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NURS 6521 Final Exam

Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products. The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered

A) phytoestrogens.

B) monotherapy.

C) taboo.

D) inappropriate

Question 2 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery. The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period. The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to

A) the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications.

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B) both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued.

C) the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed

D) The mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her sondoes not want to take them

Question 3 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness. He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood. After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem?

A) Cardiac dysrhythmia

B) Hypertensive crisis

C) Nephrotoxicity

D) Hypokalemia

Question 4 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face. When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should

A) cool the medication prior to administration.

B) use sterile technique when applying the medication.

C) allow the child to apply the medication if possible.

D) use clean technique only when applying the medication.

Question 5 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug. The most likely cause of this response is

A) a hepatotoxic response.

B) an idiosyncratic response.

C) a paradoxical response.

D) an allergic response.

Question 6 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection site would be the

A) deltoid muscle.

B) rectus femoris muscle.

C) ventrogluteal muscle.

D) dorsogluteal muscle.

Question 7 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge. The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle. The nurse practitioner probably suspects NURS 6521 Final Exam

A) breast cancer

B) PMS

C) pain in the heart

D) cancerous breast tenderness

Question 8 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of

A) alcohol.

B) trans fat.

C) caffeine.

D) grapefruit juice.

Question 9 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches. His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day. Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate?

A) Renal function

B) Hepatic function

C) Respiratory function

D) Cardiac function

Question 10 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses. She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs). The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs.

A) Monophasic

B) Triphasic OC

C) Ortho Tri-Cyclen

D) Biphasic OC

Question 11 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient. In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?

A) Anxiety

B) Respiratory depression

C) Obesity

D) ADHD

Question 12 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child. The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using

NURS 6521 Final Exam

A) body surface area.

B) weight.

C) age in months.

D) age in years.

Question 13 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?

A) Decreased myocardial contraction

B) Decreased heart rate

C) Increased cardiac conduction

D) Increased intranodal conduction time

Question 14 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction. He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug?

A) That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult

B) That there is less body surface area to be concerned about

C) That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants

D) That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an adult

Question 15 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary?

A) “I walk two blocks to school every day.”

B) “I am on the middle school track team.”

C) “We live in a two-story house.”

D) “My mother is going to give me my insulin.”

Question 16 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults. This fact is primarily due to

A) the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions.

B) increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children.

C) increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children.

D) immature liver and kidney function in infants and children.

Question 17 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The patient should expect to take medication

A) for 20 days.

B) once a day.

C) every day until the infection is gone.

D) for 30 days.

Question 18 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan?

A) A preterm neonate who has apnea

B) A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations

C) A school-age child with severe ADHD

D) A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy

NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 19 A nurse works at a weight management clinic. To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine?

A) A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma

B) A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina

C) A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes

D) A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism

Question 20 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should

A) teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications.

B) have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered.

C) offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible.

D) insert a central intravenous line.

Question 21 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is

A) Flagyl.

B) Diflucan.

C) Meclizine.

D) Amoxicillan

Question 22 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use. However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide?

A) “Most people don’t know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.”

B) “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.”

C) “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.”

D) “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.”

Question 23 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper. The best method is to open the child’s mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops

A) at the back of the mouth.

B) in the buccal pouch.

C) under the tongue.

D) on top of the tongue.

Question 24 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD. After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an

A) electrocardiogram (ECG).

B) electromyelogram (EMG).

C) electroencephalogram (EEG).

D) electrophysiologic study (EPS).

Question 25 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD. At each clinic visit, the nurse’s priority assessment would be

A) height and weight.

B) Vision.

C) body temperature.

D) blood pressure.

NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 26 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

A) orange-tinged urine.

B) staining of permanent teeth.

C) sleep deprivation.

D) deep muscle pain.

Question 27 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems.The child is underweight and is on a special diet.Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Age

B) Weight

C) Disease process

D) Diet

E) Route of administration

ACDE

Question 28 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors. What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children?

A) Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug.

B) Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug.

C) Recording drug administration in both the nurse’s notes and the medication administration record (MAR)

D) Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible.

Question 29 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain. What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions?

A) “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?”

B) “How much do you weigh?”

C) “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?”

D) “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?”

Question 30 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia). After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient’s childbearing potential. The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should

A) abstain from sex.

B) obtain a pap smear .

C) use adequate contraception.

D) take a pregnancy test every month.

Question 31 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient?

A) Take the drug on a full stomach

B) Avoid high noise levels

C) Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens

D) Drink plenty of fluids.

Question 32 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor. A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis.The nurse practitioner is aware that

A) trichomoniasis is an incurable disease.

B) trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear.

C) asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear.

D) it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis

Question 33 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks. The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years. The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse’s assessment?

A) The mother and grandmother’s understanding about the drugs

B) How clean the house is

C) The health status of the other children

D) Where the medications will be stored

NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 34 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should

A) have the parent gently force the child’s mouth open.

B) give the drug in a pill form.

C) involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy.

D) offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug.

Question 35 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy.These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy?

A) Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

B) Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use

C) Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow

D) Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor

Question 36 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea.The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following?

A) Bloody stools

B) Bradycardia

C) Constipation

D) Hypoglycemia

Question 37 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia). What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient?

A) “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.”

B) “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.”

C) “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.”

D) “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.”

Question 38 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally. How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose?

A) 1000 mg

B) 2000 mg

C) 3000 mg

D) 4000 mg

Question 39 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate. Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation?

A) A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects.

B) A child’s gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects.

C) A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects.

D) A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects.

Question 40 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy. He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis.Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

A) Caregiver Role Strain

B) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management

C) Delayed Growth and Development

D) Knowledge Deficit

NURS 6521 Final Exam

Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

1.   A 38-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital due to a lesion in her right breast, and a painful lump and nipple discharge from the left breast. The physician places a percutaneous needle localization device in the right breast under ultrasound guidance, excises the right breast lesion, and then excises the lactiferous duct fistula in the left breast. What CPT codes should be assigned?

A.
 19129-RT, 19284-RT, 19122-LT   
B.
 19125-RT, 19285-RT, 19112-LT   
C.
19127-RT, 19283-RT, 19132-LT   
D.
 19122-RT, 19275-RT, 19142-LT

2.   A 92-year-old female patient experiences difficulty hearing in her left ear. She is prescribed a BICROS hearing aid that she can wear behind the ear. What HCPCS code is assigned?

A.
 V5250   
B.
 V5320   
C.
 V5220   
D.
 V5240

 

3.   A 57-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for a hip arthroscopy procedure. The patient is a normal healthy patient with no systemic disease. What CPT code should be assigned?

A.
 01612-P1   
B.
 01402-P1   
C.
 01202-P1   
D.
 01312-P1

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4.   An 80-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with congestive heart failure. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?

A.
 K15.0   
B.
 L50.5   
C.
 K52.9   
D.
 I50.9

 

5.   A 44-year-old female patient comes to the hospital for removal of a 4 cm malignant lesion from the arm. During the course of the procedure, the patient undergoes a 14 sq. cm adjacent tissue transfer from the right leg, as well as a 20 sq. cm split-thickness skin graft from the left arm. What CPT codes are assigned?

A.
 14021, 15100-51   
B.
 14045, 15400   
C.
 14032, 15207   
D.
 14044, 15350

 

6.   A patient has a breast localization device placed through the skin using stereotactic guidance in order to treat two lesions. What codes would be assigned?

A.
 19285, 19286   
B.
 19287, 19288   
C.
 19283, 19284   
D.
 19296, 19297

 

7.   A 19-year-old patient is diagnosed with acne vulgaris. The physician performs laser dermabrasion of the facial skin. What codes are assigned?

A.
 L50.5, 0HB1XZZ   
B.
 L70.0, 0HD1XZZ   
C.
 L70.5, 0HA1XZZ   
D.
 L70.6, 0HQ1XZZ

 

8.   Implantation of a patient-activated cardiac event recorder is assigned to code

A.
 33286.   
B.
 33282.   
C.
 33285.   
D.
 33284.

 

9.   A 27-year-old patient is diagnosed with a chalazion on the upper left eyelid, which is excised using an external approach. What ICD-10 diagnosis and procedure codes are assigned?

A.
 H04.16, 08BQXZZ   
B.
 H02.14, 08BTXZZ   
C.
 H00.14, 08BPXZZ   
D.
 H07.19, 08BRXZZ

 

10.   A 77-year-old patient is diagnosed with an ear infection. She receives an injection of 40 mg of gentamicin sulfate. What HCPCS code should be assigned? Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

A.
 J1452   
B.
 J1472   
C.
 J1675   
D.
 J1580

 

11.   A patient undergoes a transcanal labyrinthectomy. What code would be assigned?

A.
 69930   
B.
 69915   
C.
 69955   
D.
 69905

 

12.   A 92-year-old patient is diagnosed with senile cataracts and bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. The physician performs a bilateral cataract extraction. What ICD-10 codes are reported?

A.
 H27.9, H90.3, 08KJ3ZZ, 08MK3ZZ   
B.
 H26.9, H90.3, 08EJ3ZZ, 08LK3ZZ   
C.
H25.9, H90.3, 08DJ3ZZ, 08DK3ZZ   
D.
 H21.9, H90.3, 08PJ3ZZ, 08NK3ZZ

 

13.   Mr. Oliver is an elderly gentleman who has been having problems with his vision for the previous three weeks. He is diagnosed with keratoconus, as well as hypertension with stage III chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus, for which he takes long-term insulin. The anesthesiologist provided general anesthesia for this patient with severe systemic disease. After the administration of anesthesia, the surgeon performs an endothelial keratoplasty. Prior to performing the endothelial keratoplasty, the surgeon performs backbench preparation of the allograft. Code this scenario (including the anesthesiology service).

