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

b. Early clubbing.

c. Symmetry of the fingers.

d. Insufficient capillary refill.

14. Which of these statements describes the closure of the valves in a normal cardiac cycle?

a. The aortic valve closes slightly before the tricuspid valve.

b. The pulmonic valve closes slightly before the aortic valve.

c. The tricuspid valve closes slightly later than the mitral valve.

d. Both the tricuspid and pulmonic valves close at the same time.

15. When performing a peripheral vascular assessment on a patient the FNP is unable to palpate the ulnar pulses. The patient skin is warm and capillary refill is normal. The FNP should next

a. check for the presence of claudication.

b. refer the individual for further evaluation.

c. consider this a normal finding and proceed with the peripheral vascular evaluation.

d. ask the patient if he or she has experienced any unusual cramping or tingling in the arm.

16. A 67-year-old patient states that he “recently began have pain in his left calf when climbing the 10 stairs to his apartment”. This pain is relieved by sitting for about two minutes then he’s able to resume activities. The FNP interprets this patient is most likely experiencing NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

a. Claudication.

b. Sore muscles.

c. Muscle cramps.

d. Venous insufficiency.

17. In assessing a 70-year-old man the FNP finds the following blood pressure 140/100 mmHg, heart rate 104 and slightly irregular, split S2. Which of these findings can… by expected hemodynamic changes related to age?

a. Increase in resting heart rate

b. Increase in systolic blood pressure

c. Decrease in diastolic blood pressure

d. Increase in diastolic blood pressure

18. The FNP is examining the lymphatic system of a healthy three year old child. Which finding should the FNP expect?

a. Excessive swelling of the lymph nodes

b. The presence of palpable lymph nodes

c. No nodes palpable because of the immature immune system of a child

d. Fewer numbers and a decrease in size of lymph nodes compared with those of an adult

19. The FNP is preparing to perform modified Allen test. Which is an appropriate reason for this test?

a. To measure the rate of lymphatic drainage NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

b. To evaluate the adequacy of capillary patency before venous blood draws

c. To evaluate the adequacy of collateral circulation before cannulating the radial artery

d. To evaluate the venous refill rate that occurs after the ulnar and radial arteries are temporarily occluded

20. A 25-year-old woman is in her fifth month of pregnancy has a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. In reviewing her previous exam the FNP notes that her blood pressure in her second month was 124/80 mmHg. When evaluating this change what does the FNP know to be true?

a. This is the result of peripheral vasodilatation and is an expected change.

b. Because of increased cardiac output, the blood pressure should be higher this time.

c. This is not an expected finding because it would mean a decreased cardiac output.

d. This would mean a decrease in circulating blood volume, which is dangerous for the fetus

21. Findings from an assessment of a 70-year-old patient with swelling in his ankles include jugular venous pusations, 5 cm above the sternal angle when the head of his bed is eleveted 45°. The FNP knows that this finding indicate: NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

a. Decreased fluid volume.

b. Increased cardiac output.

c. Narrowing of jugular veins.

d. Elevated pressure related to heart failure.

22. The component of the conduction system referred to as the pacemaker of the heart is the

a. Atrioventricular (AV) node.

b. Sinoatrial (SA) node.

c. Bundle of His.

d. Bundle branches.

23. The FNP is reviewing anatomy and physiology of the heart. Which statement best describes by atrial kick?

a. The atria contract during systole and attempt to push against closed valves.

b. Contraction of the atria at the beginning of diastole can be felt as a palpitation.

c. Atrial kick is the pressure exerted against the atria as the ventricles contract during systole.

d. The atria contract toward the end of diastole and push the remaining blood into the ventricles.

24. A 45-year-old man is in the clinic for a routine physical. During history the patient states he has been having difficulty sleeping. I’ll be sleeping great and then I wake up and feel like I can’t catch my breath. The FNP‘s best response to this would be

a. “When was your last electrocardiogram?”

b. “It’s probably because it’s been so hot at night.”

c. “Do you have any history of problems with your heart?”

d. “Have you had a recent sinus infection or upper respiratory infection?”

25. When assessing a patient the FNP notes that the left femoral pulse as diminished 1 /4 . What should the FNP do next? NR 509 Week 4 Quiz Advanced Physical Assessment

NR 509 Week 8 Summary Reflection

Purpose

In order to provide high quality healthcare to patients, the provider of care must possess the skills and competency indicative of a high quality medical provider. The rationale for measuring quality improvement is the belief that good performance reflects good-quality practice. A quality improvement strategy is defined as any intervention aimed at reducing the quality gap. Therefore, students must aim to achieve the skills and competencies indicative of high quality healthcare providers through the systematic implementation of a quality improvement strategy.

