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  • MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion

    MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion

     

    Discuss the differences between a Primary Care Nurse Practitioner and an Acute Care Nurse Practitioner and their scope of practice. Why is this important to know as you move from being a nurse into your new role as an NP?

    The American Nurses Association (ANA) describes a scope of practice for nurse practitioners as guidelines for who, what, when, where, why and how (American Nurses Association, 2018). The scope of practice for Nurse Practitioner’s varies based on state legislation. MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion. States scope of practice are defined as physician relationship required, transition to independent practice required, and full practice authority (Scope of Practice Policy, 2018). The state of Florida scope of practice for nurse practitioners is a physician relationship required.

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    The Acute Care Nurse Practitioner (ACNP) is an advanced level nurse who has completed five hundred supervised clinical hours in an acute care setting. Many master level programs offer the nurse a dual adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner (AG-ACNP). The ACNP specializes in the care of patients with acute and chronic illness. These settings include: intensive care, emergency rooms, nursing homes, urgent care, and private physician settings. The ACNP performs pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments. The ACNP focuses on the assessment and diagnosis of chronic, and acute conditions MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion. The ACNP manages comorbid conditions across lifespan with epidemiological, cultural, genetic considerations (Kilpatrick, 2012). The ACNP develops a treatment plan in collaboration with the patient.

    The Primary Nurse Practitioner (PNP) is an advanced level nurse whose focus is on primary care. The PNP has completed supervised clinical hours across life spans such as: geriatrics, pediatrics, primary care, and women’s health. The PNP completes an advanced assessment for treatment and diagnosis of patients with chronic illness and manages comorbid conditions (American Association of Nurse Practitioners, 2018). The PNP performs pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments. MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion.

    The demand of specialty and primary nurse practitioners continues to rise. As a nurse transitioning into an advanced level nurse it is important to understand state specific legislation for scope of practice. The scope of practice is significant to the advanced level nurse’s board certification, and safety for patients.

    References

    American Nurses Association. (2018). Scope and Standards of Practice. Retrieved from

    http://www.nursingworld.org/scopeandstandardsofpractice

    American Association of Nurse Practitioners. (2018). All About an NP. Retrieved from

    https://www.aanp.org/all-about-nps

    Kilpatrick, K. (2012). Understanding acute care nurse practitioner communication and decision-

    making in healthcare teams. Journal of Clinical Nursing, 22(2), 168-171. doi: 10.1111/

    j.1365—2701.2012.04119.x MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion

    Scope of Practice Policy. (2018). Nurse Practitioner Overview. Retrieved from

    http://scopeofpracticepolicy.org/practitioners/nurse-practitioners/

    MN566 – Intro to NP- Unit 1 Discussion

  • MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    Unit 5

    Your quiz has been submitted successfully.

    Subsection

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    Question 1

    1 / 1 point

    Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level IV evidence?

    Question options:

    Single descriptive or qualitative study

    Opinion of authorities and expert committees

    Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies

    Well-designed case Control or Cohort Study Level

    Question 2

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    1 / 1 point

    It is always important to consider the pathological process that could be causing the patients problems. Choose all that should be considered when creating your differential list using a mnemonic..

    Question options:

    Inflammatory

    Neoplastic

    toxic or metabolic

    infectious

    congenital

    traumatic

    Question 3

    0 / 1 point

    Choose all that should be considered when ordering a diagnostic test.

    Question options:

    patients request for test to be done

    cost

    sensitivity and specificity of the test

    convenience of test

    Will the outcome of the test change your plan of care

    diagnosis by exclusion

    Question 4

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    1 / 1 point

    Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level I evidence?

    Question options:

    Single, well-designed randomized clinical trial

    Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies

    Well-designed controlled trials without randomization

    Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies

    Question 5

    1 / 1 point

    The Goals of Diagnostic Reasoning is to:(choose all that apply)

    Question options:

    Solve a problem

    establish a relationship with your patient

    screen for disease and illness

    promote healthy lifestyles

    support research

    Question 6

    1 / 1 point

    Using mnemonics for gathering a health history can be helpful when trying to analyse the symptoms presented and create a differential list.Which mnemonic will give you the most comprehensive approach to collecting your history?

    Question options:

    OLDCARS

    COLDSPA

    MEDLIST

    OLDCARTS

    Question 7

    1 / 1 point

    A 37 year old man that was diagnosed with cluster headaches and takes high doses of aspirin.

    Indicate the appropriate course of action :

    Question options:

    head CT

    head MRI C.

    neither for the following patient.

    All of the above

    Question 8

    1 / 1 point

    Generalized patterns of nursing care are represented in The Circle of Caring Model as:(choose all that apply)

    Question options:

    self care

    Patience

    listening

    courage

    Authentic presence

    advocacy

    knowing

    commitment

    Question 9

    1 / 1 point

    Choose all the following that are essential in developing clinical practice guidelines:

    Question options:

    Identification of A topic

    Enlist and expert panal

    Review of literature ‘D. Rate evidence

    Draft a proposal

    External review of draft

    Revised draft based on recommendations

    Question 10

    1 / 1 point

    Applying evidence at the point of care requires:

    Question options: MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    Readily available evidence-based resources

    Ability to review research literature

    Single articles in journals

    Current textbooks

    Question 11

    0 / 1 point

    Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

    Which of the following are parts of evidence-based practice?

    Question options:

    Clinician

    Patient

    Evidence

    All of the above

    Question 12

    0 / 1 point

    Different kinds of thinking and learning also include the Affective Domain. This model described by Krathwohl (1964), is :

    Question options:

    Complex to include conceptual knowledge

    A metacognitive model

    Based on an organized hierarchy

    Based on an individual’s commitment to living and valuing

    Question 13

    1 / 1 point

    When evaluating a patient with a an acute headache all of the following observations would indicate the absence of a more serious underlying condition except:

    Question options:

    Onset of headache with exertion, coughing or sneezing

    History of previous headaches

    Supple neck

    normal neurological examination result.

    Question 14

    1 / 1 point

    What are the questions you should ask yourself before using clinical guidelines in your practice? All are correct except (mark the ones that apply)

    Question options:

    How strong are the recommendations

    Are the guidelines applicable to my patients

    Can I get reimbursed for using these guidelines

    Are the guidelines clinically important

    Are these guidelines from a reliable source

    How old are these guidelines

    Question 15

    1 / 1 point

    The Circle of Caring Model is a new and more contemporary approach to medicine. Choose the characteristics that best describe this model of care in the primary care setting. MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz.

    Question options:

    AIl includes both traditional nursing as well as traditional medical practice

    It is a transformative model

    It considers both assessment and patient outcomes

    It is a patient centered model

    All of the Above

    Question 16

    1 / 1 point

    Which of the following would be considered the research design for Level V evidence?

    Question options:

    Systematic review of randomized clinical trial studies

    Well-designed controlled trials without randomization

    Systematic reviews of descriptive or qualitative studies

    Single descriptive or qualitative study

    Question 17

    1 / 1 point

    Understanding other factors that can be causing the patients problems include:. Choose all that should be considered

    Question options:

    Demographics

    Age

    Gender

    weight

    medications

    education

    Question 18

    1 / 1 point

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

    The Circle of Caring Model has grown out of and is rooted in the assumption that caring is the central concept in nursing and is uniquely known and expressed in nursing.

    Question options:

    True

    False

    Question 19

    1 / 1 point

    Bloom’s (1956) taxonomies of learning includes all of the following except:

    Question options:

    the cognitive domain

    the communication and leadership domain

    the affective domain

    psychomotor domain

    Question 20

    1 / 1 point

    Diagnostic test should be the deciding factor when making your final diagnosis.

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz Question options:

    True

    False

    Question 21

    1 / 1 point

    Practice Standards are designed to be flexible and can be tailored to be used in any medical arena.