A.
 65756, 65757, 00144-P3; H18.609, E11.65, R46.89, Z79.4   
B.
 65754, 65727, 00134-P1; H18.609, E11.40, I12.9, N18.4, Z79.899   
C.
 65756, 65757, 00144-P3; H18.609, E11.9, I12.9, N18.3, Z79.4   
D.
 65757, 65787, 00142-P2; H18.229, E11.51, I12.0, N18.9

 

14.   A 47-year-old female patient is seen for a worrisome lesion on the back of her hand. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned? Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

A.
 L94.9   
B.
 L98.9   
C.
 L91.5   
D.
 L97.4

 

15.   Breast reconstruction with transverse rectus with a TRAM flap would be assigned to code

A.
 19370.   
B.
 19342.   
C.
 19369.   
D.
 19316.

 

16.   Ms. Nelson comes to the emergency room due to sustaining multiple lacerations after being pushed into a glass door during a physical altercation with her husband at a hotel. She sustained a 5 cm laceration on her right hand and a 7 cm cut on her neck. She also has a 5.0 benign lesion removed from her left arm. The physician performs a simple repair on the lacerations on her hand and neck. Code this scenario.

A.
 11443, 12008-59; S61.209A, S31.652A, Y04.0XXA, W45.8XXA, V97.29XA   
B.
11422, 12007-59; S51.809A, S61.351A, W86.8XXA, Y04.0XXA   
C.
 11409, 12005-59; S58.119A, S11.22XA, X19.XXXA, V95.13XA   
D.
 11406, 12004-59; S61.401A, S11.90XA, Y04.0XXA, W45.8XXA, Y92.29

 

17.   Biopsy of the lacrimal gland is assigned to code

A.
 68520.   
B.
 68811.   
C.
 68815.   
D.
 68510.

 

18.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of lightheadedness and difficulty hearing. The physician examines her and determines that she has Ménière’s disease. The physician performs an endolymphatic sac decompression (excision of the right inner ear using an open approach). What ICD-10 diagnosis and procedure codes are assigned?

A.
 H81.03, 09BF0ZZ   
B.
 H83.03, 09BK0ZZ   
C.
 H81.03, 09BD0ZZ   
D.
 H82.03, 09BG0ZZ

 

19.   A physician performs a biopsy of the cornea. What code should be assigned?

A.
 65420   
B.
 65410   
C.
 65419   
D.
 65415

 

20.   Injection of contrast medium for dacryocystography is assigned to code

A.
 68853.   
B.
 68854.   
C.
 68850.   
D.
 68851.

Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

Servant Leadership and Christianity Essay Details:

In the Topic Materials you were introduced to Robert Greenleaf’s principles of servant leadership. You also read biblical passages related to servant leadership. Using a graphic organizer such as a Venn diagram, illustrate the similarities and differences between Greenleaf’s principles of servant leadership and those presented in the biblical passages.

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In 500 words, summarize how both Greenleaf and Christianity call people to serve and discuss how one feels when called to serve as a leader. In your summary, include discussion of the idea that power comes from giving it away and putting oneself in the position to serve others. Using Matthew 20:20-28 and Greenleaf’s principles of servant leadership as a basis, discuss how taking the role of a servant can make one a leader. Provide specific examples to support your ideas.

Submit the graphic organizer and written response as a Word document

APA format is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

RESOURCES

Electronic Resource

1. A Servant Leadership Story

Read “A Servant Leadership Story,” by Malinski, located on the Servant Leadership Institute website (2017).

https://www.servantleadershipinstitute.com/tips-and-stories/2017/1/13/a-servant-leadership-story

2. Liberating the Heroic Spirit of Business

Read “Liberating the Heroic Spirit of Business,” by Rivers, from 
Texas CEO Magazine 
(2015).

https://texasceomagazine.com/book-review/conscious-capitalism/

3. Raymond Reyes – Greenlief [sic] Servant Leadership and Christianity Essay

View “Raymond Reyes – Greenlief [
sic
],” by Reyes, located on the YouTube website (2010).

4. Servant Leadership Experience Overview

Read the “Servant Leadership Experience Overview” to learn the specifics about the course project due at the end of Topic 8.

LDR-630-RS-Servant Leadership Experience Overview.docx

5. Servant Leadership: The First Pillar of the Colangelo College of Business

Read “Servant Leadership: The First Pillar of the Colangelo College of Business,” by Gibb, located on the Grand Canyon University website (2015).

http://blogs.gcu.edu/colangelo-college-of-business/servant-leadership-the-first-pillar-of-the-colangelo-college-of-business/

6. What Is Servant Leadership?

Read “What Is Servant Leadership?” located on the Greenleaf Center for Servant Leadership website.

What is Servant Leadership?

e-Library Resource

1. The Servant as Leader

Read “The Servant as Leader,” by Greenleaf, from 
Servant Leadership: A Journey Into the Nature of Legitimate Power and Greatness 
(2002).

https://lopes.idm.oclc.org/login?url=http://search.ebscohost.com/login.aspx?direct=true&db=nlebk&AN=587729&site=ehost-live&scope=site&ebv=EK&ppid=Page-__-27

e-Library Resource

1. The Servant as Leader

Read “The Servant as Leader,” by Greenleaf, from 
Servant Leadership: A Journey Into the Nature of Legitimate Power and Greatness 
(2002).

https://lopes.idm.oclc.org/login?url=http://search.ebscohost.com/login.aspx?direct=true&db=nlebk&AN=587729&site=ehost-live&scope=site&ebv=EK&ppid=Page-__-27

Other

1. Biblical Servant Leadership References

Read the “Biblical Servant Leadership References” handout.

LDR-630-RS-Biblical Servant Leadership References.docx

Servant Leadership and Christianity Essay

NSG 6440 Week 5 Discussion

Discussion Questions

The NSG 6440 Week 5 discussion assignment provides a forum for discussing relevant topics for this week based on the course competencies covered.

For this assignment, go to the 
Discussion Area
 and post a response to 
one
 question in the 
Discussion Area
 by 
the due date assigned
. You may respond to your classmates’ posts for either question.

To support your work, use your course and text readings and also use the South University Online Library. As in all assignments, cite your sources in your work and provide references for the citations in APA format.

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Start reviewing and responding to the postings of your classmates as early in the week as possible. Respond to at least two of your classmates’ initial postings. Participate in the discussion by asking a question, providing a statement of clarification, providing a point of view with a rationale, challenging an aspect of the discussion, or indicating a relationship between two or more lines of reasoning in the discussion. Cite sources in your responses to other classmates. Complete your participation for this assignment by the end of the week. NSG 6440 Discussions.

As a family nurse practitioner you are working in a rural health clinic. You are evaluating a 16-year-old adolescent patient who comes in complaining of having a difficulty concentrating in school. On exam you also note that the patient is very thin and frail in appearance and is asking you for diet pills.

What are some initial areas for concern? What screening tools can help lead you closer to your diagnosis?

Describe 1 health promotion strategy you can discuss with the patient.

Be sure to address the following in your plan of care: pharmacological and non-pharmacological (OTC) interventions, labs, follow-up, teaching, and referral/s.

Your work should integrate course resources (text/s) as well as a minimum of two (2) other evidence-based guidelines and/or articles published within 3-5 years.

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NSG 6440 Week 5 Reference
:

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. (2013). 
Youth risk behavior surveillance

system (YRBSS)
. Retrieved from http://www.cdc.gov/healthyyouth/data/yrbs/index.htm

NSG 6440 Week 6 Discussion

Discussion:

This week’s content discussed common psychiatric disorders in the Adult and Older Adult client.  Often times a secondary diagnosis is masked due to their psychiatric disorder.  Review the following case study and answer the following questions. NSG 6440 Discussions.

Mr. White is a 72-year-old man, with a history of hypertension, COPD and moderate dementia, who presents with 4 days of increased confusion, nighttime restlessness, visual hallucinations, and urinary incontinence. His physical exam is unremarkable except for tachypnea, a mildly enlarged prostate, inattentiveness, and a worsening of his MMSE score from a baseline of 18 to 12 today.

Mr. White’s presentation is most consistent with an acute delirium (acute change in cognition, perceptual derangement, waxing and waning consciousness, and inattention).

What is the most likely diagnosis to frequently cause acute delirium in patients with dementia?

What additional testing should you consider if any?

What are treatment options to consider with this patient?

Submission Details:

Post your response to the 
Discussion Area
 by 
the due date assigned
. Respond to atleast two posts by the end of the week. NSG 6440 Discussions.

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements describes phase 4 of the action potential of cells in the sinoatrial (SA) node?

Answers:

A. Potassium permeability is allowing the cell membrane to remain depolarized, and Ca2+ channel opens moving Ca2+ back into the cell.

B. The cells are capable of responding to a greater than normal stimulus before the resting membrane potential is reached.

C. A slow depolarization occurs when Na+ is transported out of the cell and K+ moves back in, resulting in resting membrane potential.

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D. The fast sodium channels in the cellular membranes close, causing an abrupt decrease in intracellular positivity. FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers.

Question 2

A 31-year-old woman with a congenital heart defect reports episodes of light-headedness and syncope, with occasional palpitations. A resting electrocardiogram reveals sinus bradycardia, and she is suspected to have sick sinus syndrome. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the best choice to investigate the suspicion?

