Author: admin

NRS-410V Module  1 Assess Your Knowledge Of Foundational Concepts

Anatomy

Backward effects of left-sided heart failure include:

A.    Pulmonary congestion

B.     Jugular vein distention

C.     Dependent edema in the legs

D.    Bounding pulses

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

Anatomy

In performing a physical assessment, the nurse notes the patient has a “barrel” configuration to the chest. This is a consequence of:

A.    Reduced intrapleural pressures

B.     Bronchial airway expansion

C.     Increased vital capacity

D.    Increased residual lung volume

 

Anatomy

Ausculation of the chest reveals bilateral fine crackles in the bases bilaterally, indicating:

A.    Right-sided heart failure

B.     Left-sided heart failure

C.     Pneumonia

D.    Acute respiratory distress syndrome

 

Biology

The signs and symptoms of anemia are all related to what common pathophysiologic feature of the condition? NRS-410V

A.    Increased oxygen consumption by tissues

B.     Decreased blood oxygen content

C.     Vasodilation

D.    A shift in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

 

Biology

In addition to hypertension, preeclampsia is characterized by:

A.    Nausea and vomiting

B.     Fatigue and lower back pain

C.     Protein in the urine and edema

D.    Retinal changes and rates in the lungs

 

Biology

Common manifestations of bacterial pneumonia include all of the following except:

A.    Fever

B.     Productive Cough

C.     Tachypnea

D.    Hyperinflation

 

Biology

Closed drainage systems work to re-expand a lung after pneumothorax by:

A.    Re-establishing the normal negative intrapleural pressure.

B.     Creating a positive pressure in the pleural space

C.     Removing excess fluid from the pleural space so that there is room for lung expansion.

D.    Pulling oxygen into distal air sacs to re-expand lung tissue

 

Biology

Patients with chronic renal failure usually exhibit:

A.    Bradycardia

B.     Hypokalemia

C.     Hypocalcemia

D.    Hematomas

 

NRS-410V Biology

The diet of a patient in end-stage kidney disease is restricted in all of the following except:

A.    Fluid

B.     Potassium

C.     Protein

D.    Calories

 

Anatomy

Which of the following is true of the biological functions of progesterone?

A.    Progesterone is the most important hormone associated with pregnancy.

B.     Progesterone directs male sexual characteristics.

C.     Levels of progesterone increases if the egg is not fertilized.

D.    Levels of progesterone remain stable if the egg is not fertilized.

 

Anatomy

Which of the following is true of the biological functions of testosterone?

A.    Testosterone is not secreted by the ovaries.

B.     Testosterone is needed for development of female secondary sexual characteristics.

C.     Testosterone stimulates ovulation.

D.    Testosterone is needed for development of male secondary sexual characteristics.

 

Anatomy

Which of the following is true of the biological functions of estrone?

A.    Estrone is required for proper development of male secondary sexual characteristics.

B.     Level of estrogen degreases if the egg is not fertilized.

C.     Estrone is required for proper development of female secondary sexual

characteristics.

D.    Estrone affects only the reproductive organs.

 

Biology

What is the function of hemoglobin?

A.    Hemoglobin is the protein in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.

B.     Hemoglobin is a lipid in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.

C.     Hemoglobin is a protein in white blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen to the cells of the body.

D.    Hemoglobin is a protein in red blood cells that is not responsible for carrying carbon dioxide to the cells of the body.

 

NRS-410V Biology

Why is heat an effective means of sterilization?

 

A.    Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the proteins of microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.

B.     Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the proteins of anaerobic microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.

C.     Heat is an effective means of sterilization because it destroys the lipids of microbial life forms, including fungi, bacteria, and viruses.

D.    Both (B) and (C).

 

Chemistry
:

List the enzymes whose levels are elevated in the blood serum following an MI.

A.    CPK, LDH, AST, and SGOT

B.     LDH, AST, and SGOT

C.     CRE, AST, and ALT

D.    None of the above

 

Chemistry

What is the physiological function of gluconeogenesis?

A.    Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are low. This ensures proper function of brain and red blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.

B.     Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from noncarbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are high. This ensures proper function of brain and white blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.

C.     Gluconeogenesis is production of glucose from carbohydrate molecules in times when blood glucose levels are low. This ensures proper function of brain and red blood cells, which only use glucose as fuel.

D.    None of the above

 

Chemistry

What effect does glycogen metabolism have on glucose levels?

A.    Glycogen metabolism traps glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes decrease blood glucose levels.

B.     Glycogen metabolism traps glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes increase blood glucose levels.

C.     Glycogen metabolism releases glucose within liver cells and increases storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. These processes decrease blood glucose levels.

D.    None of the above

 

NRS-410V Chemistry

Carbon monoxide binds tightly to the heme groups of hemoglobin and myoglobin. How does this affinity reflect the toxicity of carbon monoxide?

A.    Since carbon monoxide binds the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen enhancement result in what divers call the “bends.”

B.     Because carbon monoxide binds the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen deprivation result in suffocation.

C.     Because carbon monoxide binds tightly to the heme groups of hemoglobin, it is not easily removed or replaced by oxygen. As a result, the effects of oxygen deprivation result in suffocation.

D.    None of the above

 

Pathophysiology

Which of the following may be a reason to order an ABG on a patient?

A.    The patient suddenly develops shortness of breath

B.     An asthmatic is starting to show signs of tiring

C.     A diabetic has developed Kussmaul’s respirations

D.    All of the above

 

Pharmacology

How do sulfa drugs selectively kill bacteria while causing no harm to humans?

A.    Folic acid is a vitamin required for the synthesis of a coenzyme needed to make the amino acid methionine and the purine and pyrimidine nitrogenious bases for DNA and RNA and folic acid is produced by humans.

B.     Sulfa drug binds to the enzyme, no product is formed, folic acid is made and the biosynthesis of methionine and nitrogenous bases increases.

C.     Humans are not harmed because they do not synthesize their own folic acid. It is obtained in the diet.

D.    None of the above

 

NRS-410V Pharmacology

What occurs when glycogen metabolism is stimulated by insulin?