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Program Outcomes

This activity is guided by Program Outcome (PO) 1:

PO1. Provide high quality, safe, patient-centered care grounded in holistic health principles. (holistic health & patient-centered care) NR 509 Week 8 Summary Reflection

The purposes of this activity are to: (a) reflect upon providing high quality healthcare to patients, (b) identify knowledge deficits as determined by the 3P examination, (c) identify educational resources available through the Chamberlain University library, (d) create a self-driven quality improvement plan aimed at decreasing knowledge deficits and improving performance, and (e) share your improvement strategies with student peers.

Preparing for the Activity and Guidelines

Reflect upon PO1and provide 
two
 (2) or more examples of how you specifically achieved or had exposure to this outcome during this course.

Review the results of your 3P examination.

Identify 
three
 (3) content domains in which your performance was the lowest percentage as compared to the national average. If two or more domains share equal percentages, select the three lowest domains for this activity. In the 
example
 below, the student scored the lowest (17%) in the Endocrine and Urology domains and 33% in Cardiovascular. The student would select all three domains.

Access the 
NR509 Library 
using the web link below and select resources available through the Chamberlain University library to research topics and content areas related to the domains identified in Step 3. Explore the NR509 LibGuide Study Strategies box.  NR 509 Week 8 Summary Reflection

Create a self-guided quality improvement plan based on these resources. Include details such as:

Resource Names

Timeline for studying

Goals/Outcomes

Share your improvement plan with your peers in the Week 8 Summary Reflection Post in Canvas. NR 509 Week 8 Summary Reflection

Self-Reflection

Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

Student Response:
I performed a comprehensive assessment. It is a complete, in-depth assessment that includes a complete health history and physical assessment. I have followed the comprehensive assessment following our school immersion examination steps for gathering an objective physical examination. I feel much more comfortable doing the head-to-toe examination somehow. In addition, the interview I performed to obtain were the personal history of illness, family medical history, current and past treatment, medications, risk factors, surgeries, and lastly interview for mental status.

Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

Student Response:
Through a comprehensive assessment, the interview started with finding the reason for the clinic visitation, with any health concerns Tina may have. While interviewing Tina, I obtained the subjective data and an education on the current medical problem or preventive medical issues.

Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

Student Response:
Overall, I have improved my assessment techniques by not only interviewing but also through a physical examination throughout the last 7 weeks. I’m glad that I have the opportunity to use this simulation before an encounter with my first real patient for clinical practice, and know what I am looking for assessment. Honestly, I have never comfortable to ask personal questions such as a sexual relationship, use of illicit drugs, etc. which I thought of privacy which I have never touched before in my nursing career. I realized these questions are part of the necessary data for assessing and diagnosis patients and I feel much comfortable and thankful for this opportunity.

 

Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

Student Response:
I performed a comprehensive assessment. It is a complete, in-depth assessment that includes a complete health history and physical assessment. I have followed the comprehensive assessment following our school immersion examination steps for gathering an objective physical examination. I feel much more comfortable doing the head-to-toe examination somehow. In addition, the interview I performed to obtain were the personal history of illness, family medical history, current and past treatment, medications, risk factors, surgeries, and lastly interview for mental status.

Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

Student Response:
Through a comprehensive assessment, the interview started with finding the reason for the clinic visitation, with any health concerns Tina may have. While interviewing Tina, I obtained the subjective data and an education on the current medical problem or preventive medical issues.

Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

Student Response:
Overall, I have improved my assessment techniques by not only interviewing but also through a physical examination throughout the last 7 weeks. I’m glad that I have the opportunity to use this simulation before an encounter with my first real patient for clinical practice, and know what I am looking for assessment. Honestly, I have never comfortable to ask personal questions such as a sexual relationship, use of illicit drugs, etc. which I thought of privacy which I have never touched before in my nursing career. I realized these questions are part of the necessary data for assessing and diagnosis patients and I feel much comfortable and thankful for this opportunity.

Reflection on Cardiovascular Shadow Health

I learned that a thorough cardiovascular assessment will help to identify significant factors that can influence cardiovascular health such as high blood cholesterol, cigarette use, diabetes, or hypertension. Therefore, a cardiovascular exam should be a part of every abbreviated and complete assessment.    A focused cardiovascular assessment is usually indicated after a comprehensive assessment indicates a potential cardiovascular problem. The focused cardiovascular assessment is also indicated when an interval or abbreviated assessment shows a change in status from your previous assessment or the report you received, when a new symptom emerges, or the patient develops any distress.