    Question options:

    True

    False

    Question 22

    1 / 1 point

    Indicators that a headache can be the presenting symptom of a serious illness and may require neuroimaging include all the following except:

    Question options:

    Headaches that occur periodically in clusters

    Increase frequency and severity of headaches

    Headaches causing confusion, dizziness and or lack of coordination.

    Headaches causing you to wake at night.

    Question 23

    1 / 1 point

    Practice guidelines are designed to:

    Question options:

    Be inflexible

    Be utilized in every circumstance

    Provide a reference point for decision making

    Be created by a professional organization to guide the practice of a profession

    Question 24

    1 / 1 point

    Nursing research should be utilized by:

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz Question options:

    Nurses at the bedside

    Advanced practice nurses

    Nurse researchers

    Nurses at all levels of practice

    Question 25

    1 / 1 point

    Clinicians who use clinical guidelines are responsible for reviewing their usefulness in their practice.

    Question options:

    True

    False

    Attempt Score:

    22 / 25 – 88 %

    Overall Grade
     (highest attempt)
    :

    22 / 25 – 88 %

     

    Done

    MN566 Introduction to Primary Care Midterm Quiz

  • Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study

    Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    MN551: Advanced Physiology and Pathophysiology Across the Life Span

    Case Study 5: Disorders of Renal Function

    Case study number five is focused on a forty-four-year-old man named Fred.  Fred stays healthy and fit by working outside.  After working outside one particularly warm summer day, he returned home only to begin experiencing lower back discomfort and unexplained nausea later that evening.  Having lost his appetite due to the nausea and unable to enjoy the dinner that his wife had prepared, he decided to go to bed early.

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    Later that night his symptoms worsened.  He began complaining of excruciating stomach, back and groin pain.  The pain would come in waves that would be followed by diaphoresis and vomiting.  Once his pain eased, his wife rushed him to the hospital to be evaluated. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    After being evaluated and having abdominal scans, emergency room physicians diagnosed him with renal calculi in the right ureter or right urolithiasis.  With a diagnosis the hospital physicians and staff can work with Fred and his wife on a plan of care and begin treatment.  Based on medical literature it is critical that renal disorders are properly diagnosed and treated to prevent further renal injury.

    Mechanism of Stone Formation in the Kidney.

    There are four different types of kidney stones: calcium, uric acid, struvite, and cystine.  The precise mechanism of forming kidney stones or urolithiasis is not completely understood despite significant research (Evan, Worcester, Coe, Williams & Lingeman, 2015).  Research has shown that a nidus is required along with a urinary environment conducive to the crystallization of components found in kidney stones (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

    It has been hypothesized that the kidneys become supersaturated with crystalline liquid structures that they cannot break down.   These crystalline liquid structures begin to precipitate together rapidly to form solid particles. The solid particles begin binding together and arrange into a crystal pattern in a process known as crystal nucleation (Jena, Panigrahi & Dey, 2016).  Varying in size and shape, the crystals adhere to the renal tubular epithelial cells (Chaiyarit & Thongboonkerd, 2017).  Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study  Then the crystals begin to form an adhesive agglomeration within the renal tubules.  It is at this point that the kidney stone causes a restriction or blockage of the renal tubules.

    Role of Citrate in the Kidneys.

    Citrate is a tricarboxylic acid that is a natural byproduct of the citric acid cycle in renal cells (Grossman & Porth, 2014).  Citrate makes the renal environment unfavorable to stone formation by reducing the supersaturation and increasing the pH of urine (Kaygisiz, 2017).  This effectively inhibits the crystallization of calcium salts thus reducing to probability of forming calcium oxalate stones.

    Studies have noted that individuals with a lower urinary citrate excretion or hypocitraturia have higher incidences of kidney stone formation (Coe, Worcester & Evan, 2016).  It has also been shown that citrate therapy inhibits the growth and reduces the reoccurrence of new stone formation in the kidneys (Phillips, Hanchanale, Myatt, Somani, Nabi & Biyani, 2015).  The most effective way to prevent the formation of kidney stones is to maintain the acid-base balance within the bladder. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    Calcium Supplements and Calcium Oxalate Stones.

    According to Grossman and Porth (2014), seventy-five to eighty percent of kidney stones are calcium stones.   A differential diagnosis of hypercalciuria is a common indicator of calcium kidney stones.  Patients who have an excessive amount of calcium excreted through the urine may also have a supersaturation of urinary calcium salts (Sorensen, 2014).

    Patients are completely dependent on their dietary intake for the absorption of calcium.  If their intake is too low, then there can be in increase of urinary oxalate.  Calcium supplementation helps to bind oxalate in the intestine and effectively reduce its absorption (Grossman & Porth, 2014). Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    Hydronephrosis.

    Swelling in one or both kidneys resulting from a buildup of urine is hydronephrosis.  This condition can lead to kidney damage and/or failure if not treated.  The amount of damage depends on duration, severity and location of the obstruction (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

    One cause for this condition is an obstruction in the ureters preventing the outflow of urine to the bladder.  A second cause of this condition occurs when urine in the bladder refluxes into the kidney causing an enlargement of the renal pelvis (Hydronephrosis, 2017).  Both causes result in renal injury but diagnosed and treated early can reverse the damage.

    Relating to this case study the probable location of the kidney stone related blockage would be the ureteropelvic junction.  Fred exhibited symptoms consistent with hydronephrosis which included complaints of pain in his back, abdomen and groin.  He also was suffering from nausea and vomiting. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    Back Pressure in the Kidneys.

    For this paper the focus of case study number five is on an obstruction caused by a kidney stone.  Back pressure occurs in the kidneys because of hydronephrosis caused by an obstruction, or reflux.  This condition causes a back or buildup of pressure in the kidneys.  If the condition persists, the kidneys will begin to suffer damage or nephropathy.

    Progressive atrophy and damage of the kidney is caused by the dilation of the renal pelvis and calices which occurs because of the continued glomerular filtration.  The back pressure continues to build because of this ongoing filtration and the kidney’s inability to release the urine due to the blockage.  Renal vasculature becomes compressed when the increased pressure in the renal pelvis is forced back through the kidney’s collecting ducts (Grossman & Porth, 2014).

    This back pressure causes a restriction in blood flow to the kidneys causing ischemic damage and intrarenal pelvic pressure which combined result in mechanical damage to the nephrons.  This causes the progressive destruction of nephrons.  Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study. Remaining nephrons work to compensate by increasing their function until the assault is halted or the remaining nephrons are destroyed.  According to Grossman and Porth (2014, pg. 1089), “in advanced cases the kidneys can become thin walled cystic structures with parenchymal atrophy, total obliteration of the pyramids and thinning of the cortex.”

    Conclusion.

    In case study number five, it is clear through medical literature and research that time is of the essence when diagnosing and treating with renal disorders.  In this case study, Fred had worked outside in the heat all day.  His early symptoms could have easily been mistaken for exhaustion, pulling a back muscle or dehydration.

    Patients who delay seeking help are at greater risk for renal injury that could result in permanent damage and renal failure.  One specific condition that can devastate a patient’s renal health if left untreated is hydronephrosis.  The damage from this condition can destroy the kidney’s nephrons and lead to renal failure. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study.

    Despite the abundance of research into the formation of renal stone formation, there is still more to be learned.  Health care providers should educate patients about the causes, signs and symptoms of kidney stones.  As evidenced by medical literature, it is clear that early diagnosis and treatment can potentially slow, stop and reverse renal injury.

    References

    Chaiyarit, S., & Thongboonkerd, V. (2017). Defining and Systematic Analyses of Aggregation Indices to Evaluate Degree of Calcium Oxalate Crystal Aggregation.
    Frontiers in Chemistry, 5
    , 113. http://doi.org/10.3389/fchem.2017.00113

    Coe, F. L., Worcester, E. M., & Evan, A. P. (2016). Idiopathic hypercalciuria and formation of calcium renal stones.
    Nature Reviews Nephrology, 12
    (9), 519-533. doi:10.1038/nrneph.2016.101

    Evan, A. P., Worcester, E. M., Coe, F. L., Williams, J., & Lingeman, J. E. (2015). Mechanisms of Human Kidney Stone Formation.
    Urolithiasis, 43
    (0 1), 19–32.
    http://doi.org/10.1007/s00240-014-0701-0

    Grossman, S. C., & Porth, C. (2014).
    Porth’s pathophysiology: Concepts of altered health states
    (9th ed.). Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.