A.    Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis.

B.     Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis. It also stimulates removal of glucose from the bloodstream into cells and phosphorylation of glucose by the enzyme glucokinase.

C.     Insulin stimulates glycogen synthase, the first enzyme in glycogen synthesis. It also stimulates uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells and phosphorylation of glucose by the enzyme glucokinase.

D.    All of the above

 

Pharmacology

What is the medical application of cortisone? Cortisone is used to treat:

A.    Rheumatoid arthritis, asthma, gastrointestinal disorders, and a variety of skin conditions.

B.     Kidney disease, high blood pressure, and osteoporosis.

C.     Muscle disorders, tuberculosis, and thyroid disorder.

D.    All of the above

 

Anatomy

Oxygen saturation is likely to be lowest when an asthmatic with a diagnosis of pneumonia is positioned:

A.    In a high Fowler position

B.     Lying on the left side

C.     Lying on the right side

D.    Lying supine with the head of the bed flat

Chemistry

Laboratory test results indicative of thrombocytopenia, in addition to a low platelet count, would be:

A.    Increased PT

B.     Prolonged bleeding time and poor clot retraction.

C.     Increased aPTT

D.    Decreased RBC count.

 

Pharmacology

The purposes of epinephrine injection include all of the following except:

A.    Stabilizing mast cell membranes.

B.     Relaxing bronchial smooth muscle.

C.     Supporting arterial blood pressure.

D.    Blocking histamine receptors.

 

NRS-410V Pharmacology

Therapeutic interventions focused on increasing the oxygen supplied to the heart and decreasing the heart’s demand for oxygen include:

A.    Antiplatelet drugs

B.     Anticoagulants

C.     Morphine sulphate

D.    Thrombolytic drugs

 

Pharmacology

An intervention that would contribute toward the healing of a peptic ulcer is:

A.    Steroid administration

B.     Blocking or neutralizing of acid secretion

C.     Surgical removal of the ulcer

D.    Intravenous nutritional support

 

Pharmacology

Aspirin and NSAIDs are causative factors for the development of peptic ulcer disease because they:

A.    Increase acid secretion

B.     Allow proliferation of H. pylori

C.     Damage the mucosal barrier

D.    Alter platelet aggregation

 

Pharmacology

Your patient is interested in trying medication to improve low mood/depression. All of the following medications might be appropriate except:

A.    Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

B.     Amitriptyline

C.     Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors

 

D.    Benzodiazepines

NRS-410V

Strategic Points Quantitative Study Extraction

In the prospectus, proposal, and dissertation there are 10 strategic points that need to be clear, simple, correct, and aligned to ensure the research is doable, valuable, and credible. These points, which provide a guide or vision for the research, are present in almost any research study. The ability to identify these points is one of the first skills required in the creation of a viable doctoral dissertation. In this assignment, you will identify and evaluate 10 strategic points in a published quantitative research study.

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

General Requirements:

Use the following information to ensure successful completion of the assignment:

Review the Casteel dissertation.

Locate and download “Modified 10 Points Template.”

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

APA style is required for this assignment. Strategic Points Quantitative Study Extraction

You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin.

Directions:

Using the “Modified 10 Points Template,” identify each of the 10 strategic points in this quantitative dissertation.

Complete the “Evaluation” section of the template by addressing the following questions (250-500 words) with regard to the 10 strategic points in the study:

 Discuss the key points in the literature review and how the author used this section to identify the gap or problem addressed in the study.

Describe the variables under study and how they are a key component in this quantitative research study. You are not expected to understand the differences between variables at this point, but should be able to identify how they inform the problem, purpose, research questions and data collection instruments.

Describe the problem and how it informed the research questions under study.

Describe the quantitative design used and why it is appropriate for the identified problem and research questions. Support your response with a peer-reviewed citation from a research source. Strategic Points Quantitative Study Extraction

Assess the appropriateness of the instruments used to collect data and answer the research questions as well as to address the stated problem.

Discuss how the problem statement informed the development of the purpose statement in this study. Strategic Points Quantitative Study Extraction

LINGO software

Premier Consulting’s two consultants, Avery and Baker, can be scheduled to work for clients up to a maximum of 160 hours each over the next four  (4) weeks. A third consultant Campbell has some adminstrative assignments already planned and is availble for clieents up to a maximum of 140 hours over the next four (4) weeks. The company has four (4) clients with projects in process. The estimated hourly requirments for each of the clients over the four-week period as follows:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

CLIENT                         HOURS

A                                      180

B                                      75

C                                      100

D                                      85

Hourly rates vary form the consultant-client combinations and are based on several factors, including project type and consultants” experince. The rates( dollars per hour) for each consultants-client combination are as follows: LINGO software

 

CLIENT

CONSULTANTS                            A              B                    C                   D

AVERY                                        100             125               115              100

BAKER                                         120             135             115               120

CAMPBELL                                  155             150            140               130

 

a) Develop a network representation of the problem.

b) formulate the problem as linear program, with the optimal solution providing the hours each consultant should be scheduled for each client to maximize the consulting firm’s billings. What is the schedule and what is the total billing?

c)New information shows that Avery doesn’t have the experince to be scheduled for client B. If this consultingnassignment is not premitted, what impact does it have on total billings? What is the revised scheduled?

 

To solve problem using LINGO software.

NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

Question 1:
 Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs may be consistent with:

Question 2:
 Which of the following neurological assessment findings indicate the need for further evaluation?

3:
 An example of proximal weakness is:

4: A female patient complains of weakness in her hand when opening a jar. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern?

5: A patient presents with an altered level of consciousness. He/she is considered in a stuporous state if he/she: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY.

6: One way to assess cerebellar function would be to have the patient:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

7: Hypesthesia refers to:

8: When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not considered part of the mental status assessment?

detailed explanations…

9: A mother reports to the nurse practitioner that her teenager might be taking drugs because earlier today the teenager had a mild seizure and now has an unstable gait and is beginning to complain of shortness of breath. These symptoms might be consistent with a possible overdose of:

10: An ischemic stroke is:

11: By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient’s relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as:

Question 12: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that appears drowsy but can open his eyes, respond to questions, then fall back to sleep is ….