I feel there is always room for growth, and I would say growth in documentation and placements regarding murmurs was very much discussed in the Shadow Health module.   I think an advantage of a focused assessment, like when we are doing the module, it helps us understand each body system.  The fact the modules looks at so many ways to assess, subjective, objective, and even empathy, can only improve our charting and communication.

I plan on improving by integrating the cardiovascular health history and physical exam.  It takes a lot of objective and subjective information, and knowing how assess, in order to make the correct diagnosis.  Shadow Health, makes us better NP’s by working with the patient and talking into the computer.  It is very important that as I grow into a NP role, the correct questions are asked and for me to be able to analyze all the health information for a diagnosis.

 

Reflection on Cardiovascular Shadow Health

I learned that a thorough cardiovascular assessment will help to identify significant factors that can influence cardiovascular health such as high blood cholesterol, cigarette use, diabetes, or hypertension. Therefore, a cardiovascular exam should be a part of every abbreviated and complete assessment.    A focused cardiovascular assessment is usually indicated after a comprehensive assessment indicates a potential cardiovascular problem. The focused cardiovascular assessment is also indicated when an interval or abbreviated assessment shows a change in status from your previous assessment or the report you received, when a new symptom emerges, or the patient develops any distress.

I feel there is always room for growth, and I would say growth in documentation and placements regarding murmurs was very much discussed in the Shadow Health module.   I think an advantage of a focused assessment, like when we are doing the module, it helps us understand each body system.  The fact the modules looks at so many ways to assess, subjective, objective, and even empathy, can only improve our charting and communication.

I plan on improving by integrating the cardiovascular health history and physical exam.  It takes a lot of objective and subjective information, and knowing how assess, in order to make the correct diagnosis.  Shadow Health, makes us better NP’s by working with the patient and talking into the computer.  It is very important that as I grow into a NP role, the correct questions are asked and for me to be able to analyze all the health information for a diagnosis.

NAPSRx Final Exam Answers 

 

1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?

A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat. and then by their mechanisms of action

B. first by their mechanisms of action. and then by their therapeutic effects

C. first by their side effects. and then by their therapeutic effects

D. first by their toxicity. and then by their effectiveness

 

2. Bone marrow transplants…

A. require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells and promote white blood cell production.

B. are a type of stem cell therapy. unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.

C. are always a type of stem cell therapy.

D. can help people with leukemia. a condition in which the body does not produce enough white blood cells.

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3. What does AMA stand for?

A. American Medical Academy

B. American Medical Accreditation

C. American Medical Association

D. Association of Medical Assistants

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

A. adverse reactions

B. contraindications

C. overdosage

D. warning/precautions

 

5 What is tertiary care?

A. adding medications together to achieve a better clinical effect

B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or complex medical problems

C. receiving medical or surgical care that does not require an overnight stay in the treatment facility

D. seeing a physician for routine checkups and general healthcare

 

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy covered in your manual?

A. brand personality

B. brand positoning

C. brand quality

D. brand values

 

7 What are vasodilators used to do?

A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow

B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system

C. narrow the blood vessels

D.stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster

 

8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become fairly constant?

A. homeostasis

B. steady state

C. titration

D. tolerance

 

9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?

A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.

B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.

C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.

D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or spinal cord.

10. Which entities invest’s the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B. the NIH

C. the U.S. Government

D. U.S. pharmaceutical companies

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 11. How are most drugs excreted?

A. via the bloodstream

B. via the heart

C. via the kidneys

D. via the skin

 

12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about off label uses?

A. Limitations have decreased.

B. Limitations have increased significantly.

C. Limitations have increased slightly.

D. Limitations have remained about the same.

 

13. Answer: Branding name

 

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?

A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.

B. Both drugs are generics.

C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.

D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.

 

15 Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?

A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs

B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives

C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives

D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives

 

16. When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-half’:

A. MS

B. OH

C. SM

D. SS

 

17 What is an internist?

A. a physician who practices internal medicine

B. a physician’s intern

C. a type of oncologist who specializes in chemotherapy

D. an internal sales representative

 

18. Which of the following is a type of white blood cell?

A. erythrocytes

B. insulin

C. Lymphocytes

D.HCs

 

19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to become more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

 

20. What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?

A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.

B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.

C. Pharmacodynamics studies the how the body affects drugs.

D. Pharmacodynamics studies the time required for a drug’s absorption.

21 What proportion of the drugs tested on human subjects are eventually approved by the FDA?

A. about 20%

B. about 60%

C. about 70%

D. about 95%

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 22. According to a study discussed in your manual, how do most physicians prefer to receive their drug samples?