    Hydronephrosis. (2017, February 03). Retrieved from
    https://www.kidney.org/atoz/content/hydronephrosis

    Jena, S. C., Panigrahi, P. N., & Dey, S. (2016). Urolithiasis: Critical Analysis of Mechanism of Renal Stone Formation and Use of Medicinal Plants as Antiurolithiatic Agents.
    Asian Journal of Animal and Veterinary Advances, 11
    (1), 9-16. doi:10.3923/ajava.2016.9.16 Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study

    Kaygısız, O. (2017). Metaphylaxis in Pediatric Urinary Stone Disease.
    Updates and Advances in Nephrolithiasis – Pathophysiology, Genetics, and Treatment Modalities
    . doi:10.5772/intechopen.69982

    Phillips, R., Hanchanale, V. S., Myatt, A., Somani, B., Nabi, G., & Biyani, C. S. (2015). Citrate salts for preventing and treating calcium containing kidney stones in adults.
    Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews
    . doi:10.1002/14651858.cd010057.pub2

    Sorensen, M. D. (2014). Calcium intake and urinary stone disease.
    Translational Andrology and Urology, 3
    (3), 235–240.
    http://doi.org/10.3978/j.issn.2223-4683.2014.06.05

    Last Name, F. M. (Year). Article Title.
    Journal Title
    , Pages From – To.

    Last Name, F. M. (Year).
    Book Title.
    City Name: Publisher Name. Disorders of Renal Function MN551 Case Study

  • MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example

    MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example Scope of Practice

    MN566 NP I – Introduction to Primary Care for the Nurse Practitioner

    Scope of Practice

    The Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN) Consensus Model standardizes each aspect of the regulatory process for advanced practice registered nurses. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example By doing this it increases the state to state mobility for practicing APRNs, the ability to provide needed care will be increased nationwide (Brassard, 2014).  The American Nurses Association has pushed this initiative in order to advance the scope of practice and change licensure laws to ensure unrestricted practice authority for advanced practice registered nurses across the United States.

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    At this present time only twenty-three states and the District of Columbia have granted full practice authority to advanced practice registered nurses. Granting full practice authority to advanced practice registered nurses would “promote safety and contribute to the protection of the public and provision of quality care” (Burke, Richardson & Smith, 2017).  Holtschneider (2016) pointed out that practitioners are educators, mentors, leaders, researchers, and advocates. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

    How My Practice is Affected

    In order to provide quality, cost effective care to patients, advanced practice registered nurses must be able to practice to the full extent of their education and skills set in every state across the nation (American Nurses Association, n.d.).  Unfortunately, in my home state of Texas, we are forced to work under restrictions as outlined in Tex. Admin. Code §22-11-221.13 (Texas Scope, 2018).  Texas’ state practice and licensure laws require advanced practice nurses to work under the supervision on a physician for the entirety of their careers (AANP, 2018).  This restrictive environment is due in great part to the funding by physician’s groups who are intent on maintaining a physician controlled medical environment MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

    Granting full practice authority would change the entire dynamic of health care in the state of Texas and prevent qualified advanced practice registered nurses from pursue careers in other states.   My career will be greatly hampered by these unjust restrictions.  Not only will I be forced to work under physician doing the same work, but I will be forced to accept a significantly lower reimbursement from insurances.

    Unless our state legislators wake up and realize that they must remove the restrictions to our practice authority I plan on relocating to another state.  This would be one of the most difficult decisions that I have ever been forced to make in my life.  It would mean leaving all my family and friends. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

    What My Future Holds.

    It was not until I began working towards my master’s degree that I learned about practice restrictions and how it would hamper my future clinical practice.  This knowledge has motivated me to become involved in the legislative process to help promote change.  In order to do that we must make it a priority to become fully informed about legislative candidates at all levels of government and their position on licensure restrictions (Newland, 2016).

    Soon my career will lead me to another state unless Texas removes the practice restrictions on advanced nurse practitioners.  Regardless of where my path leads, I will be an active participant in the legislative process to help ensure changes that benefit our profession are made.  Without nurses in numbers fighting for our rights, changes will not come. MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.

    Conclusion

    In a country where the primary care physician shortage is becoming increasingly worse each year, to restrict the practice authority of advanced practice registered nurses is detrimental the wellbeing of the nation.  Utilizing APRNs with unrestricted practice authority as primary care health care providers would ensure that more people would have access to affordable, quality care MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example.  According to Rudner Lugo (2016), nurses will have to work together utilizing grass-root efforts to gain political support from legislators to change the licensure restrictions for APRNs.  If these restrictions are not lifted, the exodus of APRNs to unrestricted states will continue.

    References

    AANP. (2018). State Practice Environment. Retrieved from
    https://www.aanp.org/advocacy/state/state-practice-environment

    American Nurses Association. (n.d.). Nursing Scope of Practice. Retrieved from
    https://www.nursingworld.org/practice-policy/scope-of-practice/

    Brassard, A. (2014). Overview and Summary: APRN Roles: Opportunities and Challenges for Practice and Education. Online Journal of Issues in Nursing, 19(2), 10.
    https://doi.org/10.3912/OJIN.Vol19No02ManOS

    Burke, K. G., Richardson, C., & Smith, B. A. (2017). Implementing Nursing Professional Development. Journal for Nurses in Professional Development, 33(5), 269-271. doi:10.1097/nnd.0000000000000375

    Holtschneider, M. E. (2016). Implementing the Nursing Professional Development Practitioner Scope and Standards of Practice 2016 Revisions. Journal for Nurses in Professional Development, 32(5), 269–270.
    https://doi.org/10.1097/NND.0000000000000285

    Newland, J. (2016). Editor’s Memo. The 28th Annual APRN Legislative Update beyond the 50 states. Nurse Practitioner, 41(1), 8. doi:10.1097/01.npr.0000475960.38934.73

    Rudner Lugo, N. (2016). Full Practice Authority for Advanced Practice Registered Nurses is a Gender Issue. OJIN, 21(2). doi:10.3912/OJIN.Vol21No02PPT54

    Texas Scope of Practice Policy – State Profile. (2018). Retrieved from
    http://scopeofpracticepolicy.org/states/tx/#

    MN566 NP I Scope of Practice Essay Example

  • MN568 Headaches Essay

    MN568 Headaches Essay

    Headaches

    Headaches are classified as primary and secondary. Primary headaches include migraine, tension-type, cluster, and other such as sinus-related or hormonal. Secondary headaches are red flags for trauma, metabolic, neurological or substance withdrawal (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Secondary headaches can be emergent because of intracranial pressure, infection, or disturbance of homeostasis (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Sudden onset of headaches and the patient describing the headache as “the worst headache they have ever had” require immediate attention for potential life-threatening causes such as subarachnoid hemorrhage, post lumbar puncture dissection or TIA’s (Dunphy, Windland-Brown, Porter, & Thomas, 2015). MN568 Headaches Essay.

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    Pathophysiology

    The pathophysiology of headaches is poorly understood. Migraine headaches are believed to be caused by a neurological dysfunction with involvement of the cranial nerves (Ferri, 2018). Not every patient with migraine headaches have been found to also have a neurological dysfunction. Migraine headaches are also believed to have a genetic disposition with an instability of the nervous system; specifically, with serotonin and neurotransmitters (Diener, Holle, Solbach, & Charly, 2016). Migraine headaches are often debilitating to patients. Patients with migraine headaches can experience photophobia, nausea, vomiting and an aura.