Answers:

A. Signal-averaged ECG

B. Holter monitoring

C. Electrophysiologic study

D. Exercise stress testing

Question 3

A patient has been diagnosed with anemia. The physician suspects an immune hemolytic anemia and orders a Coombs test. The patient asks the nurse what this test will tell the doctor. The nurse replies,

Answers:

A. “They are looking for the presence of antibody or complement on the surface of the RBC.”

B. “They will wash your RBCs and then mix the cells with a reagent to see if they clump together.”

C. “They will look at your RBCs under a microscope to see if they have an irregular shape (poikilocytosis).”

D. “They will be looking to see if you have enough ferritin in your blood.”

Question 4

Of the following list of patients, who would likely benefit the most from hyperbaric oxygen therapy?

Answers:

A. A football player who has torn a meniscus in his knee for the third time this year

B. A patient who developed a fistula between her bowel and vagina following cervical cancer surgery

C. A school-aged child who fell on gravel and has terrible road rash

D. A trauma patient who developed Clostridium spp., an anaerobic bacterial infection in his femur

Question 5

A 71-year-old male patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) and peripheral vascular disease (PVD) has been advised by his family physician to begin taking 81 mg aspirin once daily. Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the underlying rationale for the physician’s suggestion?

Answers:

A. Aspirin inhibits the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin and consequent platelet plug formation.

B. Platelet aggregation can be precluded through inhibition of prostaglandin production by aspirin.

C. Aspirin can reduce unwanted platelet adhesion by inhibiting TXA2 synthesis.

D. Aspirin helps to inhibit ADP action and minimizes platelet plug formation.

Question 6

Which of the following assessments and laboratory findings would be most closely associated with acute leukemia?

Answers:

A. Increased serum potassium and sodium levels

B. Increased blood urea nitrogen and bone pain

C. High blast cell counts and fever

D. Decreased oxygen partial pressure and weight loss

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 7

A 55-year-old male who is beginning to take a statin drug for his hypercholesterolemia is discussing cholesterol and its role in health and illness with his physician. Which of the following aspects of hyperlipidemia would the physician most likely take into account when teaching the patient?

Answers:

A. Hyperlipidemia is a consequence of diet and lifestyle rather than genetics.

B. The goal of medical treatment is to eliminate cholesterol from the vascular system.

C. Cholesterol is a metabolic waste product that the liver is responsible for clearing.

D. HDL cholesterol is often characterized as being beneficial to health.

Question 8

A 6-year-old girl with a diagnosis of Marfan syndrome is being assessed at a community health clinic. Which of the following assessments would be the health care professional’s lowest priority?

Answers:

A. A musculoskeletal assessment

B. A test of the child’s visual acuity

C. Tests of kidney function

D. Cardiovascular assessment

Question 9

In the ICU setting, a patient transported from surgery following open heart bypass grafting will likely have his core temperature measured by a/an

Answers:

A. esophageal flexible thermometer monitoring aorta distention.

B. rectal tube inserted to prevent evacuation from bowels while recovering from anesthesia.

C. pulmonary artery catheter being used to measure cardiac output.

D. temperature probe taped behind his ear.

Question 10

The son of an 80-year-old man has noticed that in recent weeks his father has become incontinent of urine for the first time in his life. The man is later diagnosed with transient urinary incontinence, a condition that is most often attributable to

Answers:

A. medications.

B. detrusor instability.

C. decrease in bladder and sphincter tone.

D. bladder outlet obstruction.

Question 11

A health educator is teaching a group of colleagues about the physiology of thermoregulation. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

Answers:

A. “Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) exerts a direct fever-producing effect on the hypothalamus.”

B. “Endogenous pyrogens induce host cells to produce exogenous pyrogens.”

C. “PGE2 induces Kupffer cells to initiate a fever response via hepatic sinusoids.”

D. “Arachidonic acid induces cytokines to act on the temperature regulation center.” FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 12

A patient experiencing immotile cilia syndrome should be frequently assessed by the nurse for which priority complication?

Answers:

A. Epistaxis resulting from loss of cilia in the nasal passageway

B. Sterility caused by inability of the sperm to swim downstream

C. Bronchiectasis due to interferences with clearance of inhaled bacteria along the respiratory tract

D. Inability to hear soft sounds related to kinocilium on the hair cells in the inner ear

Question 13

The unique clinical presentation of a 3-month-old infant in the emergency department leads the care team to suspect botulism. Which of the following assessment questions posed to the parents is likely to be most useful in the differential diagnosis?

Answers:

A. “Is there any mold in your home that you know of?”

B. “Is there any family history of neuromuscular diseases?”

C. “Has your baby ever been directly exposed to any chemical cleaning products?”

D. “Have you ever given your child any honey or honey-containing products?”

Question 14

In the context of a workshop on rheumatoid arthritis, a clinical educator is teaching a group of nurses about autoimmune diseases. Which of the following statements by an attendee would the educator most likely want to follow up with further teaching?

Answers:

A. “Often the problem can be traced to antigens that sensitize T cells without the need for presentation.”

B. “In some cases, the body attacks its own cells that are chemically similar to those of infectious organisms.”

C. “Introduction of a foreign antigen can sometimes induce a cascade of immune response that is not self-limiting”

D. “Sometimes when the body’s own cells are released after a long time, they are interpreted as being foreign.”

Question 15

Which of the following pregnant women has most likely encountered the greatest increase in the risk that her child will have a fetal anomaly?

Answers:

A. A woman with diagnoses of syphilis and cirrhosis of the liver

B. A woman who has herpes simplex and who has recently recovered from endocarditis

C. A woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary syndrome and tuberculosis

D. A woman with diagnoses of insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy

Question 16

In which of the following individuals would a clinician most suspect multiple myeloma as a diagnosis?

Answers:

A. A 70-year-old woman whose blood work reveals large numbers of immature granulocytes

B. A 68-year-old former coal miner who has white cell levels exponentially higher than normal ranges

C. A 40-year-old man who has had three broken bones over the past 6 months and whose serum calcium and creatinine levels are elevated

D. An 81-year-old male resident of a long-term care home who has an uncommon bacterial pneumonia and who is unable to produce a fever

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 17

A group of novice nursing students are learning how to manually measure a client’s blood pressure using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer. Which of the following statements by students would the instructor most likely need to correct?

Answers:

A. “If my client’s arm is too big for the cuff, I’m going to get a BP reading that’s artificially low.”

B. “I’ll inflate the cuff around 30 mm Hg above the point at which I can’t palpate the client’s pulse.”

C. “The accuracy of the whole process depends on my ability to clearly hear the Korotkoff sounds with the bell of my stethoscope.”

D. “With practice, my measurement of clients’ blood pressures with this method will be more accurate than with automated machines.”

Question 18

A physician is explaining to a 40-year-old male patient the importance of completing his course of antibiotics for the treatment of tuberculosis. The physician explains the damage that could occur to lung tissue by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following phenomena would underlie the physician’s explanation?

Answers:

A. Tissue destruction results from neutrophil deactivation.

B. Macrophages form a capsule around the Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria, resulting in immune granulomas.

C. Neutrophils are ineffective against the Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens.

D. Nonspecific macrophage activity leads to pulmonary tissue destruction and resulting hemoptysis.

Question 19

0 out of 1 points

A student makes the statement to a colleague, “Blood plasma is essentially just a carrier for the formed elements like red blood cells and white blood cells.”What would be the most accurate response to this statement?

Answers:

A. “Not really. Plasma also contributes to the processes of protein synthesis and hematopoiesis.”

B. “Actually, plasma is integral to the proper function of the liver and maintenance of acid–base balance.”

C. “Actually, plasma plays a significant role in nutrient and waste transport.”

D. “That’s not really true. Plasma is crucial in the immune and inflammatory responses.”

Question 20

A number of clients have presented to the emergency department in the last 32 hours with complaints that are preliminarily indicative of myocardial infarction. Which of the following clients is least likely to have an ST-segment myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

Answers:

A. A 70-year-old woman who is complaining of shortness of breath and vague chest discomfort

B. A 66-year-old man who has presented with fatigue, nausea and vomiting, and cool, moist skin

C. A 71-year-old man who has moist skin, fever, and chest pain that is excruciating when he moves but relieved when at rest

D. A 43-year-old man who woke up with substernal pain that is radiating to his neck and jaw

Question 21

In which of the following situations would blood most likely rapidly relocate from central circulation to the lower extremities?

Answers:

A. A client does isotonic exercises in a wheelchair.

B. A client reclines from a sitting to supine position.

C. A client is helped out of bed and stands up.

D. A client undergoes a stress test on a treadmill.

Question 22

When talking about the various types of granulocytes, which granule contains heparin, an anticoagulant?

Answers:

A. Lymphocytes

B. Neutrophils

C. Eosinophils

D. Basophils

Question 23

A nurse is providing care for a 44-year-old male client who is admitted with a diagnosis of fever of unknown origin (FUO). Which of the following characteristics of the client’s history is most likely to have a bearing on his current diagnosis?

Answers:

A. The client is cachexic and an African American.

B. The client is malnourished, hypomagnesemic, and hypocalcemic.

C. The client is HIV positive and homeless.

D. The client is receiving intravenous normal saline with 20 mEq KCl.

Question 24

As part of a screening program for prostate cancer, men at a senior citizens’ center are having their blood levels of prostate-specific antigen (PSA) measured.Which of the following statements would best characterize a high positive predictive value but a low negative predictive value for this screening test? FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers.

Answers:

A. All of the men who had low PSA levels were cancer-free; several men who had high levels also remained free of prostate cancer.

B.Men who had low PSA levels also displayed false-positive results for prostate cancer; men with high levels were often falsely diagnosed with prostate cancer.

C. The test displayed low sensitivity but high specificity.

D. All of the men who had high PSA levels developed prostate cancer; several men who had low PSA levels also developed prostate cancer.