Question 13: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates a steady posture?

14: An older adult presenting with signs of undernourishment, slowed motor performance, and loss of muscle mass or weakness suggests: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY.

15: Postural tremors appear when the affected part is:

16: A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify an object by feeling it is:

17: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is noted. This finding could be suggestive of:

18: When observing for thenar atrophy of the hands, a typical observation is:

19: Fasciculations in atrophic muscles suggest:

20: The part of the brain that controls most functions in the body and is responsible for breathing, heart rate, and articulate speech is the:

21: Assessing the neurological status of a child with a ventriculoperitoneal shunt should include:

22: What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains?

23: An abnormal or unpleasant sense of touch is termed:

24: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

25: When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral proximal limb weakness without sensory loss is noted. This finding could be suggestive of:

26: The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is:

27: A 40-year-old male presents with complaints of headaches. History reveals headaches that occurred daily for about 4-6 weeks. He had relief for 6 months but now they are recurring. These are most likely:

28: Which of the following symptoms may be associated with a tumor of the eighth cranial nerve?

29: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is altered, a comatose patient:

30 : A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern? NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

31: Which developmental area is predominantly …..by lead poisoning?

32: A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is …..

33: A patient presents with an altered level of consciousness. He/she is …..in an obtunded state if he/she:

34: With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is noted. This is a positive:

35: Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient?

36: The term used to describe a distortion of any sense, especially that of touch, is:

37: Winging of the scapula can be noted in patients with all of the following conditions except:

38: Resting tremors refer to those tremors that disappear:

39: A patient is instructed to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate:

40: A progressive disorder of the nervous system that affects movement is known as:

41: While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a:

42: When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner uses the tongue blade to gently stimulate the back of the throat on each side. A unilateral absence of the gag reflex is noted. This finding could be suggestive of a unilateral lesion in which cranial nerve?

43: On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are …… These findings are consistent with: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

44: Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with:

45: A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with:

46: Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be:

47: Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in:

48: An example of distal weakness is:

49: A teenager presents with signs of being gleeful, somewhat drowsy, and unable to focus. On examination , B/P 90/65, pupils constricted, and speech slurred. These symptoms are consistent with:

50: An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for:

51: Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include:

52: Assessment findings in an infant with increased intracranial pressure would include:

53: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of:

54: The term used to describe low back pain with nerve pain that radiates down the leg is:

55: A form of aphasia in which the speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious effort and inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, is …..

56: Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

57: Symmetric weakness of the proximal muscles of the legs suggests a:

58: Dysarthria refers to:

59: Walking on the toes and heels may reveal:

60: When upper motor neuron systems are damaged above the crossover of its tracts in the medulla, motor impairment develops on the opposite side. This term is:

61: An infant with fetal alcohol syndrome would:

62: Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of:

63: An example of symmetric weakness is:

64: Anesthesia refers to:

65: When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the:

66: An indication that there is a malfunction of a ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt in an older child would be the presence of a:

67: When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

68: While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve? NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

69: The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that arouses from sleep only after painful stimuli is ……

70: When evaluating the sensory system, testing the spinothalamic tracts would include assessing sensations of:

71: Hypalgesia refers to:

72: Which choice is least likely to be an example of asymmetric weakness?

73: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates head movements?

74: When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of : nr 509 apea exam

75: A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is:

76: The principal muscles ……when closing the mouth are …..by which Cranial nerve?

77: The best method of detecting cognitive impairment or mental retardation at an early age is by:

78: When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is ….., a lethargic patient: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

79: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the ankle, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right ankle. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

80: The term used to describe the absence or loss of control of voluntary muscle movements is:

81: With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was ….. This is a positive:

82: The part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates muscle movement and response to the sensations of pain and touch is the:

83: The part of the brain that coordinates all movement and helps maintain the body upright in space is the: nr 509 apea exam

84: The part of the brain tissue that consists of neuronal axons that are …..with myelin is the:

85: A patient complains of experiencing symptoms of nausea, diaphoresis, and pallor triggered by a fearful or unpleasant event. These symptoms are most likely …..

86: The patient has his eyes ….and an area on his right leg is briefly …..by the nurse practitioner. The patient is i…..to open his eyes and point to the area that was …… This is an example of the discriminative sensation …….:

87: Hyperesthesia refers to:

88: A patient who is being …..for frequent headaches, mentions that the headache worsens with coughing, sneezing, or when changing positions. Increasing pain with these maneuvers may be suggestive of:

89: The term used to describe an abnormal tremor consisting of involuntary jerking movements, especially in the hands is: nr 509 apea exam

90: Which one of the following assesses pain, temperature, and sensation using the distal and proximal areas testing pattern?

91: The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the:

92: An example of tandem walking is having the patient:

93: The central nervous system extends from the medulla into the:

94: A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves: NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

95: When assessing the patient’s sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is:

96: When evaluating the six cardinal directions of gaze, a loss of conjugate movements is ….when the patient looks to his left. This finding could be consistent with damage to which cranial nerve?

97: Dysarthria refers to:

98: Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the:

99: Unilateral weakness in cranial nerve V (CN V) would be suggestive of a: nr 509 apea exam

100: The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is:

101: The principal muscles ….when closing the mouth are …..by which Cranial nerve?

102: Intention tremors appear with movement and:

103: When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates a steady posture?

104: Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs may be consistent with:  nr 509 apea exam

105: A patient experiences difficulty rising from a sitting position without arm support. This would be suggestive of:

106: Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following?

107: A teenager is being ….for possible acute marijuana usage and appears intoxicated. Findings consistent with marijuana intoxication could include:

108: When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the triceps, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right triceps. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

109: The central nervous system extends from the medulla into the: nr 509 apea exam

110: Which nerve runs from the spine through the neck, the axilla, and into the arm? NR 509 APEA EXAM – NEUROLOGY

NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

A 3 year-old presents with a history of fever and cough over the past 24 hours. Findings on exam reveal: temperature of 102°F, apical heart rate of 157 beats/minute, and respiratory rate of 40 breaths/minute. Tachypnea in this child is most likely related to

When percussing the lower posterior chest, begin by:

The palpation technique used to assess respiratory expansion of the chest is placing the hands on the eight or tenth ribs posteriorly with the thumbs close to the vertebrae, sliding the hand medially and grasping a small fold of skin between the thumbs. Then:

When trying to differentiate between hemoptysis or blood streaked material, which one of the following observations is correct?