    Patients with cluster headaches are believed to have an overactive parasympathetic nervous system (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The headache causes mild-moderate pain and pressure. Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe tension headaches as pericranial myofascial tissues as the likely cause of these headaches. MN568 Headaches Essay.

    Cluster headaches are commonly rare and involve brief episodes of severe pain that is unilateral and disturbance of routine activities of daily living. The headache involves a short duration of severe pain. Dunphy et al. (2015) describe triggers of these painful headaches caused by hypersensitized ophthalmic nerve (Dunphy et al., 2015).

    Episodic

    Cluster headaches are episodic and short duration. MN568 Headaches Essay. The pain is severe and often does not last longer than an hour. The headaches are often misdiagnosed within one year of the first episode (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The pain of these headaches is deep and may involve the eyes and nose. The patient may experience tearing or nasal congestion.

    Acute

    Acute headaches are an onset of a severe headache and can be classified as a red flag. Red flag headaches or primary headaches present related to an emergent underlying condition. This type of headaches is often described as the worst headache the patient has ever had MN568 Headaches Essay. A patient who reports this type of headache, especially in the age group of fifty and older are red flags for intracranial hemorrhage, hypertensive emergencies, or potential carotid dissections (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). Acute headaches could also be caused by meningitis, head trauma, or cancerous tumors.

     

    Chronic

    Chronic headaches are daily tension-type headaches or migraine headaches. The headaches can be hormonal related in nature. Common trigger of a migraine headache may include: hormones such as low estrogen, disturbance in sleep cycle, food/drink agents such as caffeine, artificial sweeteners, processed or canned foods (Dunphy et al., 2015).

    Physical Assessment

    The nurse practitioner can assist in the determination of an old versus new headache by questioning the patient of the duration and frequency of the headache. Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe criteria of duration and frequency of primary headaches as a migraine is a headache that last of four to seventy-two hours, a cluster headache is brief with a fifteen to one hundred eighty-minute episode that occur numerous with a period of relapse (Hainer & Matheson, 2013). The nurse practitioner should ask specific questioning of duration and frequency of the patients headache for subjective data collection MN568 Headaches Essay.

    Hainer and Matheson (2013) describe subjective data that would be a red flag symptom includes: complaints of a sudden severe headache, headache triggers with exertion or cough, neurological symptoms, new onset of headache during or after pregnancy, and complaints of neck stiffness (Hainer & Matheson, 2013).

    The collection of an open-ended history and focused questions will assist the nurse practitioner in determining if the headache is primary or secondary. If the headache is primary focused questions will lead diagnostics of a migraine, tension, cluster or other headache MN568 Headaches Essay. A physical assessment with concentration on the neurological system and laboratory tests are essential before a final diagnosis. The physical exam should include assessment of the neurological system and cranial nerves II-X An assessment of the patient’s head and neck in attempts to mimic the pain is important. The physical assessment should be focused to alleviate muscular and skeletal disorders.

    It is important for the nurse practitioner to obtain vital subjective data from the patient and complete a thorough physical assessment to distinguish between benign and headaches that require urgent attention. MN568 Headaches Essay.

    Red flags through patient data collection and physical assessment that require urgent attention include complaints of a sudden onset of a severe headache, papilledema, altered mental status, high fever, muscle rigidity, nuchal rigidity, and symptoms of a CVA, or TIA (Dunphy et al., 2015).

    Evidence-Based Treatment Plan

    Diagnostic testing for a definite diagnosis should include a comprehensive blood panel, with electrolytes. Consideration should be taken to check the female patient’s hormone level, thyroid levels and urinalysis to rule out infection. The patient should have a computed tomography (CT) scan with or without contrast completed to the brain to rule out any abnormalities and diagnosis of secondary headaches, or a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

    Secondary headaches are treated mainly with over-the-counter analgesics. Evidence-based treatment for non-responsive conservative and over-the-counter treatment supports six classifications of medications: beta blockers, antidepressants, calcium channel blockers, antiepileptic, anticonvulsants, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (Ferri, 2018). MN568 Headaches Essay.

     

    Patient Education

               
    Management of headaches is patient-centered. Headaches can be managed with drug therapy. Patient education should include the proper use of the drug therapy and over-the-counter analgesics. Patients should be encouraged to participate in stress relieving activities such as meditation or physical activity that does not aggravate a headache. Complementary therapy such as acupuncture, herbal therapy, and plenty of sleep should be encouraged by the nurse practitioner (Dunphy et al., 2015). MN568 Headaches Essay. The nurse practitioner should encourage the patient to drink plenty of fluids, and to eat a healthy diet rich in vitamin C foods.

    Discussion

    Headache management should always be closely monitored and follow-up from the nurse practitioner is essential. Treatment plans should be closely monitored for the effectiveness of drug therapy, and potential referral to a specialist for the management of the headaches. MN568 Headaches Essay.

     

    References

    Diener, H. C., Holle, D., Solbach, K., & Charly, G. (2016). Medication-overuse headache: risk

    factors, pathophysiology, and management.
    Nature Reviews: Neurology, 12
    (10), 575-

    Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015)
    Primary Care: The

    Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing
    . Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

    Ferri, F. (2018).
    Ferri’s Clinical Advisor 2018: 5 books in
    1. Philadelphia, PA:  Elsevier.

    Hanier, B. L., & Matheson, E. M. (2013). Approach to Acute Headaches in Adults.
    American

    Family Physician, 15
    (87), 682-687. MN568 Headaches Essay.

  • Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion

    Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion

    Candidiasis Cutaneous

    Candidiasis cutaneous is an infection caused by
    candida.
    The organism causes topically infections, but serious disease complications can result from the infection. Common sites of the infection include: oral thrush, infant diaper dermatitis, vaginal infections, groin, toes, fingers, axillae, and perianal area (Dunphy, Winland-Brown, Thomas, & Carter, 2015).
    Candida
    infection can be systemic infecting the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Risk factors related to severe complications are secondary to immunocompromised patients following major surgery, immunocompromised patients, and infants.

    ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN, PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER NOW

    Incidence and Prevalence

    Women are at greater risk for development of vaginal candidiasis. Vaginal candidiasis often affects women after antibiotic therapy because the medications disrupt normal flora. The most common type of infectious agent is
    candida albicans
    (Ferri, 2018). Neonates and elderly are at higher risk of the infection. Patients with obesity, diabetes, receiving glucocorticoids, maceration have a higher risk of infection (Wolff, Johnson, Saaverdra, & Roh, 2017). Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

    Pathophysiology

    Cutaneous candidiasis occurs in moist areas of the skin. The fungal infection has two subgroups: cutaneous and chronic (Ferri, 2018). Physical presentation of cutaneous presents with areas of erythema, inflammation and shiny lesions around the perimeter of the erythema. Microscopic presentation of lesions shows yeast forms and sausage-looking forms (Wolff et al., 2017). Areas of the skin affected by cutaneous candidiasis form on the vagina, penile skin, overlapping skin folds, abdomen, nails, oral cavity, axillae, buttocks, and perianal area.

    Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion Chronic candidiasis is generally seen in hospitalized patients (Ferri, 2018). Gram stains of samples from the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract shows yeast cell formation. Areas of samples for chronic candidiasis from an endoscopy or lung biopsy will show cytokine secretion of T-cell subtypes (Campois et al., 2015).

    Physical Assessment

               
    Physical assessment of cutaneous candidiasis presenting on the skin reveals white, flaky patches with surrounding inflammation and erythema Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion. The patient may complain the skin is itchy with pain from the inflammation.

    Physical assessment of chronic candidiasis depends on the site of infection. Oral thrush will present with inflammation to the oral membrane with large white patches to the tongue and surrounding membranes. Patients may complain of burning, dry mouth, pain and dysphagia (Ferri, 2018). Diagnostic testing for chronic candidiasis includes cultures for a sputum sample and upper endoscopy with or without a sample.