Question 25

When looking at a granulocyte under a microscope, the anatomy student would describe it as a cell

Answers:

A. having a kidney-shaped nucleus.

B. having no nuclei.

C. lacking granules.

D. shaped like a sphere with multilobar nuclei.

Question 26

The cardiologist just informed a patient that he has a reentry circuit in the electrical conduction system in his heart. This arrhythmia is called Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. After the physician has left the room, the patient asks the nurse to explain this to him. Which of the following statements most accurately describes what is happening?

Answers:

A. “You must have a large clot in one of your arteries that supply oxygenated blood to the special conduction cells in your heart.”

B.“There is an extra, abnormal electrical pathway in the heart that leads to impulses traveling around the heart very quickly, in a circular pattern, causing the heart to beat too fast.”

C. “This means that the SA node (which is the beginning of your heart’s electrical system) has been damaged and is no longer functioning normal.”

D. “For some reason, your electrical system is not on full charge, so they will have to put in new leads and a pacemaker to make it work better.”

Question 27

In the ED, a homeless patient is brought in with severe hypothermia. The police officers also state that they found a “bottle of booze” on the sidewalk next to him. This puts the nurse on high alert since alcohol contributes to hypothermia by

Answers:

A. causing the person to have less fat on his body.

B. interfering with the appetite center in the brain causing the person to not respond to hunger pains.

C. increasing his basal metabolic rate, so he will run out of ATP faster than expected.

D. dulling the mental awareness that impairs judgment to seek shelter.

Question 28

Which of the following glycoproteins is responsible for treating such diseases as bone marrow failure following chemotherapy and hematopoietic neoplasms such as leukemia?

Answers:

A. Growth factors and cytokines

B. Natural killer cells and granulocytes

C. Neutrophils and eosinophils

D. T lymphocytes and natural killer cells

Question 29

A professor is teaching a group of students about the role of mitochondria within the cell. Which of the following statements is true of mitochondria?

Answers:

A. They are the site of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

B. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited patrilineally.

C. The number of mitochondria in a cell is equal to the number of nuclei.

D. They are replicated within the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 30

A nurse practitioner is providing care for a client with low levels of the plasma protein gamma globulin. The nurse would recognize that the client is at risk of developing which of the following health problems?

Answers:

A. Infections

B. Jaundice

C. Blood clots

D. Anemia

Question 31

A 63-year-old woman has begun a diet that purports to minimize the quantity and effects of free radicals in her body. What physiological processes could best underlie her care provider’s teaching about her new diet?

Answers:

A. Free radicals increase cytokine expression and adhesion molecule levels, resulting in increased inflammation.

B. Free radicals contribute to atherosclerosis and decreased immune response.

C. Free radicals act as direct mediators in the inflammatory process.

D. Free radicals inhibit the inflammatory response, limiting preadaptive response to infection.

Question 32

A male client of a nurse practitioner has an autosomal dominant disorder. The client and his partner are considering starting a family. Which of the following statements indicates the client has an adequate understanding of the genetic basis of this health problem?

Answers:

A. “I know that a single mutant allele is to blame for the health problem.”

B. “I know that new genetic mutations won’t occur between generations.”

C. “I know there’s no way of accurately determining the chance that my child will inherit the disease.”

D. “My children who don’t have the disease still run the risk of passing it on to their children.”

Question 33

In which of the following hospital patients would the care team most realistically anticipate finding normal cholesterol levels?

Answers:

A. A 44-year-old male admitted for hyperglycemia and with a history of diabetic neuropathy

B. A 51-year-old male with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic stroke and consequent unilateral weakness

C. A 77-year-old female admitted for rheumatoid arthritis exacerbation who is receiving hormone replacement therapy and with a history of hypothyroidism

D. A morbidly obese 50-year-old female who is taking diuretics and a beta-blocker to treat her hypertension

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Question 34

As of November 1, 2012, there were a total of 10 confirmed cases of Hantavirus infection in people who were recent visitors (mid-June to end of August, 2012) to Yosemite National Park. Three visitors with confirmed cases died. Health officials believe that 9 out of the 10 people with Hantavirus were exposed while staying in Curry Village in the Signature Tent Cabins. This is an example of

Answers:

A. the low rate of morbidity one can expect while traveling to Yosemite National Park.

B. the prevalence of Hantavirus one can anticipate if he or she is going to vacation in Yosemite National Park.

C. what the anticipated mortality rate would be if a family of five were planning to vacation in Yosemite National Park.

D. the incidence of people who are at risk for developing Hantavirus while staying in Yosemite National Park.

Question 35

A 1-year-old child who has experienced low platelet counts and bacterial susceptibility has been admitted to a pediatric medical unit of a hospital for treatment of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. The nurse who has admitted the child to the unit would anticipate which of the following short-term and longer-term treatment plans?

Answers:

A. Neutropenic precautions; fresh frozen plasma transfusions; treatment of gastrointestinal symptoms

B. Transfusion of clotting factors XII and XIII and serum albumin; splenectomy

C. Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) treatment; thyroidectomy

D. Treatment of eczema; management of bleeding; bone marrow transplant

Question 36

A 60-year-old woman is suspected of having non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL). Which of the following aspects of her condition would help to rule out Hodgkin lymphoma?

Answers:

A. The lymph nodes involved are located in a large number of locations in the lymphatic system.

B. The woman complains of recent debilitating fatigue.

C. Her neoplasm originates in secondary lymphoid structures.

D. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells has been confirmed.

Question 37

An 81-year-old female client of a long-term care facility has a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse practitioner caring for the client has positioned her sitting up at an angle in bed and is observing her jugular venous distention. Why is jugular venous distention a useful indicator for the assessment of the client’s condition?

Answers:

A. Peripheral dilation is associated with decreased stroke volume and ejection fraction.

B. Increased cardiac demand causes engorgement of systemic blood vessels, of which the jugular vein is one of the largest.

C. Blood backs up into the jugular vein because there are no valves at the point of entry into the heart.

D. Heart valves are not capable of preventing backflow in cases of atrial congestion.

Question 38

A nurse who works on a pediatric cardiology unit of a hospital is providing care for an infant with a diagnosis of tetralogy of Fallot. Which of the following pathophysiologic results should the nurse anticipate? FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers.

Answers:

A. Blood outflow into the pulmonary circulation is restricted by pulmonic valve stenosis.

B. There is a break in the normal wall between the right and left atria that results in compromised oxygenation.

C. The aortic valve is stenotic, resulting in increased afterload.

D. The right ventricle is atrophic as a consequence of impaired myocardial blood supply.

Question 39

Which of the following hypertensive individuals is most likely to have his or her high blood pressure diagnosed as secondary rather than essential?

Answers:

A. A 40-year-old smoker who eats excessive amounts of salt and saturated fats

B. A 69-year-old woman with a diagnosis of cardiometabolic syndrome

C. An African American man who leads a sedentary lifestyle

D. A 51-year-old male who has been diagnosed with glomerulonephritis

Question 40

A 72-year-old female has been told by her physician that she has a new heart murmur that requires her to go visit a cardiologist. Upon examination, the cardiologist informs the patient that she has aortic stenosis. After the cardiologist has left the room, the patient asks, “What caused this [aortic stenosis] to happen now?” The clinic nurse responds,

Answers:

A.“Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in elderly patients.Basically, there is a blockage in the valve that is causing blood to pool, causing decreased velocity of flow.”

B.“Because of the high amount of energy it takes to push blood through the aortic valve to the body, your valve is just had to work too hard and it is weakening.”

C.“This is caused by a tear in one of the papillary muscles attached to the valve. They can do a procedure where they thread a catheter into the heart and reattach the muscle ends.”

D. “Heart murmurs result from tumultuous flow through a diseased heart valve that is too narrow and stiff. This flow causes a vibration called a murmur.”

Question 41

Which of the following patients is most likely to have impairments to the wound-healing process? A patient with

Answers:

A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

B. congenital heart defects and anemia.

C. poorly controlled blood sugars with small blood vessel disease.

D. a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis and consequent impaired mobility.

Question 42

The geriatrician providing care for a 74-year-old man with diagnosis of Parkinson disease has recently changed the client’s medication regimen. What is the most likely focus of the pharmacologic treatment of the man’s health problem?

Answers:

A. Increasing the functional ability of the underactive dopaminergic system

B. Maximizing acetylcholine release from synaptic vesicles at neuromuscular junctions

C. Preventing axonal degradation of motor neurons

D. Preventing demyelination of the efferent cerebellar pathways

Question 43

A 4-year-old boy presents with a chronic cough and swollen lymph nodes. His records show that he has been given antibiotics several times in the past year with limited success, most recently for a liver abscess, and that he also has a recurring fungal skin condition. Which of the following is his most likely diagnosis?

Answers:

A. Selective IgA deficiency

B. Ataxia–telangiectasia

C. A deficiency in IgG2 subclass antibodies

D. Chronic granulomatous disease

Question 44

A nurse is teaching a client with a recent diagnosis of diabetes about the roles that glucose and insulin play in the disease pathology and the fact that glucose must enter the body cell in order to provide energy for the client. The nurse knows that which of the following processes allows glucose to enter body cells?

Answers:

A. Active transport

B. Diffusion

C. Osmosis

D. Facilitated diffusion

Question 45

Two health care workers are comparing the etiology and incidence of multifactorial inheritance disorders and single-gene disorders. Which of the following statements best captures the relationship between the two types of genetic disorders?

Answers:

A. “A couple with a child with a multifactorial disorder has a higher risk of having another with the same disorder.”

B. “Multifactorial disorders are more likely to involve multiple organs.”

C. “Multifactorial disorders and single-gene disorders can both be predicted quite accurately.”

D. “Multifactorial disorders manifest themselves at birth.”

Question 46

A 44-year-old female who is on her feet for the duration of her entire work week has developed varicose veins in her legs. What teaching point would her care provider be most justified in emphasizing to the woman?