When percussing the chest in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the sound emanated would be:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

The line that extends through the inferior angle of the scapula when the arms are at the sides of the body is the: NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

A condition associated with a chronic cough that produces copious amounts of purulent sputum is most likely:

A patient who walked into the examination room, may be observed to be sitting and leaning forward in his chair. Lips were pursed during exhalation and arms are supported on the table. This position could be consistent with patients who have:

Breath sounds heard over the periphery of the lung fields are:

When percussing the posterior chest, which one of the following techniques would be omitted?

When auscultating breath sounds in a patient who has left sided heart failure, the breath sounds are:

Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory phase and a shortened and softer expiratory phase normally audible over the hilar region of the chest are termed:

An acute viral illness that presents with a burning retrosternal discomfort and a dry cough is suggestive of: NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

One of the anterior thoracic landmarks is the costal angle. It is located nr 509 week 8 apea 3p exam

Atypical respiratory symptoms associated with gastroesophageal disease (GERD) may include all of the following except:

On auscultation of the chest, if the patient says “ninety-nine” and it is clearly heard, this is indicative of:

Respiratory effort in the neonate is …..at birth as a result of:

Adventitious breath sounds, such as crackles, are:

Breath sounds heard on chest over the hilar region are nr 509 week 8 apea 3p exam

Breath sounds consisting of a full inspiratory and expiratory phase with the inspiratory phase usually being louder and normally heard over the trachea and larynx are……..

Pain from pleurisy may be refer to the:

When performing a respiratory assessment on a 4-year-old child, further evaluation is ……..in the presence of:

Which technique best determines whether the tissues in the chest are …….or solid?

Breath sounds ……over the periphery of the lung fields are quiet and wispy during the inspiratory phase …..by a short, almost silent expiratory phase. These breath sounds are …….

A patient who presents with a long history of cigarette smoking exhibits a dry to productive cough with dyspnea and weight loss. These symptoms could be consistent with:

The hilar region of the lungs describes:

The anterior surface landmark on the thorax that is denoted by a hollow U-shaped depression just above the sternum and between the clavicles is termed the:

Factors that aggravate costochondritis may include: NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

To locate the twelfth rib, palpate:

To document chest findings located between the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used?

The midaxillary line:

Retractions are ……in all the following areas except the:

When examining a patient for chest expansion, begin by:

Question:

The lower tip of the scapula is located:

A patient presents with a productive cough. Which one of the following descriptions of the mucus is correct?

Diminished breath sounds should be………

When inspecting the chest for respiratory effort, which one of the following is not part of the inspection?

The angle of Louis is a useful place to start counting ribs. This landmark is located:

When auscultating breath sounds, use the diaphragm of the stethoscope by placing it initially on the:

The line that bisects the center of each clavicle at a point halfway between the palpated sternoclavicular and acromioclavicular joints is the:

When palpating the thorax, a crackling, popping noise under the skin is …… On auscultation, a sound similar to hair being …..between the fingers is noted. These symptoms could be consistent with:

To document chest findings located below the scapulae, which one of the following terms would be used?

A 37-year-old female has audible stridor. This type of stridor is consistent with: nr 509 week 8 apea 3p exam

When percussing the right upper posterior area of the chest, a dullness replaces the resonance sound usually heard in the lung. This sound would be suggestive of:

Orthopnea is typically ……with all of the following conditions except nr 509 week 8 apea 3p exam

Stridor heard louder in the neck than over the chest wall indicates:

Increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest, purse-lipped breathing, and dyspnea with talking, suggest: NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

The middle section of the thoracic cavity containing the esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels is the:

Which one of the following infants should be seen immediately by the nurse practitioner? NR 509 WEEK 8 APEA 3P EXAM

NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

Question 1:
 A tool for assessing risk factors for osteoporotic fractures is the:

Question 2:
 Anserine bursitis arises from:

3: When examining the knee, which of the following symptoms could be indicative of a positive Adduction (Varus) Stress Test?

see more content 

4: When assessing the knee, the examiner instructs the patient to straighten his knee. This motion would assess knee:

5: When performing an examination of a tender left finger on an adult, the surrounding tissue reveals warmth, edema, and redness. This finding could be suggestive of:

6: An example of a fibrous joint would be the:

7: To palpate the medial meniscus, slightly internally rotate the tibia and palpate the medial soft tissue along the:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

8: A patient complains of a sharp burning pain in the neck and right arm with associated paresthesias and weakness. These symptoms may be associated with:

9: A patient complains of lateral hip pain while pointing near the trochanter. This type of pain could be suggestive of:

10: The muscle of the scapulohumeral group that crosses the glenohumeral joint posteriorly and inserts on the greater tubercle is known as the:

11: Inspection of the hip begins with careful observation of a patient’s gait. A patient’s foot moves forward without bearing weight. This is …..

12: The axioscapular group of muscles: NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

13: When assessing the knee, the examiner instructs the patient to sit and swing his lower leg toward midline. This motion assesses knee:

14: When performing a musculoskeletal examination, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his arm in front of his body. This motion of the shoulder girdle would be an example of:

15: Static stabilizers of the shoulder are referred to as those structures that are:

16: To test the thumb for abduction, ask the patient to:

17: Passive flexion, valgus stress, and internal rotation of the lower leg, evaluates the nr 509 apea exam ortho

18: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to lie supine, bend his knee, and turn his lower leg and foot away from the midline. This maneuver would assess hip:

19: Children with Legg-Calve Perthes disease should:

20: The convex medial end of the clavicle that articulates with the concave hollow in the upper sternum is referred to as the:

21: When assessing a patient with complaints consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome, which one of the following symptoms is unlikely?