    Evidence-Based Treatment

    Treatment for cutaneous candidiasis includes topical antifungal ointment or powder depending on the site of infection. Antifungal medications based on clinical guidelines for treatment are clotrimazole, econazole, and miconazole (Ferri, 2018). Patients with candidiasis of the finger/toenails will present with dystrophic nails with surrounding nail bed erythema with possible nail bed loss. Oral or topical antifungals are indicated depending on the severity of infection in the nail/toe beds. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

    Treatment for chronic and reoccurring candidiasis is with use of oral antifungals. Nystatin swish and swallow is used in treatment of oral thrush. Many candidiasis responds to fluconazole single dose in conjunction with a topical antifungal ointment (Ferri, 2018). High doses of fluconazole are indicated in patients with reoccurring infection by oral of intravenous route Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

    Patient Education

    Patients with topical infections should be educated to keep the area clean and dry for prevention and during treatment for candidiasis. Patients should be educated to complete all medications as instructed and to follow-up with provider in two weeks or before if symptoms worsen. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion.

    References

    Camporis, T. G., Zucoloto, A. Z., Araujo, E. J., Svidizinski, T. I., Alemeida, R. S., Quirino, F. S.,

    Haranp, R. M., & Felipe, I. (2015). Immunological and histopathological characterization

    of cutaneous candidiasis.
    Journal of Medical Microbiology, 64
    , 810-817. doi: 10.1099/

    jmm0.000095.

    Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015)
    Primary Care: The

    art and science of advanced practice nursing
    . Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

    Ferri, F. F. (2018).
    Ferri’s Clinical Advisor 2018: 5 Books in 1
    . Philadelphia, PA: Elsevier.

    Wolff, K., Johnson, R. A., Saavedra, A. P., & Roh, E. K. (2017).
    Fitzpatrick’s Color Atlas and

    Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology
    . United States of America: McGraw Hill Education. Candidiasis Cutaneous Essay – MN568 Unit 6 Discussion

  • PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

    PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

    Continuing on with step one of the Impact Model is the need to search for the studies to support your project. There are different classes of evidence that can guide changes in clinical practice.

    To prepare for this Assignment, review the following:

    Write a 2-page paper (exclusing title page and reference page) to address the following:

    • For the evidence-based problem that you identified in Week 1 for your project, locate two different articles/sources representing two different types of evidence from the following categories: (a) systematic review, (b) national clinical guidelines and/or (c) peer-reviewed quantitative / qualitative studies. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

    ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN, PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER NOW

    • For each article/source of evidence:

    o Summarize the article/source in your own words without the use of direct quotes.

    o Using the Peterson et al., (2014) article located in Week 2 Resources address the level of evidence (hierarchy). Then discuss the usefulness of the evidence from the article/source in addressing the identified practice problem. Be sure to site evidence in-text and in a final reference page.

    o Describe where your two sources fit into the hierarchy of evidence and explain why PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

    o Describe the value of these two sources in better understanding and addressing your evidence-based problem.

     

    Evidence-Based Practice Paper Guide

     
    Impact Model

    (Source:  Brown, S. (2014).
    Evidence-based nursing: The research practice connection. 
    Burlington, MA:  Jones and Bartlett Learning.) PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

     

    Step 1                  Ask and Search

    ASK
    – identify evidence-based practice (EBP) question

    Write in PICO format

    P –  patient population

    I  –  intervention/issue

    C – comparison intervention

    O – outcome(s)

     

    For example, in patients with acute myocardial infarction, does ambulation within the first 24 hours as compared to those who remain on bed rest for the first 48 hours result in increased participation in cardiac rehabilitation following discharge from the hospital?

     

    Be sure to have your project approved by your Instructor before continuing with the steps.

     

    Assignment Week 1:  Submit the completed Evidence-Based Problem and Question Template to the Week 1 Assignment link.
    (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

     

     

    SEARCH

    Identify search terms and search engines.  Find a minimum of five EBP articles that have been published within the last 5 years.  Be sure to look at the systematic reviews and the national clinical practice guidelines. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

     

    Assignment Week 2:  Submit a 1- to 2-page paper describing two sources

    of evidence you have found, where they fit in the hierarchy of evidence, and the value of these sources in better understanding your evidence-based practice problem.  Summarize the findings in the literature that you retrieved. Submit to the Week 2 assignment link.
    (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

     

    Step 2                        Appraise the literature

     

    Critique each article using the appropriate Appraisal Guide provided in
    Week 4 Resources
    . In the final paper, a critique of at least five of the articles used for your project will need to be submitted.

     

    PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Assignment Week 4:  Submit critiques of two of the articles using the appropriate Appraisal Guide provided to the
    Week 4 Resources
    .
    (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

     

     

    Step 3                         Design the project

     

    Describe each step of the project clearly and completely.  Clearly explain the recommended evidence-based change including the setting, health care consumers affected, and the rationale for the change.

     

    Assignment Week 5:  Submit a 2- to 3-page paper discussing your EBP plan.  Include the PICO clinical question, recommended change in practice, and the evidence to support the plan.
    (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

     

     

    Step 4                          EBP

     

    The final step is to discuss how the outcomes from the plan will be evaluated.  Identify the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the change.  For example, how many individuals following an acute myocardial infarction are participating in or have participated in the cardiac rehabilitation program? The final EBP plan needs to be developed into a power point for posting in the classroom. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence.

     

    Assignment Week 6: Develop a voice over PowerPoint presentation.

    Post the presentation in the Week 6 Discussion board by Day 3. Use the week 6 submission link to submit the final copy of the PowerPoint to your Instructor for grading.
    (Refer to the grading rubric in Course Information for assignment details.)

     

    Evidence_based_practice

    T

    he idea of sharing clinical experiences to improve patient care is not new to

    nurses. Florence Nightingale published her observations on cleanliness, nutrition,

    and fresh air in Notes on Nursing1 in 1860. Her work was the start of evidence-based

    nursing practice. More than 150 years and thousands of research studies later, the

    use of evidence to guide nursing practice is the expected standard of practice for both

    individual nurses and health care organizations. Scope and Standards of Practice2 and Code of Ethics3

    of the American Nurses Association both call for nurses to incorporate research evidence into

    clinical practice. Schools of nursing have added content on evidence-based practice to their curricula.4 Despite these efforts, barriers inhibit implementation of changes based on published evidence

    into bedside patient care. Overall, the barriers involve the characteristics of the nursing profession,

    organizational dynamics, and the nature of the research.5,6 Studies7,8 have consistently indicated

    that a nurse’s inability to both determine what evidence is ready for implementation into practice

    and then successfully develop processes to sustain an evidence-based practice change is a barrier.

    Choosing the Best PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

    Evidence to Guide Clinical

    Practice: Application of

    AACN Levels of Evidence

    MARY H. PETERSON, RN, DNP, MSN, NEA-BC

    SUSAN BARNASON, RN, PhD, APRN-CNS, CEN, CCRN

    BILL DONNELLY, RN, PMBA, BS, CCRN

    KATHLEEN HILL, RN, MSN, CCNS

    HELEN MILEY, RN, PhD, AG-ACNP, CCRN

    LISA RIGGS, RN, MSN, APRN, CCRN

    KIMBERLY WHITEMAN, RN, DNP, CCRN

    ©2014 American Association of Critical-Care Nurses doi: http://dx.doi.org/10.4037/ccn2014411

    Evidence-Based Practice

    Evidence-based nursing care is informed by research findings, clinical expertise, and patients’ values, and its

    use can improve patients’ outcomes. Use of research evidence in clinical practice is an expected standard of

    practice for nurses and health care organizations, but numerous barriers exist that create a gap between new

    knowledge and implementation of that knowledge to improve patient care. To help close that gap, the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses has developed many resources for clinicians, including practice alerts

    and a hierarchal rating system for levels of evidence. Using the levels of evidence, nurses can determine the

    strength of research studies, assess the findings, and evaluate the evidence for potential implementation into

    best practice. Evidence-based nursing care is a lifelong approach to clinical decision making and excellence in

    practice. (Critical Care Nurse. 2014;34[2]:58-68)

    58 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    In this article, we provide a brief history of the involvement of the American Association of Critical-Care

    Nurses (AACN) in evidence-based practice, explain the

    recent clarifications added to the 2009 AACN levels of

    evidence, and provide examples of how to change bedside practice in the clinical setting.