Answers:

A. “Your varicose veins are likely a consequence of an existing cardiac problem.”

B. “Once you have varicose veins, there’s little that can be done to reverse them.”

C. “The use of blood thinner medications will likely relieve the backflow that is causing your varicose veins.”

D. “If you’re able to stay off your feet and wear tight stockings, normal vein tone can be reestablished.”

Question 47

At 4 AM, the hemodynamic monitor for a critically ill client in the intensive care unit indicates that the client’s mean arterial pressure is at the low end of the normal range; at 6 AM, the client’s MAP has fallen definitively below normal. The client is at risk for

Answers:

A. left ventricular hypertrophy.

B. pulmonary hypertension.

C. organ damage and hypovolemic shock.

D. orthostatic hypotension.

Question 48

A baseball player was hit in the head with a bat during practice. In the emergency department, the physician tells the family that he has a “coup”injury. How will the nurse explain this to the family so they can understand?

Answers:

A. “It’s like squeezing an orange so tight that the juice runs out of the top.”

B. “Your son has a huge laceration inside his brain where the bat hit his skull.”

C. “Your son has a contusion of the brain at the site where the bat hit his head.”

D. “When the bat hit his head, his neck jerked backward causing injury to the spine.”

Question 49

Which of the following individuals is likely to have the best prognosis for recovery from his or her insult to the peripheral nervous system? An adult

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Answers:

A. who had nerves transected during surgery to remove a tumor from the mandible.

B. who developed rhabdomyolysis and ischemic injury after a tourniquet application.

C. who suffered a bone-depth laceration to the shoulder during a knife attack.

D. who had his forearm partially crushed by gears during an industrial accident.

Question 50

A woman gives birth to a small infant with a malformed skull. The infant grows abnormally slowly and shows signs of substantial cognitive and intellectual deficits. The child also has facial abnormalities that become more striking as it develops. What might you expect to find in the mother’s pregnancy history?

Answers:

A. Active herpes simplex infection

B. Chronic alcohol use

C. Chronic cocaine use

D. Folic acid deficiency

Question 51

A teenager, exposed to West Nile virus a few weeks ago while camping with friends, is admitted with headache, fever, and nuchal rigidity. The teenager is also displaying some lethargy and disorientation. The nurse knows which of the following medical diagnoses listed below may be associated with these clinical manifestations?

Answers:

A. Spinal infection

B. Encephalitis

C. Lyme disease

D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Question 52

The homecare nurse is making a home visit to a 51-year-old female client with a long-standing diagnosis of multiple sclerosis. The nurse knows that the muscle wasting and weakness associated with the disease process are ultimately manifested as a failure of what normal process in muscle tissue?

Answers:

A. The contraction of fascicles within myofibrils

B. The contraction of the epimysium

C. The surrounding of fascicles by perimysium

D. Thick myosin and thin actin filaments sliding over each other

Question 53

A 24-year-old woman presents with fever and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Her blood work indicates neutrophilia with a shift to the left. She most likely has

Answers:

A. a mild viral infection.

B. a severe fungal infection.

C. a mild parasitic infection.

D. a severe bacterial infection.

Question 54

The nurse knows that which of the following treatment plans listed below is most likely to be prescribed after a computed tomography (CT) scan of the head reveals a new-onset aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Answers:

A. Monitoring in the ICU for signs and symptoms of cerebral insult

B. Stat administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

C. Administration of a diuretic such as mannitol to reduce cerebral edema and ICP

D. Craniotomy and clipping of the affected vessel

Question 55

A 40-year-old woman who experiences severe seasonal allergies has been referred by her family physician to an allergist for weekly allergy injections. The woman is confused as to why repeated exposure to substances that set off her allergies would ultimately benefit her. Which of the following phenomena best captures the rationale for allergy desensitization therapy?

Answers:

A. Injections of allergens simulate production of IgG, combining with the antigens to prevent activation of IgE antibodies.

B. Repeated exposure stimulates adrenal production of epinephrine, mitigating the allergic response.

C. Allergens in large, regular quantities overwhelm the IgE antibodies that mediate the allergic response.

D. Repeated exposure to offending allergens binds the basophils and mast cells that mediate the allergic response.

Question 56

Two nursing students are attempting to differentiate between the presentations of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Which of the students’ following statements best captures an aspect of the two health problems?

Answers:

A. “Both diseases can result from inadequate production of thrombopoietin by megakaryocytes.”

B. “Both of them involve low platelet counts, but in TTP, there can be more, not less, hemostasis.

C. “TTP can be treated with plasmapheresis, but ITP is best addressed with transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.”

D. “ITP can be either inherited or acquired, and if it’s acquired, it involves an enzyme deficiency.”

Question 57

A 37-year-old male with HIV who has recently become symptomatic has begun highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Among the numerous medications that the man now regularly takes are several that inhibit the change of HIV RNA to DNA in a CD4+ cell. Which of the following classes of medications addresses this component of the HIV replication cycle?

Answers:

A. Protease inhibitors

B. Entry inhibitors

C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

D. Integrase inhibitors

Question 58

A male international business traveler has returned from a trip to Indonesia. While there, he hired a prostitute for companionship and engaged in unprotected sex on more than one occasion. Unbeknownst to him, this prostitute harbored the hepatitis C virus. Upon return to the United States, he exhibited no symptoms and returned to his usual activities. During this period of no outward symptoms, the man would be classified as being in

Answers:

A. the clinical disease stage of hepatitis C.

B. the preclinical stage of disease.

C. the chronic phase of hepatitis C.

D. remission and unlikely to develop hepatitis C.

Question 59

A group of nursing students were studying for their pathophysiology exam by quizzing each other about disorders of WBCs and lymphoid tissue. When asked what the first chromosomal abnormality that identified cancer was, one student correctly answered

Answers:

A. Philadelphia.

B. interleukin cells.

C. BRCA-1.

D. PSA.

Question 60

A school nurse is teaching high school students about HIV and AIDS in the context of the school’s sexual health curriculum. Which of the students’ following statements would the nurse most likely want to correct or clarify?

Answers:

A. “Lots more heterosexual people get HIV these days than they used to.”

B. “Drugs for AIDS reduce the virus in your body, but they don’t get rid of it.”

C. “They have to take a blood sample from you in order to test you for AIDS.”

D. “Condoms provide really good protection from AIDS.”

Question 61

A nurse on a neurology unit is assessing a female brain-injured client. The client is unresponsive to speech, and her pupils are dilated and do not react to light.She is breathing regularly, but her respiratory rate is 45 breaths/minute. In response to a noxious stimulus, her arms and legs extend rigidly. What is her level of impairment?

Answers:

A. Delirium

B. Coma

C. Vegetative state

D. Brain death

Question 62

Following a motor vehicle accident 3 months prior, a 20-year-old female who has been in a coma since her accident has now had her condition declared a persistent vegetative state. How can her care providers most accurately explain an aspect of her situation to her parents?

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Answers:

A. “Your daughter has lost all her cognitive functions as well as all her basic reflexes.”

B. “Your daughter’s condition is an unfortunate combination with total loss of consciousness but continuation of all other normal brain functions.”

C. “Though she still goes through a cycle of sleeping and waking, her condition is unlikely to change.”

D. “If you or the care team notices any spontaneous eye opening, then we will change our treatment plan.”

Question 63

Which of the following patients would be considered to be in the latent period of HIV infection?

Answers:

A. A 33-year-old heroin drug abuser who has numerous enlarged lymph nodes in his axilla and cervical neck region for the past 4 months

B. A 24-year-old college student who has developed a chronic cough that will not go away, even after taking two courses of antibiotics.

C. A 45-year-old alcohol abuser who is complaining of excessive vomiting of blood that started 2 weeks ago

D. A 16-year-old prostitute who has open sores on her labia that drain purulent secretions

Question 64

When discussing the sequence of clot dissolution, the science instructor will talk about which item that begins the process?

Answers:

A. Plasminogen

B. α-plasmin inhibitor

C. Dabigatran

D. Platelets

Question 65

A 30-year-old male’s blood work and biopsies indicate that he has proliferating osteoclasts that are producing large amounts of IgG. What is the man’s most likely diagnosis?

Answers:

A. Multiple myeloma

B. Acute lymphocytic leukemia

C. Hodgkin lymphoma

D. Acute myelogenous leukemia

Question 66

A client with a gastrointestinal bleed secondary to alcohol abuse and a hemoglobin level of 5.8 g/dL has been ordered a transfusion of packed red blood cells. The client possesses type B antibodies but lacks type D antigens on his red cells. Transfusion of which of the following blood types would be least likely to produce a transfusion reaction?

Answers:

A. A+

B. B–

C. A–

D. B+

Question 67

A nurse is providing care for a 17-year-old boy who has experienced recurrent sinus and chest infections throughout his life and presently has enlarged tonsils and lymph nodes. Blood work indicated normal levels of B cells and free immunoglobulins but a lack of differentiation into normal plasma cells. The boy is currently receiving intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) therapy. What is the boy’s most likely diagnosis?

Answers:

A. X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia

B. Transient hypoglobulinemia

C. Common variable immunodeficiency

D. IgG subclass deficiency

Question 68

A patient diagnosed with H pylori asks the nurse, “How an infection can occur in the stomach since it is an acid environment?” The nurse responds,

Answers:

A. “This parasite secretes an enzyme called coagulase, which protects the pathogen from the antibodies.”

B. “H. pylori produces an enzyme called urease that converts gastric juices into ammonia, which neutralizes the acidic stomach environment.”

C. “H. pylori is a virus and is still being researched as to how it is able to survive in the stomach acids.”

D. “We have many infectious agents that can live in an acidic environment with a pH more than 8.0.”

Question 69

The family members of an elderly patient are wondering why his “blood counts” are not rising after his last GI bleed. They state, “He has always bounced back after one of these episodes, but this time it isn’t happening. Do you know why?”The nurse will respond based on which of the following pathophysiological principles?