A. by borrowing them from hospitals

B. by ordering them over the Internet

C. by trading them for services

D. directly from sales representatives

 

23. Which of the following is an example of a central value?

A. I buy Advil to show that I’m a modern consumer.

B. I like Advil because we were both born in the 80s.

C. I prefer Advil because I like the flavor.

D. I prefer Advil because it’s easier to swallow.

 

24. Which of the following specialties likely has the MOST emergency calls?

A. cardiology

B. psychiatry

C. urology

D. All specialists have the same number of emergency calls.

 

25. What affects the rate of active transport?

A. the availability of carriers. but not energy

B. the availability of energy. but not carriers

C. the availability of carriers and energy

D. neither the availability of carriers nor the availability of energy

 

26. Over the last few decades, what has happened to the FDA approval time for new drugs?

A. It has been lengthened to ensure safer drug products.

B. It has been lengthened to limit DTC marketing

C. It has been shortened to improve drug quality

D. It has been shortened to reduce the cost of new drug development.

 

27. Which of the following would NOT help improve compliance?

A. patients liking their providers

B. patients using only one pharmacist

C. pharmacists understanding how generics differ from brand name drugs

D.  support groups

 

28. Which entity chooses a drug’s trade name?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the drug’s manufacturer

C. the FDA

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

 

29. What type of stem cells are obtained from embryos and can develop into any cell type?

A. multipotent

B.  pluripotent

C. totipotent

D. All stem cells can develop into any cell type.

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 30. As the price a patient pays for a prescription increases, what happens to the likelihood that the patient will fill it?

A. It decreases.

B. It increases.

C. It remains unaffected because the prescription is needed.

D. It remains unaffected because the prescription’s increased cost is offset by its perceived value.

 

31. Most involuntary movements come from which type of muscle tissue?

A. cardiac and smooth

B. only skeletal

C. skeletal and cardiac

D. skeletal and smooth

 

32. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s major organ systems?

A. the cardiovascular system

B. the cellular system

C. the gastrointestinal system

D.  the musculoskeletal system

 

33. How do most drugs exert their primary physiological effects?

A.  by activating synapses between different types of tissues

B. by binding to cell receptors that are sensitive to their presence

C. by inhibiting synapses between different types of tissues

D.  through genetic mutation

 

34. What is the most reliable source of information for determining therapeutically equivalent drug products?

A. AMA guide

B. Blue Book

C. FDA drug list

D.  Orange Book

 

35. What does subcutaneous mean?

A. beneath the intervention

B. beneath the muscle tissue

C. beneath the outer skin

D. beneath the suture

 

36. What should a sales representative do if all of the prime spaces in a drug cabinet are coccupied?

A. ask staff for permission to move some of the other products in the cabinet

B. ask staff for permission to throw away expired products in the cabinet

C. ask the doctor if he still needs some of the other products in the cabinet

D. surreptitiously move your largest competitors’ products out of the way

 

37. It is inappropriate for physicians’ prescribing behaviors to be educated by their personal tastes and idiosyncrasies

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

 

38.The FDA defines API as the active__ ingredient in a drug, which produces the desired change in the body.

A. pharmaceutical

B. positive

C. potent

D.  primary

 

39. What are the 2 legal classifications of wholesalers?

A. distributors and supply chains

B. pharmacists and NAMs

C. primary and secondary wholesale distributors

D. retailers and institutions

 

40.What term describes the usage of a medication for purposes other than the FDA-approved indications on the labeling?

A. contraindicative indication

B. off-indication usage

C or D. off-label

 

41. What is the acronym for pharmacokinetics?

A. KN

B. PC

C. PK

D. pT

 

42. The dosage range of a drug that is both safe and beneficial is known as the therapeutic window.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

 

43. What is typically NOT a characteristic of a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Pharmaceutical sales reps are authentic and real.

B. Pharmaceutical sales reps are creative.

C. Pharmaceutical sales reps are focused.

D. Pharmaceutical sales reps are not concerned about competitors.

 

44. What entity grants drug patents?

A. the FDA

B. the FDA if the drug is over-the-counter and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is prescription

C. the FDA if the drug is prescription and the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office if the drug is over-the-counter

D. the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office

 

45. Which of the following refers to all active and inert pharmaceutical ingredients in a drug, including fillers and colors?

A. formulation

B. mycoplasma

C. peptide

D. saccharide

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 46. What is the difference between potency and efficacy?