    History of AACN Involvement in

    Evidence-Based Practice

    Currently, AACN is the largest specialty nursing

    organization and a leader in the movement to improve

    patient care by applying the best scientific evidence. In

    1995, AACN began to publish Protocols for Practice, an

    evidence-based resource for clinical nurses. Each protocol provides a guide for appropriate selection of patients,

    use and application of management principles, initial

    and ongoing monitoring, discontinuation of therapies

    or interventions, and selected aspects of quality control.

    The protocols have covered topics such as hemodynamic

    monitoring and care for patients treated with mechanical

    ventilation. Subsequently, a volunteer workgroup was

    formed to connect clinicians with research to improve

    care of critically ill patients. The original research workgroup, known since 2007 as the Evidence-Based Practice

    Resources Workgroup (EBPRWG), focused on developing resources that synthesized current research. Resources

    were made readily available and in an easy-to-use format

    for use in care decisions at the bedside (eg, laminated

    pocket-sized cards for clinicians). The work of this group

    has continued for more than 2 decades. Current products available to AACN members include protocols for

    practice; practice alerts with tool kits, PowerPoint presentations, and audit tools; pocket card references; and

    defined levels of evidence for clinical nursing practice.

    Evolution of AACN Levels of Evidence

    The amount and availability of research supporting

    evidence-based practice can be both useful and overwhelming for critical care clinicians. Therefore, clinicians

    must critically evaluate research before attempting to put

    the findings into practice. Evaluation of research generally occurs on 2 levels: rating or grading the evidence by

    using a formal level-of-evidence system and individually

    critiquing the

    quality of the

    study. Determining the

    level of evidence is a key

    component of

    appraising the evidence.5,9,10 Levels or hierarchies of evidence are used to evaluate and grade evidence. The purpose of determining the level of evidence and then

    critiquing the study is to ensure that the evidence is credible (eg, reliable and valid) and appropriate for inclusion

    into practice.10 Critique questions and checklists are

    available in most nursing research and evidence-based

    practice texts to use as a starting point in evaluation.

    The most common method used to classify or determine the level of evidence is to rate the evidence according to the methodological rigor or design of the research

    study.10,11 The rigor of a study refers to the strict precision

    or exactness of the design. In general, findings from

    experimental research are considered stronger than findings from nonexperimental studies, and similar findings

    from more than 1 study are considered stronger than

    results of single studies. Systematic reviews of randomized controlled trials are considered the highest level of

    evidence, despite the inability to provide answers to all

    questions in clinical practice.11,12 For example, AACN

    and other organizations have done extensive research

    on healthy work environments. This topic would not be

    examined in a randomized controlled trial because of

    ethical and practical considerations. Randomly assigning nurses to work in various healthy or unhealthy work

    Authors

    Mary H. Peterson is an educator for Elsevier, Inc Live Review and

    Testing, Houston, Texas and a cardiovascular clinical nurse specialist.

    Susan Barnason is director of the DNP program at the University of

    Nebraska Medical Center in Lincoln.

    Bill Donnelly is a critical care staff nurse at Cooley Dickinson Hospital,

    Northampton, Massachusetts.

    Kathleen Hill is a clinical nurse specialist in the surgical intensive

    care unit at Cleveland Clinic, Cleveland, Ohio.

    Helen Miley is a specialty director adult-gero acute care nurse practitioner at Rutgers, The State University, Newark, New Jersey.

    Lisa Riggs is director of cardiovascular quality at Saint Luke’s Hospital

    of Kansas City, Kansas City, Missouri.

    Kimberly Whiteman is codirector of the DNP program at Waynesburg

    University, Waynesburg, Pennsylvania.

    Corresponding author: Mary H. Peterson, 543 Westwood Road, Alexander City, AL

    35010 (e-mail: petermh@uab.edu).

    To purchase electronic or print reprints, contact the American Association of CriticalCare Nurses, 101 Columbia, Aliso Viejo, CA 92656. Phone, (800) 899-1712 or (949)

    362-2050 (ext 532); fax, (949) 362-2049; e-mail, reprints@aacn.org.

    www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 59

    The purpose of determining the level of

    evidence and then critiquing the study is

    to ensure that the evidence is credible

    (eg, reliable and valid) and appropriate

    for inclusion into practice.

    environments could have an adverse effect on the quality

    and safety of patients receiving care. Therefore, most of

    the studies on healthy work environments have involved

    descriptive or qualitative study designs. Although the less

    rigorous design places descriptive and qualitative studies

    at a lower level than that of randomized control trials on

    the AACN rating system, the lower level is the highest

    level of evidence that the information on healthy work

    environments can ethically and practically provide.

    AACN Evidence-Rating System

    As interest in promoting evidence-based practice has

    grown, many professional organizations have adopted

    criteria to evaluate evidence and develop evidence-based

    guidelines for their members.5,12 A task force formed by

    AACN developed the organization’s original rating scale,

    which used Roman numerals; lower numerals represented

    lower levels

    of evidence. In

    1995, the

    time of the

    original AACN rating scale, only a few other organizations had published levels of evidence. Other professional

    hierarchies used a reverse order, with lower Roman

    numerals reflecting higher levels of evidence. This difference led to confusion among practitioners who were trying to use the original rating system in the clinical setting.13

    In 2008, AACN challenged the EBPRWG to review the

    rating system and make recommendations for improvement. The result was an alphabetical hierarchy in which

    the highest form of evidence was ranked as A and included

    meta-analyses and meta-syntheses of the results of controlled trials. Evidence from controlled trials was rated

    B. Level C evidence included findings from studies with

    a variety of research designs (Table 1). As in the previously published rating system, the 2008 system included

    results of theory-based evidence, expert opinion, and

    multiple case reports as level E evidence. Rapid

    advances in technology resulted in many products being

    used solely on the basis of the manufacturers’ recommendations. M was used to represent the body of practice recommendations provided by industry.14

    When the 2008 hierarchy of evidence was published,

    AACN welcomed feedback from its members about the

    changes. Since then, members have asked for clarification on the hierarchy, particularly an explanation of the

    rating of systematic reviews. Most rating systems rank

    systematic reviews of well-designed randomized controlled trials as the highest level of evidence. Many members thought that systematic reviews were misplaced at

    level C within the AACN levels of evidence. The request

    for clarification was referred to the 2011 annual meeting

    of the EBPRWG for review and discussion.

    Changes to the AACN Levels of

    Evidence in 2011

    The 2011-2012 EBPRWG responded to the concerns of

    AACN members by revising the 2008 levels of evidence.

    In recognition that the strength of a systematic review

    depends on the rigor of the studies included in the review,

    the workgroup distinguished between the 2 types of systematic reviews: randomized control trials and reviews of

    other studies. Systematic review of randomized controlled

    Category

    Experimental evidence

    Recommendations

    Level

    A

    B

    C

    D

    E

    M

    Description

    Meta-analysis or metasynthesis of multiple controlled studies with results that consistently support

    a specific action, intervention, or treatment (systematic review of a randomized controlled trial)

    Evidence from well-designed controlled studies, both randomized and nonrandomized, with results

    that consistently support a specific action, intervention, or treatment

    Evidence from qualitative, integrative reviews, or systematic reviews of qualitative, descriptive, or

    correlational studies or randomized controlled trials with inconsistent results

    Evidence from peer-reviewed professional organizational standards, with clinical studies to support

    recommendations

    Theory-based evidence from expert opinion or multiple case reports

    Manufacturer’s recommendation only

    Table 1 2012 American Association of Critical-Care Nurses levels of evidence with revisions to 2008 hierarchy

    60 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    Clinicians must determine the clinical relevance

    of the research (ie, if the results are applicable

    to and feasible in clinical practice).

    trials was added to level A, the highest level of evidence.