22: When evaluating a patient who complains of thumb pain, the nurse practitioner would test thumb movement by instructing the patient to place his thumb in the palm and then move the wrist toward the midline in ulnar deviation. This maneuver is commonly known as nr 509 apea exam ortho

23: Olecranon bursitis may be caused by all of the following except: NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

24: Women who wear high-heeled shoes with narrow toe boxes are at risk of developing all of the following forefoot abnormalities except:

25: Upon examination of the foot and ankle, the nurse practitioner notes point tenderness over the posterior aspects of the right malleolus. Additionally, the patient is unable to bear weight after 4 steps. This finding is most consistent with:

26: The small intrinsic muscles are located:

27: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient look upward at the ceiling. This maneuver assesses cervical:

28: Upon examination of the left shoulder, the patient complains of a dull, aching pain when attempting active or passive range of motion and localized tenderness with external rotation. These symptoms could be suggestive of:

29: The area at the posterior aspect of the spine lateral to the sacroiliac joint is known as the:

30: Which nerve in the arm runs posteriorly in the ulnar groove between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process?

31: When examining the knee, the presence of a palpable fluid wave with the returning fluid wave into the suprapatellar pouch is …. This positive sign for effusion of the knee is …..as the:

32: Dynamic stabilizers of the shoulder are …..to as those structures that are:

33: A structural channel beneath the palmar surface of the wrist and proximal hand is ……

34: When describing muscle strength, the term paraplegia means: NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

35: A patient reports sharp “catches” of pain, grating, and weakness in the right shoulder when lifting the arm overhead. These symptoms could be suggestive of:

36: The structure that encloses the spinal cord is …..

37: When examining the patient for wrist adduction, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient with his palms down to:

38: An example of a cartilaginous joint would be the:

39: When grading muscle strength, a five would indicate:

Question 40:
 With the patient in the dorsal decubitus position, have him slowly extend the knee while maintaining the varus stress and external rotation. If a snap on the medial joint line is ….., this may indicate a positive test for a:

Question 41:
 When examining the elbow for range of motion, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to bend his elbow. This motion is an example of:

42: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his ear to his shoulder. This maneuver assesses nr 509 apea exam ortho

43: The nurse practitioner instructs the patient to move his extended fingers so that each touches its nearest finger. This motion assesses the fingers and thumbs for:

44: The nurse practitioner would tap lightly over the median nerve in the carpal tunnel to assess:

45: Which one of the following conditions can plantar fasciitis be ….

46: A patient complains of shooting pains below the knee radiating into the lateral leg and calf. This type of low back pain is …..

47: Where the head of the humerus articulates with the shallow glenoid fossa of the scapula is ….

48: Which of the following symptoms would be suggestive of lumbar spinal stenosis?

49: When inspecting the face, asymmetry is …… This finding could be suggestive of: NR 509 APEA EXAM – ORTHO

NR 509 Week 6 Quiz

A woman has come to the clinic to seek help with a substance-abuse problem. She admits to using cocaine just before arrival. Which of these assessment findings would the FNP expect to find when examining the woman?

A 63-year-old Chinese American man enters the office with complaints of chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations. Which statement most accurately reflect the FNPs best course of action?

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

The FNP is planning to assess new memory with the patient. The best way for the FNP to do this would be

During the health history the FNP asks a female patient “how many alcoholic drinks do you have a week?” Which answer by the patient would indicate at risk drinking?

Symptoms such as pain are often influenced by a person’s cultural heritage. Which of the following is a true statement regarding pain?

The FNP suspect abuse when a 10-year-old child is taken to the urgent care center for leg injury. nr 509 week 6 quiz The best way to document the history and physical findings is to

During a mental status assessment, which question by the FNP would best assess a persons judgment? NR 509 Week 6 Quiz.

The FNP is performing a mental status assessment on a five-year-old girl. Her parents are undergoing a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which action or statement might leave FNP to be concerned about the girls mental status?

During mental status examination, the FNP wants to assess a patient’s affect. The FNP should ask the patient which question?

During an examination FNP notices a patterned injury on a patients back. Which of these would cause such an injury?

The FNP is aware that intimate partner violence screening should occur with which situation?

Which statement is best for the FNP to use when preparing to administer the abuse assessment screen?

The FNP is conducting a class on alcohol and the effects of alcohol on the body. How many standard drinks (each containing 12 g alcohol) Per day are associated with increased deaths from cirrhosis, cancers of the mouth, esophagus and injuries in men? NR 509 Week 6 Quiz.

A woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant is in the clinic for her first obstetric visit. She asked the FNP how many drinks a day safe for my baby? The FNP‘s best response is

The FNP is performing the Denver II screen test on a 12 month old infant during a routine well child visit. The FNP should tell the infants parents that the Denver II

Which term refers to a one produced by tearing or splitting of body tissue usually from blunt impact of a bony surface

When reviewing the use of alcohol by older adults the FNP notes that the older adults have several characteristics that can increase the risk of alcohol use which would increase the bioavailability of alcohol in the blood for longer periods of time in the older adult?

The FNP is reviewing concepts of cultural aspects of pain. Which statement is true regarding pain?

The FNP is planning to assess a child using behavioral checklist. This tool is most appropriate for a(an)

The FNP is … orientation in a 79-year-old patient. Which of these responses would leave the FNP to conclude that the patient is … ?

As a mandatory reporter of elder abuse, which of these must be present before an FNP notifies the authorities? NR 509 Week 6 Quiz.

A 30-year-old female patient is describing feelings of hopelessness and depression. She has attempted self-mutilation and has a history of prior suicide attempts. She describes difficulty sleeping at night and has lost 10 pounds in the past month. Which of these statements or questions is the FNP‘s best response in this situation? nr 509 week 6 quiz

For persons age 12 years and older which of these illicit substances was one of the most commonly used?

Which of these individuals would the FNP consider at highest risk for suicide attempt?