A. Doctors prefer more potent drugs.

B. Drug manufacturers prefer more potent drugs.

C. Potency refers to the drug’s effectiveness. while efficacy refers to its strength.

D. Potency refers to the drug’s strength, while efficacy refers to its effectiveness.

 

47. What is the minimum level of education required for a nurse practitioner?

A. a certification program

B. an associate’s degree

C. a bachelor’s degree

D. a graduate degree

 

48. How many names must a drug have?

A. at most three

B. at least three

C. at most five

D. at least five

 

49. How has a longer development time increased the cost of bringing a new drug to market?

Answer: Increasing the cost of capital

 

50. Senior citizens consume over times as many pharmaceuticals as people under 65.

A. three

B. five

C. ten

D. fifteen

 

51. What agency regulates the distribution and use of narcotics?

A. DEA

B. FTC

C. OIG

D.TSA

 

52. What is passive diffusion?

A. a type of pinocytosis

B. membrane transport via vesicles

C. the use of energy to help a substance pass from a low concentration gradient to a high one

D. when a substance freely moves through a membrane from a high concentration gradient to a low one

 

53. What are the MAIN categories of drugs under FDA jurisdiction?

A. active drugs and active placebos

B. biopharmaceuticals and nutraceuticals

C. non-prescription and nutraceuticals

D. prescription and non prescription

 

54. Answer: Oxytocin

 

55. What are all metabolites?

A. active substances

B. inactive substances

C. injections

D. products of metabolism

56. When a drug is administered orally, where does first-pass metabolism occur?

A. intestine

B. liver

C. pancreas

D. stomach

 

57. What is the medical term for swelling?

A. assay

B. edema

C. instillation

D. protease

 

58. Which of the following is NOT part of the Seven Step Cascade of Emotion?

A. be a consultant. not a rep

B. identify what your product does

C. reflect

D. visualize the power of 10

 

59. Which part of a clinical research paper is frequently referred to as the road map?

A. abstract

B. findings

C. letter to the editor

D . methods

 

60. Which of the following is a main active ingredient in lung surfactants?

A. animal lung extract

B.  germicides

C.  sympathomimetic drugs

D.  theophylline

 

61. What does parenteral mean?

A. child prescriptions

B. injection

C. oral

D. tablet

 

62. Which term denotes a type of substance that enhances the action of a drug or antigen?

A. adjuvant

B. indicated

C. ligase

D peptide

 

63. If a sales representative’s product is placed on the second tier of a standard three-tier formulary, which of the following is most likely true?

A. It has not been reviewed by the P&T committee.

B. It is in a neutral position unless it is at parity with other drugs.

C. It probably has exclusive preferred status if it is not at parity with any other drugs.

D. It will essentially sell itself if it is granted exclusive preferred status.

64. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic transport mechanisms?

A. active transport

B. homeostasis

C. passive diffusion

D. pinocytosis

 

65. Which statement accurately describes a relationship between drug agonists and antagonists?

A. Agonists and antagonists can be used together.

B. Agonists and antagonists should not be used together.

C. Antagonist drugs activate receptors. while agonists block access to receptors.

D. Antagonists are endogenous whereas agonists are man-made.

66. What is the study of the effects and movement of drugs in the human body?

A. anatomy

B. antology

C. clinical pharmacology

D. pathology

 

67. According to your manual, what is a common complaint that physicians have about traditional sampling methods?

A. that drug sample supply is too unpredictable

B. that patients are less likely to take free samples because they think they are lower quality

C. that patients do not like seeing drug representatives in their offices

D. that they receive too many drug samples

 

68. Which of these entities is formed by two or more hospitals or other healthcare entities to negotiate reduced rates with its aggregated purchasing power?

A. GPO

B. In-state wholesaler

C. PPO

D. RPO

 

69. What is another name for a drug derived from a biologic compound?

A. large molecule

B. oligonucleotide

C. orgaanism

D. small molecule

 

70. What is the most common policy regarding pharmaceutical reps dispensing drug samples in hospitals?

A. By federal law. drug sampling is permitted in all hospitals.

B. By federal law. it is up to individual physicians. not the hospital.

C. Drug sampling is encouraged. but not required.

D. Drug sampling is often forbidden.

 

71 Which of the following would help you build trust with a physician?

A. asking if he or she is having any problems with the managed care coverage of your products

B. repeating a question you already asked

C. surprising the office staff with a new poster in the break room

D. None of these would help you build trust with a physician.

 

72. What term denotes the difference between the usual effective dose and the dose that induces severe or life-threatening side effects?