Answers:

A. “Everything slows down when you get older. You just have to wait and see what happens.”

B. “Due to stress, the red blood cells of older adults are not replaced as promptly as younger people.”

C. “Don’t worry about it. We can always give him more blood.”

D. “The doctor may start looking for another cause of his anemia, maybe cancer of the bone.”

Question 70

A 14-year-old boy is participating in his school’s track meet; the outdoor temperature is 99°F, and a teacher has found the boy sitting restless in the shade and disoriented to time. The teacher notes that the student has dry skin in spite of the high temperature and the fact that he has recently completed a running event. The teacher calls for the school nurse, who will recognize which of the following potential diagnoses and anticipated hospital treatments?

Answers:

A. Heat exhaustion, likely treated with oral rehydration with cool water

B. Heat stroke, likely treated with rehydration by intravenous hypotonic solution

C. Heat stroke, likely treated with submersion in cold water

D. Heat exhaustion, likely treated with rest, shelter from the sun, and salt tablets

Question 71

A 40-year-old male who has been HIV positive for 6 years is experiencing a new increase in his viral load along with a corresponding decrease in his CD4+ count. Which of the following aspects of his immune system is likely to remain most intact?

Answers:

A. Activation of B lymphocytes

B. Phagocytic function of monocytes and macrophages

C. Orchestration of natural killer cells as part of cell-mediated immunity

D. Presentation of major histocompatibility molecules on body cells

Question 72

The nurse practitioner working in an overnight sleep lab is assessing and diagnosing patients with sleep apnea. During this diagnostic procedure, the nurse notes that a patient’s blood pressure is 162/97. The nurse explains this connection to the patient based on which of the following pathophysiological principles?

Answers:

A. When airways are obstructed, the body will retain extracellular fluid so that this fluid can be shifted to intravascular space to increase volume.

B. During apneic periods, the patient experiences hypoxemia that stimulates chemoreceptors to induce vasoconstriction.

C. When the patient starts to snore, his epiglottis is closed over the trachea.

D. When the airway is obstructed, specialized cells located in the back of the throat send signals to the kidney to increase pulse rate.

Question 73

A female dental assistant has developed signs and symptoms of a latex sensitivity and is undergoing allergy testing as well as blood work. Which of the following components of the assistant’s blood work would most likely be the focus of her health care provider’s analysis?

Answers:

A. Analysis of class II MHC antigens

B. Serum IgE immunoassays

C. Serum CD8+ levels

D. Serum B-lymphocyte levels

Question 74

Which of the following clients’ signs and symptoms would allow a clinician to be most justified in ruling out stroke as a cause? An adult

Answers:

A. has vomited and complained of a severe headache.

B. states that his left arm and leg are numb, and gait is consequently unsteady.

C. has had a gradual onset of weakness, headache, and visual disturbances over the last 2 days.

D. has experienced a sudden loss of balance and slurred speech.

Question 75

As part of the diagnostic workup for a male client with a complex history of cardiovascular disease, the care team has identified the need for a record of the electrical activity of his heart, insight into the metabolism of his myocardium, and physical measurements and imaging of his heart. Which of the following series of tests is most likely to provide the needed data for his diagnosis and care?

Answers:

A. Cardiac catheterization, cardiac CT, exercise stress testing

B. Ambulatory ECG, cardiac MRI, echocardiogram

C. Serum creatinine levels, chest auscultation, myocardial perfusion scintigraphy

D. Echocardiogram, PET scan, ECG

Question 76

Which of the following statements best captures an aspect of the process of hematopoiesis?

Answers:

A. Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) produce cytokines that activate progenitor cells.

B. Various subtypes of pluripotent stem cells eventually differentiate into the cellular components of blood.

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

C. Progenitor cells differentiate into precursor cells.

D. Self-replicating precursor cells differentiate into specific CSFs.

Question 77

A 54-year-old man with a long-standing diagnosis of essential hypertension is meeting with his physician. The patient’s physician would anticipate that which of the following phenomena is most likely occurring?

Answers:

A. Epinephrine from his adrenal gland is initiating the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system.

B. Vasopressin is exerting an effect on his chemoreceptors and baroreceptors resulting in vasoconstriction.

C. The patient’s juxtaglomerular cells are releasing aldosterone as a result of sympathetic stimulation.

D. The conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II in his lungs causes increases in blood pressure and sodium reabsorption.

Question 78

A 44-year-old female patient presents to the emergency department with abnormal bleeding and abdominal pain that is later attributed to gallbladder disease.Which of the following diagnoses would the medical team be most justified in suspecting as a cause of the patient’s bleeding?

Answers:

A. Hemophilia B

B. Vitamin K deficiency

C. Idiopathic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

D. Excess calcium

Question 79

Members of an AIDS support group who have more advanced cases are sharing some of their recent health problems with a member who has just been diagnosed. Which of the member’s statements is most accurate?

Answers:

A. “The eradication of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) has helped extend the life expectancy of a lot of persons living with AIDS.”

B. “As people with HIV live longer, most of us are eventually succumbing to the cancers that are associated with HIV.”

C. “One of the scariest things out there now is the huge increase in drug-resistant tuberculosis.”

D. “Those of us with HIV are so much more prone to loss of vision and hearing.”

Question 80

A hospital laboratory technologist is analyzing the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient. Which of the following statements best reflects an aspect of the platelets that would constitute part of the CBC?

Answers:

A. The α-granules of platelets contribute primarily to vasoconstriction.

B. New platelets are released from the bone marrow into circulation.

C. Platelets originate with granulocyte colony–forming units (CFU).

D. The half-life of a platelet is typically around 8 to 12 days.

Question 81

Which of the following patients has an absolute neutrophil count that is critically low and that the standard of care would recommend they be placed on neutropenic precautions?

Answers:

A. A 75-year-old renal failure patient receiving Epogen for anemia with hemoglobin level of 9.7.

B. A 37-year-old patient with leukemia being treated with chemotherapy with ANC of 400

C. A patient on long-term steroids for rheumatoid arthritis with WBC of 7000

D. A 65-year-old prostate cancer patient receiving radiation therapy with neutrophil count of 2000

Question 82

A medical student is working with a 61-year-old male client in the hospital who has presented with a new onset of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following courses of treatment will the student most likely expect the attending physician to initiate?

Answers:

A. Diuretics, total bed rest, and cardioversion if necessary

B. Anticoagulants and beta-blockers to control rate

C. Immediate cardioversion followed by surgery to correct the atrial defect

D. Antihypertensives and constant cardiac monitoring in a high acuity unit

Question 83

A physiotherapist is measuring the lying, sitting, and standing blood pressure of a patient who has been admitted to hospital following a syncopal episode and recent falls. Which of the following facts about the patient best relates to these health problems?

Answers:

A. The patient has a history of acute and chronic renal failure.

B. The patient’s cardiac ejection fraction was 40% during his last echocardiogram.

C. The patient is male and has a history of hypertension.

D. The client is 89 years old and takes a diuretic medication for his congestive heart failure.

Question 84

Which of the following procedures reduces the potential for infection primarily by addressing the portal of entry?

Answers:

A. Wearing gloves when contact with blood or body fluids is anticipated

B. Wiping down common areas with buffered bleach on a regular basis

C. Isolating patients who have antibiotic-resistant infections

D. Disposing of soiled clothing and bed linens in a dedicated receptacle

Question 85

0 out of 1 points

A 70-year-old woman with ongoing severe atrial fibrillation is scheduled for defibrillation. What is an aspect of the rationale and physiology of defibrillation treatment?

Answers:

A. Defibrillation can be achieved using either a transcutaneous or transvenous pacemaker.

B. Interruption of disorganized impulses by the current allows the AV node to readopt its normal pacemaker role.

C. Defibrillation must be coincided with the R wave of the ECG in order to be successful.

D. The goal is to depolarize the entire heart during the passage of current.

Question 86

In the ICU, the nurse hears an emergency cardiac monitor go off. The nurse looks at the telemetry and notices the patient has gone into ventricular tachycardia.The nurse will likely assess for signs/symptoms of

Answers:

A. increasing cardiac index by correlating the volume of blood pumped by the heart with an individual’s body surface area.

B. decreasing cardiac output due to less ventricular filling time.

C. development of hypertension with BP 190/98.

D. oxygen deprivation with O2 saturation decreasing to approximately 90%.

Question 87

An agricultural worker is picking fruit on a day when the air temperature is 106°F. Which of the following processes will most likely be occurring while he works?

Answers:

A. Conduction of heat from the air will be heating his skin surface and raising his core temperature.

B. His autonomic nervous system will be stimulating him to sweat.

C. Blood volume at his skin surface will be increasing to dissipate heat.

D. Radiation from his skin surfaces will be dissipating heat into the environment.

Question 88

A 22-year-old female college student is shocked to receive a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What are the etiology and most likely treatment for her health problem?

Answers:

A. A decline in functioning acetylcholine receptors; treatment with corticosteroids and intravenous immunoglobulins

B. Cerebellar lesions; surgical and immunosuppressive treatment

C. Excess acetylcholinesterase production; treatment with thymectomy

D. Autoimmune destruction of skeletal muscle cells; treatment with intensive physical therapy and anabolic steroids

Question 89

A student asks the instructor about the origins of different tissues and their cellular origins during the process of development. Which of the instructor’s following statements best describes the process of cell differentiation?

Answers:

A. “A fertilized ovum undergoes a series of divisions, yielding many different cell types.”

B. “A single stem cell differentiates into approximately 200 different types of cells.”

C. “Cells differentiate into necessary body cells peaking after conception and ceasing near the time of birth.”

D. “Cells of the hematopoietic system produce the appropriate body cells that are required at each stage of development.”