The FNP is assessing a patient who has … admitted for cirrhosis of the liver secondary to chronic alcohol use. nr 509 week 6 quiz During the physical assessment the FNP looks for cardiac problems that are … with chronic heavy use of alcohol such as NR 509 Week 6 Quiz

NR 509 Week 1 Quiz

A patient tells the FNP that he is very nervous, that he is nauseated, and that he “feels hot”. This type of data would be:

The patient’s record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data combine to form the:

The FNP is reviewing information about evidence-based practice. Which statement best reflects evidence-based practice?

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

A 59-year-old patient tells the FNP that he has ulcerative colitis. He has been having black stools for the last 24 hours. How would the FNP best document his reason for seeking care?

A 29-year-old woman tells the FNP that she has excruciating pain in her back. Which would be an appropriate response by the FNP to the woman statement?

In recording the childhood illnesses of a patient who denies having had any, which note by the FNP would be most accurate? NR 509 Week 1 Quiz.

If a female patient tells the FNP that she has had six pregnancies, with four live births at term and two spontaneous abortions. Her four children are still living. How would the FNP record this information?

Which of these statements represents subjective data the FNP obtained from the patient regarding the patient’s skin? NR 509 Week 1 Quiz.

The FNP is obtaining a history for a 30-year-old male patient and is concerned about health promotion activities. Which of these questions would be appropriate to use to assess health promotion activities for this patient?

Which statement indicates that the FNP understands the pain experienced by an elderly person?

The FNP is performing a vision examination. Which of these charts is most widely used for visual examination? NR 509 Week 1 Quiz.

During a complete health assessment, how would the FNP test the patients hearing? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP has just completed an examination of a patient’s extra-ocular muscles. When documenting the findings, the FNP should document the assessment of which cranial nerves?

A patient’s uvula rises midline when she says “ahh” and she has a positive gag reflex. The FNP has just tested which cranial nerve?

During an examination the FNP notices that a patient is unable to stick out his tongue. Which cranial nerve is involved with successful performance of this action?

A patient is unable to shrug her shoulders against the FNP‘s resistant hands. What cranial nerve is involved with successful shoulder shrugging? NR 509 Week 1 Quiz.

During an examination, the patient has just successfully completed the finger to nose and rapid alternating movements test and is able to run each heel down the opposite shin. The FNP would conclude that the patient’s___ function is intact

A five-year-old child is in the clinic for checkup. The FNP would expect him to:

When the FNP performs the confrontation test the FNP has assessed: nr 509 week 1 quiz

Which of these statements is true regarding the complete physical assessment?

…. recording of data from the history and physical examination?

… in assessment of general appearance? nr 509 week 1 quiz

The FNP is performing a review of symptoms. Which of these questions are appropriate as Health promotion questions to ask during this time?

The FNP is incorporating a person’s spiritual values into the health history. Which of these questions illustrates the community portion of the FICA questions?

The FNP is preparing to complete a health assessment on a 16-year-old girl whose parents have brought her to the clinic. Which instruction would be appropriate for the parents before the interview begins? NR 509 Week 1 Quiz

NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY

Question 1: 
What is the standard instrument used to auscultate fetal heart tones?

Question 2: 
During pregnancy, what sound may be auscultated at the second or third intercostal space at the sternal border due to increased blood flow through the vessels?

3: 
If regular uterine contractions occur prior to 37 weeks gestation, this could be:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

4: 
Weight gain should be monitor during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 18.5 – 24.9, the total weight gain should be:

Detailed answers…

5: 
During pregnancy, a palpable softening of the cervical isthmus is …… This finding is:

6: 
As tension on the abdominal wall increases with advancing pregnancy, the rectus abdominis muscles may separate at the midline of the abdomen. This finding is termed: NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY.

7: 
Facial edema in a pregnant woman after 20 weeks gestation, could be:

8: 
Weight gain should be monitored during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is < 18.5, the total weight gain should be: 9:  Murmurs audible during pregnancy may suggest: BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE 10:  What is the importance of prenatal care? 11:  During pregnancy, which hormone promotes endometrial growth that supports the early embryo? 12:  B/P readings greater than 140 mm HG systolic and greater than 90 mm HG diastolic prior to pregnancy, before 20 weeks gestation, or beyond 12 weeks postpartum is: 13:  Pregnant women should avoid unpasteurized dairy products, such as soft cheese, raw eggs, and delicatessen meats because of the risk of: 14:  When performing a pelvic exam on a pregnant woman, a larger speculum may be ….because of: 15:  During pregnancy, which hormone is ….by the placenta and supports progesterone synthesis in the corpus luteum? 16:  When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are easily palpated at the fundus, the fetus is said to be in: 17:  During the vaginal examination of a pregnant woman in her first trimester, an adnexal mass with tenderness is palpated. This finding could be consistent with: 18:  Normal changes in the breast and nipples during pregnancy include all of the following except: 19:  During pregnancy, a patient’s fundal height measured 26 centimeters. This would suggest that the gestational age was: Question 20:  When should an oral glucose tolerance test be perform during pregnancy? Question 21:  Inflamed and overgrown gingiva during pregnancy is: 22:  When performing the third Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, the fetal head is the presenting part. This finding is ….. 23:  Inaudible fetal heart tones (FHT) may indicate: 24:  Which one of the following symptoms would be seen in a 39 week gestational age patient who was …..of having HELLP syndrome? 25:  The cervical opening or shortening noted during a bimanual examination prior to 37 weeks gestation, may indicate: 26:  Weight gain should be ….during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is 25 – 29.9, the total weight gain should be: 27:  During pregnancy, as the skin over the abdomen stretches to accommodate the fetus, this purplish mark may appear. This finding is: NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY. 28:  During pregnancy, dyspnea accompanied by increased respiratory rate, cough, rales, or respiratory distress raises concerns of: 29:  When should a vaginal swab for Group B streptococcus be obtained in a pregnant woman? 30:  Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for one third of all low-birth-weight infants, placental abruption, and preterm labor? 31:  Normal findings of the vaginal wall of a pregnant woman, include all of the following except: 32:  During pregnancy, which hormone is responsible for increasing insulin resistance and hyperglycemia ……with gestational diabetes? 33:  To estimate the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s rule, if the last menses was March 3, 2014, the EDD would be: 34:  During pregnancy, which hormone results in increased blood viscosity? 35:  In the third trimester of pregnancy, which position affords the greatest comfort by reducing the weight of the uterus on the abdominal vessels? 36:  Ingestion of large sea-going fish, such as tuna, swordfish and shark should be …..in pregnant women, because they contain large amounts of: 37:  When might fundal height in a pregnant woman most accurately predict gestational age? 38: If fetal movement cannot be perceived after 24 weeks gestation, all of the following may be …..except: NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY. 39:  During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4 centimeters smaller than ….., consider: 40:  During pregnancy, the Leopold maneuvers assist in determining all of the following except: 41:  Irregular brownish patches around the forehead, cheeks, nose, and jaw …..during pregnancy are….. nr 509 apea exam 42:  Symptoms on initial assessment of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia are: blood pressure 158/100; urinary output 50 ml./hour; lungs clear upon auscultation; +1 urine protein on dipstick; and edema of the hands, ankles, and feet. On assessment an hour later, which one of the following symptoms would indicate worsening of preeclampsia? 43:  During pregnancy, which hormone is ……by the corpus luteum and placenta to promote ligamentous laxity in the sacroiliac joint and pubic symphysis for passage of the fetus? 44:  During the last trimester of pregnancy, the supine position causes the uterus to overlie the vertebral column and compress the descending aorta and inferior venal cava. This position causes the patient to become faint and dizzy resulting in: 45:  Which substance used during pregnancy accounts for the leading cause of preventable intellectual disability? 46:  A five percent weight loss during the first trimester due to vomiting would be …… 47:  Increased vascularity throughout the pelvis during pregnancy gives the vagina a bluish color. This sign is: 48:  Weight gain should be …..during pregnancy. For a pregnant woman whose BMI is = 30, the total weight gain should be: 49:  In pregnant women, between 10 to 18 weeks gestation, fetal heart tones (FHT) can be auscultated along the nr 509 apea exam 50:  When performing the third Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, the cephalic prominence is on the same side as the back. 51:  Hypertension that occurs after 20 weeks gestation in the absence of proteinuria is: 52:  During pregnancy, if fundal height is 4 centimeters larger than …., consider all of the following except: NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY. 53:  During pregnancy, which hormone increases tidal volume and alveolar minute ventilation, lowers esophageal sphincter tone, and relaxes tone in the uterus and bladder? 54:  The normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range is: 55:  New onset hypertension with proteinuria or end-organ damage is nr 509 apea exam 56:  A form of milk ….by the mammary glands during late pregnancy is …… 57:  When examining the pregnant patient, conjunctival pallor may indicate: 58:  When performing the first Leopold maneuver on a pregnant woman, if the fetal buttocks and head are not easily …. at the fundus, the fetus is ….. 59:  After 24 weeks gestation, auscultation of more than one fetal heart tone (FHT) in different locations with varying rates suggests: 60:  During pregnancy, a brownish black pigmented vertical stripe along the midline of the abdomen may appear. This finding is nr 509 apea exam 61:  During the examination of a pregnant woman, knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes appear hyperreflexic. This finding could be suggestive of: 62:  Upon cervical examination of the pregnant woman, cervical erosion, erythema, and irritation are noted. These findings could be suggestive of: NR 509 APEA EXAM – PREGNANCY.

NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM

Question 1:
 A transient ischemic attack is:

Question 2: 
A patient is asked to visually follow a finger through the cardinal fields of gaze. Which cranial nerves are being assessed?

3: 
Uncontrolled electrical activity in the brain, which may produce minor physical signs, thought disturbances, or disturbed motor activity is:

ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

4: 
When evaluating the sensory system, testing the posterior columns tract would include assessing sensations of:

5: 
Physical exam of a well two-week-old infant reveals a little dimple with a small amount of hair just above the sacral area. This could be:

6: 
A female patient complains of weakness in her arm when combing her hair. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern?

7: 
What geriatric condition is characterized by normal alertness but progressive global deterioration of cognition in multiple domains?

8: 
When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates position sense?

When assessing coordination of muscle movement, four areas of the nervous system function in an integrated way. These areas include the motor, cerebellar, the vestibular, and the sensory systems. Which system coordinates position sense? NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.

9:
 A band of skin innervated by the sensory root of a single spinal nerve is ……

10: 
An 8-month-old with a significant head lag would suggest the need for:

11: 
Hyperalgesia refers to:

12: 
Brief, repetitive, stereotyped, coordinated movements occurring at irregular intervals are consistent with:

13: 
When a patient complains of severe headaches that have worsened over the last few weeks but she has no other symptoms, a most likely diagnosis would be:

14: 
While assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner touches the cornea lightly with a wisp of cotton. This maneuver assesses which cranial nerve?

15: 
The patient has his eyes closed and an area on his right leg is briefly touched by the nurse practitioner. The patient is instructed to open his eyes and point to the area that was touched. This is an example of the discriminative sensation known as:

16: 
When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner observes that the soft palate does not rise when the patient is instructed to say “ah”. This finding could be suggestive of a bilateral lesion in which cranial nerve?

17: 
The level of consciousness that refers to the patient that remains unarousable with eyes closed without evidence of response to inner need or external stimuli is said to be in nr 509 apea exam

18: 
Having the patient shrug his shoulders and elicit neck movements would be testing Cranial Nerve:

19: 
The Glasgow coma scale assesses:

20: 
Discriminative sensations include all of the following except:

21: 
Symmetric weakness of the distal muscles of the legs suggests a:

22: 
The thalamus and the basal ganglion are located in the:

23: 
The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is:

Question 24: 
By placing the patient in the supine position, the nurse practitioner raises the patient’s relaxed and straightened leg while flexing the leg at the hip, then dorsiflexes the foot. This maneuver is known as:

Question 25: 
With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner flexes the patient’s neck while observing the hips and knees. Flexion of both hips and knees was noted. This is a positive:

26: 
When a two-week-old infant presents with irritability, poor appetite, and rapid head growth with distended scalp veins, one should consider nr 509 apea exam

27: 
A term ….to describe muscle wasting or loss of muscle bulk is:

28: 
Which one of the following senses is most often …..in patients on long-term antibiotic therapy?