A. dose-response relationship

B. margin of safety

C. the placebo effect

D. therapeutic window

 

73. What are excipients?

A. a type of cell receptor to which antagonists bind to decrease the effects of the body’s natural agonists

B. another term for generic equivalents

C. sites of action besides the target sites of action

D. the inert ingredients in a drug formulation

 

74. What is another term for the AWP?

A. dock-to-dock price

B. float price

C. list price

D. non-stock price

75. Which of these is the most likely use for a uterotonic agent?

A. to induce labor

B. to make the urine more alkaline

C. to supplement oral food intake

D. to treat hyperthyroidism

 

76. As of November 2013, which of these countries has legalized DTC advertising of prescription drugs?

A. Canada

B. Japan

C. Spain

D. none of these

 

77. Why are oral drugs often taken on an empty stomach?

A.  to be more wholly absorbed by the stomach

B. to minimize absorption by the intestine

C.  to minimize nausea

D. to pass through the stomach more quickly

NAPSRx Final Exam 78. What is one factor that differentiates community health centers from hospitals?

A.  Community health center formularies are more restrictive.

B. Community health centers have higher reimbursement rates.

C. Newer brand name drugs are easier to access at community health centers.

D. None of these

 

79. How does drug sampling provide a social benefit?

A. Doctors donate their unused drug samples to charities.

B. Doctors often use drug samples to treat patients who otherwise could not afford it.

C. It allows patients to try out different prescription medications before consulting with physicians.

D.  Drug sampling provides a social benefit in all of these ways.

 

80. Which medical term denotes the use of a stethoscope to listen to the heart?

A. auscultation

B. cardioversion

C. catheterization

D. echocardiography

 

81. What do enteric coatings do?

A. facilitate vomiting

B. help drugs dissolve in the stomach

C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more quickly

D. prevent dissolution in the stomach

 

82. What is the duration of exclusivity for orphan drugs?

A.  6 months

B. 1 year

C.  7 years

D.  15 years

 

83. What do National Account Managers do?

A. act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the corporation

B. manage the FDA approval process

C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs

D.  sell only to pharmacies

84. What does it usually mean if a drug recall is voluntary?

A. Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.

B. The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.

C. The manufacturer has recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.

D. The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.

85. Which phase of clinical trials is also known as the pivotal phase?

A. Phase I

B. Phase III

C Phase IV

D. Phase IX

 

86. During which phase of clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the target group?

A. preclinical

B. Phase I

C. Phase II

D. Phase III

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 87. How do antacids work?

A. by increasing blood flow to the stomach

B. by lowering gastric pH

C. by raising gastric pH

D. by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver

 

88. What is one of the biggest time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. Caterers

B. Pharcists

C. receptionists

D. travel time

 

89. What happens when equilibrium is reached?

A.  equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions

B.  molecules stop moving

C. the concentration gradient decreases indefinitely

D. the concentration gradient increases indefinitely

 

90. What are the most common vectors used in gene therapy?

A.  autologous antigens

B. liposomes

C. naked DNA

D. viruses

 

91. What is the percentage fee that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?

A. margin fee

B. recharge

C. standard fee

D. upcharge

 

92. What is the difference between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?

A. Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.

B. Chronic reactions occur only during treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.

C. Chronic reactions persist for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.

D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic. but chronic reactions are not.

 

93 What is clinical effect?

A. federally funded research condition

B. the effect of maximum dosage

C. the response produced by a medication

D. the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy

 

94. Which of the following is an example of noncompliance?

A. a patient forgetting to take a drug at a specified time of day

B. a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated

C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name

D. a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the clinical studies on it

 

95. What is the average circulation time of blood?

A. about a minute

B. about 5 minutes

C. about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions

D. about 10 minutes

 

96. What is one way in which pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?

A. In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are usually the same entity.

B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time because doctors are so busy.

C. Representatives do NOT sell to the end user of the product.

D. Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.

 

97. From what types of entities do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?

A. brokerages

B. buying clubs

C. manufacturers

D. physicians

98.What is the Office of the Inspector General (01G)?

A. a department in pharmaceutical companies

B. an arm of the Department of Health and Human Services

C. an arm of the European Medicines Agency D an arm of the FDA

 

99. What are doctors required to consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?

A. quantity of life over quality of life

B. that no drugs with adverse effects should ever be used

C. the inferiority of OTC drugs

D. the severity of the disorder being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life

NAPSRx Final Exam 100. Which entity assigns a new drug its generic names?