    This change makes the AACN system consistent with

    other published hierarchies used to rate evidence (eg,

    American Heart Association15). Systematic reviews of

    qualitative, descriptive, or correlational studies remained

    within level C, the highest level for nonexperimental

    studies. Also, the distinction between experimental and

    nonexperimental studies in the hierarchy was clarified.

    A schematic was developed to illustrate that levels

    A and B are for studies with an experimental design.

    Levels A, B, and C are all based on research (either experimental or nonexperimental designs) and are considered

    evidence. Levels D, E, and M are considered recommendations drawn from articles, theory, or manufacturers’ recommendations (see Figure). Table 2 gives an

    overview of the different types of research study designs

    and the definitions that were used by the workgroup

    to guide placement of study designs within the levels of

    evidence system.

    Levels of Evidence and

    AACN Practice Alerts

    The level of evidence is used to rate the strength of

    the study design, but it does not give clinicians information about relevance to practice. In addition to rating

    the studies on the basis of the design used, clinicians

    must also analyze and critique the individual studies for

    strengths and weaknesses. For instance, the results of a

    randomized controlled trial (level B) that did not follow

    strict criteria for selecting participants or patients might

    be biased. The findings of this type of study would not

    be as strong as those of a randomized controlled trial in

    which adherence to random selection was rigorous.

    Before implementing research into practice, clinicians

    Figure American Association of Critical-Care Nurses evidence-based care pyramid: levels of evidence 2012.

    a Experimental: testing the effects of an intervention or treatment on selected outcomes.

    b Nonexperimental: data are collected, but not to test the effects of an intervention or treatment on specific outcomes.

    Based on data from Melnyk and Fineout-Overholt.10

    A and B: Experimentala

    C, D, E, and M:

    Nonexperimentalb

    A, B, and C: Evidence-based

    recommendations

    D, E, and M:

    Expert opinion or

    manufacturer’s

    recommendations

    A

    B

    C

    D

    E

    M

    www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 61

    should examine individual studies to determine if the

    results were obtained by using sound (reliable and valid)

    scientific methods. Last, clinicians must determine the

    clinical relevance of the research (ie, if the results are

    applicable to and feasible in clinical practice). This evaluation or critique takes time to complete and is a learned

    skill that is developed with guided practice.

    The purpose of each AACN practice alert is to

    address both nursing and multidisciplinary activities of

    importance. The topic selected for each alert is important to the care of acutely and critically ill patients or

    their environments. Practice alerts do the following:

    • Close the gap between research and practice

    • Provide guidance

    • Standardize practice

    • Identify and inform about new advances and

    trends AACN practice alerts are defined as “succinct,

    dynamic directives supported by authoritative evidence

    to ensure excellence in practice and a safe and humane

    work environment.”16 The alerts are short directives

    designed for easy reference. Each one includes the

    scope and impact of a problem or topic, expected practice and nursing actions, supporting evidence for

    change, additional resources for implementation, and

    references. Because practice is dynamic, the practice

    alerts are reviewed and updated to reflect any researchbased changes.16

    To help members use research findings and apply

    them to practice, AACN began to develop practice alerts

    that present an overview of the current research evidence

    62 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    Level of

    evidence

    A

    A

    C

    B

    C

    C

    C

    C

    C

    Type of study

    Meta-analysis

    Systematic review

    If quantitative study

    If qualitative study

    Randomized

    controlled trial

    Cohort study

    Case-controlled

    study

    Integrative review

    Metasynthesis

    Qualitative research

    Definitionsa

    A technique for quantitatively integrating the results

    of multiple similar studies addressing the same

    research question

    A rigorous synthesis of research findings on a

    particular research question obtained by using

    systematic sampling and data collection procedures and a formal protocol

    A full experimental test of an intervention, involving

    random assignment to treatment groups

    A nonexperimental design in which a group of

    people (a cohort) is followed over time to study

    outcomes

    A nonexperimental research design involving the

    comparison of a case and a matched control5

    Reviews of qualitative studies, often taking the form

    of metasyntheses, which are rich sources for

    evidence-based practice

    Interpretive translations produced from the

    integration or comparison of findings from

    qualitative studies on a specific topic

    Investigation of phenomena, typically in an

    in-depth and holistic fashion, through the

    collection of rich narrative materials by using a

    flexible research design

    Strengths

    Statistical summary of articles of the same topic in research;

    process of using quantitative methods to summarize the

    results from multiple studies

    Review by experts in the field of all the research on a

    topic, who rigorously appraise the studies and offer the

    conclusion to support an intervention or not

    True experimental study in which the researchers are often

    blinded to which patients or participants are receiving an

    intervention; the strongest design for examining the

    cause and effect of an intervention; reduces bias

    Prospective longitudinal study that examines 2 groups of

    patients or participants (the cohort)

    Longitudinal study that retrospectively compares characteristics of an individual who has a certain type of condition that may not be very common; often used to

    identify variables that may predict the etiology or the

    course of a disease

    Compilation of studies that are reviewed and summarized;

    may incorporate research and nonresearch articles

    Compilation of qualitative studies looking for the common

    themes among similar research studies

    Method to develop a greater understanding of a topic using

    many different methods such as observation or interview

    Table 2 Level of evidence, types of research studies, definitions, strengths, limitations, and examples

    a Based on Polit and Beck.5 In an experimental design, the researcher controls the variable by randomly assigning patients or participants to different treatment conditions.

    In nonexperimental studies, the researcher collects data without introducing an intervention (also called observational).

    in a practical, easy-to-read guide for critical care nurses.

    The first practice alerts were published in 2004.

    A process was developed to ensure that the alerts

    represent a translation of evidence and best practices.

    Ideas for topics are generated from questions that AACN

    members have asked the organization’s clinical practice

    experts, AACN leaders, other members, and/or the

    EBPRWG. A modification of the Delphi technique, a

    widely used method for achieving unified opinion, is used

    to rank the importance of clinical questions. Criteria for

    ranking include incidence, prevalence, patient care implications, and timeliness.

    After topics are generated, the EBPRWG and AACN

    determine the names of experts in the clinical area of

    interest and commission the writing of the practice alert.

    Using standard guidelines prepared by AACN, the clinical experts write the practice alert and submit it to the

    EBPRWG for review and feedback. EBPRWG members

    seek feedback from their clinical peer network to assess

    the congruency of the proposed practice alert with clinical practice and available research. Clinicians are also

    asked to comment on the applicability of the practice

    alert’s recommendations to patient care.

    When the clinical review has been completed, revisions are completed if indicated. Then, communications

    experts at AACN prepare the practice alert for distribution to AACN members via the AACN website. Sample

    PowerPoint presentations to be used for education are

    prepared and can be downloaded for immediate use

    (eg, see the presentation for venous thromboembolism

    www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 63

    PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence Limitations

    Usually lengthy; combines like research studies

    Only as good as the search methods and

    databases used

    Time-consuming

    May require more sophisticated statistical

    analysis

    Observational

    No intervention performed

    May include attrition

    Retrospective

    Not as rigorous as systematic reviews; review

    limited to the literature

    Interpreted by the researcher

    Some believe it to be less rigorous

    Examples

    Cochrane Reviews

    Coventry et al

    Sex differences in symptoms presentation in acute myocardial infarction: a systematic review

    and meta-analysis. Heart Lung. 2011;40(6):477-491.

    Colnaghi et al

    Nasal continuous positive airway pressure with heliox in preterm infants with respiratory

    distress syndrome. Pediatrics. 2012;129(2):e333-e338.

    Dickson

    The relationship of work, self-care, and quality of life in a sample of older working adults

    with cardiovascular disease. Heart Lung. 2012;41(1):5-14.

    Cox

    Predictors of pressure ulcers in adult critical care patients. Am J Crit Care. 2011;20(5):364-375.