Question 90

A physician is providing care for several patients on a medical unit of a hospital. In which of the following patient situations would the physician most likelyrule out hypertension as a contributing factor?

Answers:

A. A 66-year-old woman with poorly controlled angina and consequent limited activity tolerance

B. A 61-year-old man who has a heart valve infection and recurrent fever

C. An 81-year-old woman who has had an ischemic stroke and has consequent one-sided weakness

D. A 44-year-old man awaiting a kidney transplant who requires hemodialysis three times per week

Question 91

A geriatric clinical nurse educator is teaching the other members of the health care team about the incidence, prevalence, and course of depression among older adults. Which of the following statements is most likely to appear in the physician’s teaching?

Answers:

A. “Bronchodilators and antiplatelet medications have been correlated with depression in the elderly.”

B. “Many older adults lack the symptoms of sleep disturbances and lack of concentration that suggest depression in younger adults.”

C. “Even though suicide rates are lower among older adults than younger adults, depression needs to be diagnosed and treated early.”

D. “Though they are certainly not synonymous, depression can be an indicator of dementia.”

Question 92

The nurse working in the ICU knows that chronic elevation of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure will result in the patient displaying which of the following clinical manifestations? FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

Answers:

A. Petechia and spontaneous bleeding

B. Dyspnea and crackles in bilateral lung bases

C. Muscle cramping and cyanosis in the feet

D. Chest pain and intermittent ventricular tachycardia

Question 93

A 51-year-old patient with a history of alcohol abuse and liver disease has low serum levels of albumin and presents with ascites (excess fluid in his peritoneal space) and jaundice. A health care professional would recognize that which of the following processes is most likely underlying his health problems?

Answers:

A. Insufficient albumin is causing insufficient absorption of fluid into the capillaries.

B. Low albumin contributing to an inability to counter gravitational effects.

C. Low albumin is contributing to excess hydrostatic pressure and inappropriate fluid distribution.

D. Low albumin is inducing hypertension and increased filtration of fluid into interstitial spaces.

Question 94

A community health nurse is teaching a group of recent graduates about the large variety of factors that influence an individual’s health or lack thereof. The nurse is referring to the Healthy People 2020 report from the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services as a teaching example. Of the following aspects discussed, which would be considered a determinant of health that is outside the focus of this report?

Answers:

A.The client has a diverse background by being of Asian and Native American descent and practices various alternative therapies to minimize effects of stress.

B. The client has a family history of cardiovascular disease related to hypercholesterolemia and remains noncompliant with the treatment regime.

C. The client lives in an affluent, clean, suburban community with access to many health care facilities.

D. The client has a good career with exceptional preventative health care benefits.

Question 95

The clinical educator of a hospital medical unit has the mandate of establishing evidence-based practice guidelines for the nursing care on the unit. Which of the following statements most accurately captures a guiding principle of the nurse’s task?

Answers:

A. Evidence-based practice guidelines will be rooted in research rather than nurses’ subjective practice preferences and experiences.

B. Guidelines are synonymous with systematic research reviews.

C. The need for continuity and standardization of guidelines will mean that they will be fixed rather than changeable.

D. The guidelines will combine individual expertise with external systematic evidence.

Question 96

A nurse who provides care in a geriatric subacute medicine unit of a hospital has noted that a large number of patients receive ?-adrenergic blocking medications such as metoprolol. Which of the following statements best conveys an aspect of the use of beta-blockers?

Answers:

A. They counteract arrhythmias and tachycardias by increasing vagal stimulation.

B. They can be used to treat supraventricular arrhythmias and decrease automaticity by depressing phase 4 of the action potential.

C. They decrease myocardial oxygen demand by blocking the release of intracellular calcium ions.

D. They inhibit the potassium current and repolarization, extending the action potential and refractoriness.

Question 97

Which of the following teaching points would be most appropriate for a group of older adults who are concerned about their cardiac health?

Answers:

A. “The plaque that builds up in your heart vessels obstructs the normal flow of blood and can even break loose and lodge itself in a vessel.”

B. “Infections of any sort are often a signal that plaque disruption is in danger of occurring.”

C. “The impaired function of the lungs that accompanies pneumonia or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a precursor to plaque disruption.”

D. “People with plaque in their arteries experience attacks of blood flow disruption at seemingly random times.”

Question 98

A 40-year-old male client is shocked to receive a diagnosis of mature B-cell lymphoma and is doing research on his diagnosis on the Internet. Which of the following statements that he reads on various Web sites is most reliable?

Answers:

A. “Like most forms of Hodgkin lymphoma, mature B-cell lymphoma often requires radiation treatment.”

B. “Doctors are able to diagnose mature B-cell lymphoma by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.”

C. “The lymph nodes are usually affected, and often the spleen and bone marrow.”

D. “Unlike many other lymphomas, mature B-cell lymphoma is often self-limiting, and treatment is focused on symptoms.”

Question 99

Which of the following processes would most likely be considered an anomaly during the cellular phase of inflammation?

Answers:

A. Platelet aggregation

B. Vasoconstriction

C. Migration of phagocytic white cells

D. Macrophage activity

Question 100

A geriatrician has ordered an echocardiogram and stress test for an 80-year-old male client in an effort to gauge the client’s cardiovascular health status.Which of the following changes would the physician most likely identify as an anomaly that is not an expected age-related change?

Answers:

A. Increased resting, supine heart rate

B. Low maximal heart rate and cardiac output

C. Increased left ventricular wall thickness

D. Delayed left ventricular filling

FNU Pathophysiology Mid term Exam questions and answers

PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

Autistic thinking is the tendency to ______.

see oneself as the center of the universe

engage in abstract thinking patterns that no one else can understand

engage in persistently obsessive thought patterns

see oneself as being “swallowed up” by the universe

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The central feature of a generalized anxiety disorder is ______.

trembling

worry

fear of dying

depression

 

______ are classified as neurodevelopment disorders in the DSM-5.

Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and autism spectrum disorder

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and pica

Pica and separation anxiety disorder

Enuresis and encopresis

 

After witnessing a terrible car accident, John is experiencing so much emotional distress that he is having difficulty taking care of his responsibilities at work. He is most likely experiencing which of the following common features of traumatic stress disorders?

Avoidance behavior

Emotional distress and impaired functioning

Heightened arousal

Emotional numbing

PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

 

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is characterized by excessive anxiety and worry that is _____________.

limited to health and safety concerns

not limited to any one object, situation, or activity

limited to concerns about the well-being of immediate family members

specific to an object or event that the individual has had an aversive experience with

The essential feature of a panic disorder is ______.

constant worry without a known cause

well-defined phobic reactions to specific stimuli

behavior dominated by rituals performed in order to avoid anxiety

occurrences of repeated, unexpected panic attacks

 

A disorder characterized by a generalized delay or impairment in the development of intellectual and adaptive abilities is ______.

intellectual developmental disorder

Asperger’s disorder

childhood schizophrenia

autism

 

______ is the category within the DSM-5 that has many of the psychological disorders affecting children and adolescents.

Major depressive disorder

Separation anxiety disorder

Autism

Neurodevelopment disorders

PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

 

A behavior disorder characterized by impulsivity, excessive motor activity, and inability to focus one’s attention is known as ______.

attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

sensorimotor disorder

oppositional defiant disorder

conduct disorder

 

In the DSM-5, acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder are classified in which of the following categories?

Childhood Disorders

Substance Abuse Disorders

Trauma-and Stressor-Related Disorders

Schizophrenic Disorders

 

Last year, Hannah witnessed an accident where a pedestrian was struck and killed by an automobile. Since the accident, Hannah has experienced anxiety and actively avoids the street where she witnessed the accident.  A clinician might diagnose Hannah as having__________.

an adjustment disorder with anxiety

PTSD

reactive stress disorder

acute stress disorder

 

Which of the following is true of children with autism?

They have distinctive, unusual facial features and have an “intelligent look” about them.

They are often described by their parents as having been difficult babies during early infancy.

They maintain good eye contact but typically are not drawn to social exchanges.

As they develop, they begin to reject affectionate contacts such as hugging, kissing, and cuddling with their parents. PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

 

Todd spends hours checking and rechecking the doors and windows to his house to make sure they are completely locked and secured before he leaves for work in the morning. This is the only way he can prevent himself from being overwhelmed by anxiety and fears he left something unlocked as he drives to the office. Todd is suffering from ______ disorder.

obsessive-compulsive

panic

generalized anxiety

phobic

 

The most common treatment for attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is ______.

behavioral

pharmacological

surgical

psychodynamic

Todd is six years old. His behavior is characterized by inattention, bullying, temper tantrums, stubbornness, and fidgeting. He is easily distracted, fails to finish anything he starts, often acts impulsively, and requires constant supervision. He is constantly on the go, running and climbing on things, and he cannot wait his turn in games or lines. He is suffering from ______ disorder.

conduct

oppositional defiant

attention-deficit/hyperactivity

obsessive-compulsive

 

Robert has had persistent anxiety for about 13 months. He has also suffered from shakiness, feeling “keyed up,” insomnia, irritability, and chronic muscle tension. He is best diagnosed as having a(n) ______ disorder.

obsessive-compulsive

phobic

generalized anxiety

panic

 

The prevalence of autism has been ______ over the past 20 years.

slightly increasing

decreasing

about the same

dramatically increasing

 

EMDR is a technique to treat ______.

generalized anxiety disorder

obsessive-compulsive disorder

PTSD

phobia

 

People with __________ are preoccupied with an imagined or exaggerated physical defect in their appearance.

body dysmorphic disorder

a personality disorder

somatization disorder

an adjustment disorder

 

Dick has episodes of sheer terror when riding on subway trains. He breaks into a cold sweat and often feels like he is having a heart attack. During these attacks he imagines that he is completely losing control of himself. Dick’s disorder is best described as a(n) ______ disorder.

generalized anxiety

obsessive-compulsive

posttraumatic stress

panic

 

Chad is on the dean’s list in college and he is also one of the best athletes on the football team. Despite his successes, Chad worries about his grades and finds his mind going blank at times. He is also beginning to have difficulty falling asleep. Most likely, Chad has ______.

a specific phobia

a generalized anxiety disorder

social anxiety disorder

a panic disorder

 

There is an increased probability of autism occurring with _____.

younger fathers

younger mothers

older mothers

older fathers

 

In the previous version of the DSM, ___________ were used to describe distinct disorders within the autism spectrum.