29: 
Common physical findings in a young child with cerebral palsy include which one of the following?

30: 
The principal muscles involved when closing the mouth are ….by which Cranial nerve?

Question 31: 
The term used to describe involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is:

Question 32: 
Postural tremors appear when the affected part is: NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.

33: 
A patient presents with sweating, tremors, palpitations, hunger, and confusion. This patient is most likely experiencing:

34: 
Most peripheral nerves contain afferent and efferent fibers. The term afferent refers to nr 509 apea exam

35: 
During this type of seizure activity, the patient loses consciousness suddenly, sometimes with a cry, and the body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops, and the person becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. This type of seizure activity is referred to as a:

36: 
When assessing plantar reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the right foot. Absence of movement of the big toe is ….. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

37: 
A patient is ….to stand, close both eyes, and extend both arms forward with the palms facing upward for 20-30 seconds. If the forearm drifts downward, this would indicate:

38: 
When evaluating a patient for weakness of the upper extremities, bilateral distal weakness is ….. This finding could be suggestive of nr 509 apea exam

39: 
Ptosis of the left eye would be suggestive of damage to which cranial nerve?

40: 
While palpating the temporal and masseter muscles, the patient is ……to clench his teeth and move his jaw from side to side. This maneuver would be assessing which cranial nerve?

Question 41: 
With the adult patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner strokes the lateral aspect of the sole from the heel to the ball of the foot with the end of an applicator stick. Dorsiflexion of the big toe was …. This is a positive: NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.

Question 42: 
An ambulatory child with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet:

-43: 
The part of the brain that relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system is ……

44: 
Dysarthria refers to:

45: 
The inability to hop in place on each foot, could be suggestive of a:

-46: 
Hyperesthesia refers to:

47: 
The part of the brain that maintains homeostasis is the:

48: 
The patient experiences a sudden loss of consciousness with falling without movements and injury may occur. This type of a seizure is consistent with:

49: 
Involuntary movements of the body that are slower and more twisting and writhing than choreiform movements, and have a larger amplitude are suggestive of:

50: 
Which of the following procedures should NOT be performed in a comatose patient?

51: 
A form of aphasia in which the person has word-finding difficulties for speaking and writing is ……

52: 
A neurological assessment to evaluate neurologic input to the cerebellum is:

53: 
The three important questions that govern the neurological examination include: Is the mental status intact?, Are right-sided and left-sided findings symmetric?, and:

54: 
Which developmental area is predominantly ….by lead poisoning?

55: 
A term ….to describe an increase in muscular bulk with diminished strength is:

56: 
On examination of the adult patient, symptoms of flexed posture, tremor, rigidity, and shuffling gait are …… These findings are consistent with:

57: 
A form of aphasia where articulation is good but sentences lack meaning is ……

58: 
When comparing two sides of the body for symmetric sensation a symmetrical distal sensory loss would be suggestive of :

59: 
When eliciting deep tendon reflexes in the knee, the nurse practitioner notes an abnormal reflex in the right knee. This abnormality is probably consistent with a pathological lesion in which segmented level of the spine?

60: 
Persistent blinking after glabellar tap and difficulty walking heel-to- toe are common in:

61: 
To evaluate a patient’s response to light touch sensation, the nurse practitioner would ask the patient to identify: NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.

62: 
A discriminative sensation that describes the ability to identify a number drawn in the hand when the patient’s eyes are…..

63: 
When assessing the patient’s sense of position, instruct the patient to first stand with his feet together and eyes open, then instruct him to close both eyes for 30-60 seconds. If he loses his balance with his eyes closed, this is:

64: 
A female patient complaints of weakness in both arms when transferring the wet clothes from the washer and placing them in the dryer. This finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern?

65: 
With the patient lying supine, the nurse practitioner places her hands behind the patient’s head while flexing his neck forward until his chin touches his chest. Neck stiffness with resistance to flexion is …… This is a positive:

66: 
When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is …., a lethargic patient:

67: 
Aphasia refers to:

68: 
A patient is unable to identify the smell of an orange. This inability could reflect an abnormality in cranial nerves:

69: 
When assessing the cranial nerves, the nurse practitioner instructs the patient to stick out his tongue and move it from side to side. This maneuver would be …..to assess which cranial nerve?

70: 
The level of consciousness that refers to the ability of the patient to respond fully and appropriately to stimuli is ……

71: 
A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with:

72: 
Symptoms of a subdural hematoma include:

-73: 
Analgesia refers to:

74: 
While assessing the trigeminal nerve V (CN V) for sensory function, the patient reports a pain sensation on the right cheek. This finding could be consistent with a:

75: 
When trying to determine the level of consciousness in a patient whose level of consciousness is ….., a comatose patient:

76: 
Disorders of speech fall into three groups that affect all of the following except the:

77: 
What is an example of a disease or condition that appears in a dermatomal pattern?

78: 
A 80 year old male visits the nurse practitioner for an annual well exam. History reveals two falls in the prior 12 months and difficulty with balance. The next step the nurse practitioner should take is:

79: 
When conducting a neurologic exam, which one of the following assessments is not ……part of the mental status assessment?

80: 
Ataxia, diplopia, and dysarthria can be symptoms ……with all of the following conditions except:

81: 
An ischemic stroke is:

82: 
During this type of seizure activity, the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic-clonic seizures. The patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurologic deficit is present during the postictal period. This type of seizure activity is ……

83: 
When assessing abdominal cutaneous reflexes, the nurse practitioner strokes the lower abdomen, the localized twitch is absent. This finding could be suggestive of a pathologic lesion in which segmented level of the spine? NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.

84: 
An example of symmetric weakness is:

85: 
Assessment of a 70-year-old’s ability to maintain personal safety would be most adversely …..by declining function in the:

86: 
When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the: NR 509 APEA EXAM – RANDOM.