A. the drug’s inventor

B. the Food and Drug Administration

C. the United States Adopted Name Council

D. the United States Pharmaceutical Council

 

101. Drugs can be used days beyond their expiration date.

A.  2-7 days. depending on the most current monograph.

B.  2-90 days. depending on state laws

C. 7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.

D. none of these

 

102. What is necessary for a drug to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?

A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in the bloodstream.

B. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.

C. The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the bloodstream.

D. The drug must not be water-soluble.

 

103. Which organization or individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?

A. clinical research organization

B. investigator

C. researcher

D. sponsor

 

104. The name describes the atomic or molecular structure of a drug.

A. chemical

B.  generic

C. pharmaceutical

D. proprietary

 

105. Under PhRMA Code, is it acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?

A. acceptable if only the physician attends

B. acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100

C. acceptable if the total is under $100

D. unacceptable

 

106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical industry since 1962.

A. experiment

B. legislation

C. process

D. research

 

107. What term denotes the the extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the body?

A. caliber

B. chronicity

C. indication

D. toxicity

 

108. What issue has MOST encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?

A. a weaker patients’ rights movement

B. lack of insurance coverage

C. less reliance on the Internet

D. proliferation of herbal remedies

 

109. What is the degree to which a medication produces a therapeutic effect?

A. diffusion

B. efficacy

C. protease

D. vector

 

110. What is the most important benefit of electronic prescribing?

A. Choice

B. cost

C. inquiries

D.  safety

 

111. When does the FDA regulate generic drugs?

A. only if they are branded generics

B. only if they have been contested

C.  always

D never

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 112. Which phase of trials largely determines the clinical dose?

A. preclinical trials

B. Phase II trials

C. Phase III trials

D. Phase IV trials

 

113. What is an advantage of inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?

A.  Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

B. Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired immunological response.

C. Inactivated vaccines have a more stable shelf life.

D.  Inactivated vaccines only require a single dose.

114. Which medical term denotes a low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?

A. potentiation

B. ischemia

C. TID

D. titration

 

115. What are the two main types of prescription drug marketing?

A. (1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies

B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to governments

C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer advertising

D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2) physician-funded marketing

 

116. What is the site of delivery for subcutaneous injections?

A. fatty tissue beneath the surface of the skin

B.  lymphatic tissue

C. muscle tissue

D. the stomach, via a special type of needle

 

117. What must be contained in the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?

A. adverse effects

B. mechanism of action

C. pharmacokinetics

D. the proprietary name and the established name

 

118. What is the study of a medication’s effects as it travels through the body?

A. pharmacodynamics

B. pharmacogenetics

C. pharmacogenomics

D. pharmacokinetics

 

119. Customers purchase products from people they like, trust, and respect. This is called the  

A. closing of the sale

B. first time advantage

C. likeability factor

D. power of knowledge

 

120. What is penicillin’s primary mechanism of action?

A. It disturbs bacterial cell wall synthesis.

B It inhibits the production of viruses.

C. It prevents proper DNA replication.

D. It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells

 

121. According to your manual, how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?

A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have been made available as OTCs.

B. Managed care has been increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.

C. The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized attention.

D. There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.

 

122. How does pharmaceutical marketing help narrow the treatment gap?

A. It encourages patients to take more active roles in their healthcare.

B. It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.

C. It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.

D. all of these

 

123. What do immunosuppressive agents do?

A. decrease risk of infection

B. increase risk of infection

C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies

D. treat psoriasis

 

124. What types of drugs are EGFR inhibitors?

A. antineoplastics

B. cardiovascular agents

C. CNS agents

D. mitotic inhibitors

 

125. Which of the following means outside of the living body?

A. en vivo

B. ex vitro

C. ex vivo

D. intra vivo

 

126. The FDA requirements for nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for pharmaceuticals.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

 

127. What is the estimated net gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life expectancy?

A. $5-10 billion

B. $40-50 billion

C. $800-900 billion

D.$ 2-5 trillion

 

128. Which statement is TRUE regarding post-approval drug monitoring?

A. All side effects are determined during clinical trials.

B. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.

C. Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have been proven in clinical studies.

D. The FDA can choose to withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 129. Which term denotes when tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?

A. cell tolerance

B. cross-tolerance

C. indicated tolerance

D. minimized tolerance

 

130. Patents expire __ years from the date of filing.

A. ten

B. fifteen

C. twenty

D. thirty

 

131. After a trade-name drug’s patent expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?

A. only under the branded generic name

B. only under the generic name

C. only under the original trade name

D. under the original trade name or a generic name

 

132. What is required for a new pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?

A. It causes no serious adverse effects.

B. It causes no side effects.

C. It has an active placebo.

D. It is more effective and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.

 

133. Under the AMA guidelines, who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?

A.  doctors

B. lawyers and office managers

C. pharmaceutical companies

D. sales representatives

 

134. The act of dispensing a pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is

A. alternative licensure

B. equivalence practice

C.  necessitated substitution

D. pharmaceutical substitution

 

135. What does it mean if a drug is said to have a wide margin of safety?

A. Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.

B. Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.

C. There is a greater chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

D. There is a lower chance of severe or life-threatening side effects.

136. Which of the following is the correct medical acronym for effective dose?

A. DE

B. ED

C. EFD

D. eff D

 

137. Why is one group of subjects given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?

A. to assess patients’ expectations

B. to assess the drug’s effectiveness

C. to assess the professionalism of the study staff

D. to assess the subjects’ demographics

 

138. A generic version is likely to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original drug.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

 

139. Which of the following is an example of a functional value?

A.  I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of the world.

B.  I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like a traditionalist.

C.  I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.

D.  I drink Coca-Cola because it is an international brand.

 

140. Where are most drugs metabolized?

A.  interstitial spaces

B.  liver

C. stomach

D . the bloodstream

 

141. What is essential to the ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?

A. Selection criteria should be well-supported by documented evidence.

B. Studies should make every attempt to conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical attention.

C. Subjects should be selected based on scientific objectives.

D. all of these

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 142. Which of the following is the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact name?

A. Dear Personnel Department.

B. Dear Sir or Madam,

C. Dear Sir

D.To Whom It May Concern.

 

143. What is part of becoming an indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?

A. asking for feedback

B. giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products

C. keeping your market share goals the same each term

D. not bothering busy doctors in hospitals

 

144. Which of the following is NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package insert information?

A. diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat

B. the drug’s active metabolites

C. the drug’s recommended usual dosage

D. the drug’s usual dosage range

 

145. Which term denotes the practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by anticipated prescription volume?

A. conditioning

B. deciling

C. detailing

D. private labeling

 

146. What makes a drug eligible for fast track approval from the FDA?

A. It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.

B. It is a new drug.

C. It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.

D. It treats patients with a serious. life-threatening condition.

 

147. In the gastrointestinal tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active pharmaceutical ingredient.

A. binders

B. disintegrants

C. dispersing agents

D. lubricants

 

148. According to your manual, what does the PDRP do?

A. It educates patients on their treatment options.

B. It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.

C. It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in doctors’ offices.

D. It limits sales representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.

 

149. What are the components of the central nervous system?

A. the brain and sense organs

B. the brain and spinal cord

C. the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system

D. the spinal cord and sense organs

150. Which term denotes the origin or cause of a medical condition?

A. cytology

B. discovery

C. etiology

D. pathology

 

151. Patients diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes…

A.  …do not produce enough insulin because they do not have enough B cells.

B.  …have an autoimmune disease.

C.  …produce enough insulin. but it is not as effective.

D.  …rely on insulin from porcine sources.

 

152. Which DTC pharmaceutical marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?

A. disease state ads

B. branded billboards and disease state ads

C. branded highway billboards

D. branded radio ads

 

153. What is one way in which psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?

A. Psychologists are more concerned with subconscious memories than conscious ones.

B. Psychologists deal more with emotional than physical issues.

C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues than emotional ones.

D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.

 

154. What are PBMs?

A. governmental organizations that provide healthcare

B. organizations that design marketing campaigns

C. organizations that negotiate between pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers

D. organizations that write FDA new drug applications

 

155. How does the Hatch-Waxman Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?

A. by limiting the competition

B. by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market

C. by providing a 30-month cooling off period

D. by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an ANDA

 

156. What is the process of adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while minimizing adverse or side effects?

A.homeostatic maximization

B.steady state administration

C.Sustained release

D.Titration

 

NAPSRx Final Exam 157. Which of the following is studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?

A. absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion

B. dose-response effects

C. the transportation of the drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction

D. the way the human body deals with a drug after it has been administered

 

158. How does the healthy human immune system use MHC markers?

A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the liver.

C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.

D. Substances without MHC markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.

 

159. What is a behind-the-counter drug?

A. an OTC drug that must be closely monitored by the pharmacist

B. another term for a generic prescription drug

C. another term for a prescription drug

D. another term for an OTC drug

 

160. When do MSLs meet with clinicians?

A. at nearly any stage of the product’s life cycle

B. only after the district’s sales representatives

C. only prior to launch

D. MSLs do not meet with physicians.