Asperger’s disorder and Tourette’s syndrome

Asperger’s disorder and childhood disintegrative disorder

childhood disintegrative disorder and Tourette’s syndrome

Tourette’s syndrome and Rett’s disorder

PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

Adjustment disorders are classified in the DSM-5 within a category of ____________.

Schizophrenic Disorders

Trauma and Stressor-Related Disorders

Anxiety Disorders

Childhood Disorders

Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz

An excessive, irrational fear of being in public without the availability of escape or help is ______.

acrophobia

claustrophobia

agoraphobia

panic disorder

 

Individuals suffering from Acute Stress Disorder may feel ______________.

angry and betrayed by the world

“in a daze” or feel that the world seems like a dreamlike or unreal place.

as though they are experiencing a heart attack

unaware of their internal emotions

 

A condition caused by the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair and characterized by intellectual developmental disorder and various physical anomalies is ______.

Klinefelter’s syndrome

Turner’s syndrome

Fragile X syndrome

Down syndrome

 

In PTSD, the loss of the ability to have loving feelings is which of the following common features of traumatic stress disorders?

Emotional numbing

Heightened arousal

Emotional distress and impaired functioning

Avoidance behavior

 

Ron is an Iraq War veteran. He wakes up in the middle of the night in a cold sweat due to nightmares in which he relives his most frightening war experiences. He refuses to talk about the war with anyone and is constantly fidgety and “on edge.” He is unable to enjoy himself or develop intimate relationships. His symptoms have continued for over three years. He is best diagnosed as suffering from a(n) ______ disorder.

acute stress

posttraumatic stress

adjustment

personality

 

Which of the following is true?

Normally overactive children are goal-directed and can exert voluntary control over their behavior, whereas children with ADHD cannot exert voluntary control over their behaviors.

Children with ADHD exhibit no problems with working memory.

Black and Hispanic children are more likely to receive the diagnosis than Euro-American children.

There is really no qualitative difference between highly active “normal” children and highly active children labeled with ADHD. PSY 275 WEEK 2 Development, Stress, and Anxiety Quiz.

Toulmin Outline: Are Children Overmedicated in ADHD and ADD:

Using the TOULMIN OUTLINE, write a paper that discusses your position on whether or not children are over-medicated in regards to ADD and ADHD.

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Toulmin Outline: Are Children Overmedicated in ADHD and ADD

NB: This is a sample introduction

There exists increased public concern, especially among health research specialists that many American children receive early and often unnecessary exposure to ADD and ADHD medication. The diagnosis discourses of ADD and ADHD are intrinsically problematic, simply because the diagnosis seeks such symptoms as impulsivity, hyperactivity and distractibility, traits that, in children, tend to be consistent with normal developmental behavior. However, upon diagnosis, the implication is always that the child is characteristically impulsive, hyperactive or distractible. That this approach to diagnosing ADD and ADHD in children is flawed relates to the ocean of misdiagnosis reported across the globe, hence the need to determine where to draw the line between medical disorder and developmentally normal behavior. Toulmin Outline: Are Children Overmedicated in ADHD and ADD.

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A study by Visser (2013) established that in 2011, about 11 percent of children aged between 4 and 17 years had received positive diagnosis of ADHD, primarily through parental reporting, most of which were on related ADHD drugs. The study also cites earlier findings that indicate that about 7.5 percent of U.S. children below age 17 are on medication related to emotional or behavioral difficulties with a another study contending that the number of children on psychostimulants has increased five-fold between the periods 1988-1994 and 2007-2010. That these diagnoses and the subsequent administration of ADD and ADHDF related drugs proceed from parental diagnosis as opposed to physician diagnosis is particularly of greater concern. Toulmin Outline: Are Children Overmedicated in ADHD and ADD.

MN553 Practice Quiz Question

Question 1 1 / 1 point

Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:

Question options:

A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity

Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6

The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

Question 2 1 / 1 point

Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:

Question options:

Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely

Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when coadministered

Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure

Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

Question 3 1 / 1 point

Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:

Question options:

Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine

Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine

Decreased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

Increased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

MN553 Practice Quiz Question 4 1 / 1 point

Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

Question options:

Toxic levels of warfarin building up

Decreased response to warfarin

Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

Question 5 1 / 1 point

Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration prior to prescribing:

Question options:

Erythromycin

Digoxin

Cetuximab

Rifampin

Question 6 1 / 1 point

Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:

Question options:

Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 Allele

Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

Question 7 1 / 1 point

A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:

Question options:

Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer

Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia

Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38

Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

Question 8 1 / 1 point

A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately ____ % of patients in the United States are using herbal products.

Question options:

10

5

38

70

Question 9 1 / 1 point

A potential harmful effect on patients who take some herbal medication is:

Question options:

Constipation

Lead poisoning

Diarrhea

Life-threatening rash

MN553 Practice Quiz Question 10 1 / 1 point

A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety. An example is the use of cinnamon to treat type II diabetes. It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains:

Question options:

Coumadin, which may lead to bleeding problems

Coumarin, which can cause liver and kidney damage

Cinnamic aldehyde, which is toxic to the kidney

Cinnamate eugenol, which is toxic to the liver

Question 11 1 / 1 point

Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease. Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe:

Question options:

Herbs which are yang in nature

Herbs that are yin in nature

Ginger

Golden seal

Question 12 1 / 1 point

According to traditional Chinese medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient’s illness will:

Question options:

Get worse

Get better

Not be adequately treated

Need additional herbs to treat the yang

Question 13 1 / 1 point

In Ayurvedic medicine, treatment is based on the patient’s dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person’s:

Question options:

Vata

Pitta

Kapha

Prakriti

Question 14 1 / 1 point

When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is that the patient:

Question options:

Take 10 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

Take 1 to 5 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

Not take melatonin more than three nights a week

Combine melatonin with zolpidem (Ambien) for the greatest impact on sleep

Question 15 1 / 1 point

In the United States, over-the-counter drugs are regulated by:

Question options:

No one. There is no oversight for over-the-counter medications.

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration Center for Drug Evaluation and Research

The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration

MedWatch

Question 16 1 / 1 point

As drugs near the end of their patent, pharmaceutical companies may apply for the drug to change to over-the-counter status in order to:

Question options:

Get a new patent for the over-the-counter form of the drug

Lower the costs because most prescription benefit plans do not cover generics

Market the drug to a whole new population, as they are able to market to patients instead of just providers

Continue to make large profits from their blockbuster brand-name drug

MN553 Practice Quiz Question 17 1 / 1 point

The ailment that generates the greatest over-the-counter annual drug sales is:

Question options:

Constipation

Cough and colds

Heartburn

Acute and chronic pain

Question 18 1 / 1 point

Common over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen:

Question options:

Are always safer for the patient than prescription pain medication

Are harmful if taken in higher than recommended amounts

Have minimal interaction with prescription medications

Should never be given to children unless recommended by their provider

Question 19 1 / 1 point

When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications. He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare ups. This is an example of:

Question options:

His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications

His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you

A common misconception that intermittently taken over-the counter medications are not an important part of his drug history

A common misuse of over-the-counter aspirin

Question 20 1 / 1 point

Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription. You explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must:

Question options:

Be safe and labeled for appropriate use

Have a low potential for abuse or misuse

Be taken for a condition the patient can reliably self-diagnose

All of the above

MN553 Practice Quiz

Natonstate Insurance and RR Communication Case Studies

Below are two case study due by Saturday. I need 2 copies of each case study. It should be done in APA format. I have attached the sample APA format document.

RR Communication Case Study

Read the RR Communications Case Study on pages 156-159 in the textbook. Answer Discussion Questions 1-3 at the end of the Case Study. Your responses must be complete, detailed and in APA format. See the sample assignment for expected format and length. The grading rubric is included below. 4-5 pages

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Textbook:

Read the Nationstate Case Study on pages 160-164 in the textbook. Answer Discussion Questions 1-2 at the end of the Case Study. Your responses must be complete, detailed and in APA format. See the sample assignment for expected format and length. The grading rubric is included below. 4-5 pages

Textbook: Natonstate Insurance and RR Communication Case Studies

Prescriptive and non-prescriptive drug therapies

Discussion: Mr. Smith brings his 4-year-old to your office with chief complaints of right ear pain, sneezing, mild cough, and low-grade fever of 100 degrees for the last 72 hours. Today, the child is alert, cooperative, and well hydrated. You note a mildly erythemic throat with no exudate, both ears mild pink tympanic membrane with good movement, lungs clear. You diagnose an acute upper respiratory infection, probably viral in nature. Mr. Smith is states that the family is planning a trip out of town starting tomorrow and would like an antibiotic just in case.

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Create a communication plan for Mr. Smith and/or families for both prescriptive and non-prescriptive drug therapies. Describe what you would tell Mr. Smith and the child. Provide resources that Mr. Smith could access which would provide information concerning your decision.

This is a full APA paper with citation will upload the grading rubric

prescriptive and non-prescriptive drug therapies