    Fisher

    Opioid tapering in children: a review of the literature. AACN Adv Crit Care. 2010;21(2):139-145.

    Palacious-Ceña et al

    Patients, intimate partners and family experiences of implantable cardioverter defibrillators:

    qualitative systematic review. J Adv Nurs. 2011;67(12):2537-2550.

    Hall et al PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

    The experiences of patients with pulmonary artery hypertension receiving continuous intravenous infusion of epoprostenol (Flolan) and their support persons. Heart Lung.

    2012;41(1):35-43.

    prevention17). Audit tools to help monitor compliance

    with a change in practice are provided and help clinicians determine if a change is being implemented as

    planned. For example, the audit tool for venous thromboembolism prevention provides 3 questions to use

    during a chart review to determine if best practices have

    been implemented at the bedside.17

    Understanding how the evidence in a practice alert is

    evaluated and how the recommendations are made provides users the confidence to implement the Actions for

    Practice section of the practice alert in individual care

    settings. Case 1 is an example of a practice alert and how

    information in the alert might be used in clinical practice.

    Published practice alerts are reviewed and revised by

    the EBPRWG on a cyclical basis (at least every 3 years)

    to determine the relevance to practice, the need to

    update the references, and to ensure that the recommendations reflect the current evidence. Each practice

    alert is reviewed and evaluated by selected members of

    the EBPRWG by using a standardized evaluation tool.

    The findings are shared with the 10-member EBPRWG

    for feedback. Recommendations are made to continue

    publishing the practice alert with minimal changes or

    to make major revisions based on new evidence. Either

    the original expert author or a newly commissioned

    expert completes major revisions, and the practice alert

    goes through the approval process as if it were a new alert.

    Future new and revised practice alerts will also

    include information on the search strategy used for the

    systematic review conducted by the author of the practice

    Some staff members in the intensive care unit

    (ICU) wanted to modify the visitation guidelines

    for the unit and so approached the nurse manager with their concerns. Many families of ICU patients

    desire unrestricted contact with their loved one, and

    the hospital guidelines currently allowed 24/7 family

    presence in the ICU. However, patients cannot always

    communicate their desire for family presence. Some

    nurses in the unit were concerned about patient privacy and interruption of therapies, whereas others welcomed the 24/7 family presence. The manager

    reviewed the AACN practice alert on family presence in

    the adult ICU18 and did the following:

    1. Summarized the 4 expected practices in the alert

    and compared them with the ICU’s policies.

    • Facilitate unrestricted access to hospitalized

    person for a chosen support person

    • Ensure that hospital policy promotes the presence of a chosen support person

    • Evaluate policies to be sure they are nondiscriminatory

    • Establish policies to limit family presence when

    safety is a concern or presence would be

    detrimental to medical therapies

    2. Shared the Supporting Evidence section from the

    practice alert with the staff members who raised

    concerns about the current policy. Discussed the

    recommendations for nursing actions and tried to

    help the staff gain perspective on the controversies and history behind the recommendations.

    3. Asked staff/unit governance members (practice

    council) to develop recommendations based on the

    Actions for Nursing Practice in the practice alert.

    • Are there practices that could be adopted

    from the recommendations?

    • Is there an opportunity to introduce this topic

    during orientation?

    • Are there other units who would want to collaborate on this issue?

    • Is there a compliance problem with visitation/presence on the part of staff or on the

    part of visitors?

    After deliberation and discussion, the nurses who

    originally brought up the concerns identified several

    practice areas on which to focus. They convinced the

    nurse educator and preceptors to add content from the

    practice alert on family presence in the ICU to the orientation checklist. A multidisciplinary team, including the

    medical director and a social worker, participated in

    enhancing and clarifying the visitation policy. Staff members determined that the mandate for open access had

    caused the original dissatisfaction. After review, they

    found a way that fit their workflow to identify the family

    spokesperson and communicate the current evidence.

    CASE 1

    Using a Practice Alert to Revise Current Practice

    64 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    alert. This useful information allows the user to examine

    the comprehensiveness of the review, databases searched,

    publication years included in the search, and the specific

    search terms that were used in deriving the evidence

    reported in the recommendations of the alert.19-21

    With practice alerts, critical care nurses have evidencebased guidelines and implementation strategies at their

    fingertips and know the strength of the evidence on

    which the recommendations were based. Case 2

    describes using the AACN practice alert on delirium22 to

    Patients are often hospitalized and admitted

    to critical care units unexpectedly because of

    life-threatening illnesses. After admission, the

    patient’s environment, daily routines, and control of

    activities of daily living are completely changed. The clock

    and calendar on the wall are both reminders of time

    and date, but the surroundings and the many health care

    workers that a patient encounters are unfamiliar. With

    the addition of unknown procedures and outcomes and

    a wakeful noisy environment, anxiety prevails. These

    circumstances all culminate in the patient experiencing

    a sense of unknown and a loss of independence,

    changes that can lead to challenging, unsafe behaviors.

    New studies conclude that awareness and early

    recognition of delirium may be key components in care

    and management of patients when the goal of care is

    fewer hospital days and decreased mortality.23-26 A patient

    may awaken in the night, think he or she is at home, and

    get out of bed with the intent of going to the kitchen.

    Although this behavior may be normal for the patient, it

    might be assessed by health care providers as confusion

    and the patient might be given a benzodiazepine. Historically, nursing practice to prevent the onset of delirium and

    falls has been to reorient the patient to circumstances, institute early mobilization when possible, discontinue use of

    invasive devices (eg, urinary catheter), and provide a sitter if

    necessary. Calling one of the patient’s family members to

    visit or sit with him or her was another common strategy.

    Nurses in this medical-surgical ICU recently noticed an

    increased use of lorazepam (Ativan) and self-extubations

    that they think are related to delirium. A small team of

    nurses decided to explore evidence-based interventions

    to decrease the incidence of delirium on their unit.

    The first step was to search the AACN website and

    find the practice alert on assessment and management

    of delirium. The nurses reviewed the practice alert, found

    the information helpful and credible, and decided to post

    the practice alert in the ICU. Nurses on the unit noticed

    that a gap existed between their current practices in caring for patients with delirium and the evidence. Input

    from the nurses was solicited for possible improvements

    in practice. Next a committee was formed to make recommendations for changes in practice to nurse leaders

    and the medical director. With consensus from nursing

    and medical leaders, a new nursing policy was written,

    and education about the practice change was planned.

    In an educational offering, the nurses explained the

    clinical problem to ICU staff members and demonstrated

    use of the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale27 and the

    Confusion Assessment Method for the ICU.28 Information

    was provided on predisposing and precipitating factors

    of delirium and on medications that put patients at risk.

    Spontaneous awakening trials; spontaneous breathing

    trials; and involvement of respiratory, physical, and occupational therapies for patients receiving mechanical ventilation were included in the planned practice change.

    The results of specific research trials discussed in the

    practice alert were reviewed for relevance to the clinical

    problem; these trials included Maximizing Efficacy of Targeted Sedation and Reducing Neurological Dysfunction

    (MENDS),29 Safety and Efficacy of Dexmedetomidine

    Compared With Midazolam (SEDCOM),30 Awakening

    and Breathing Controlled (ABC),31 and Modifying the

    Incidence of Delirium (MIND).32

    Plans were made to sustain the change, including

    presentation of evidence-based care of ICU patients

    with delirium during nursing orientation and clinical competency requirements. The Richmond Agitation-Sedation

    Scale27 and the Confusion Assessment Method for the

    ICU28 could be included in patients’ assessments at the

    time of admission if a patient had predisposing factors

    for delirium. The assessment results were included in

    daily rounds of those patients who met the criteria for

    delirium.

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    CASE 2

    Using a Practice Alert to Institute a New Practice

    www.ccnonline.org CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 65

    initiate a new practice with high level of evidence on a

    medical-surgical ICU.

    Use of Evidence From

    Nonexperimental Research

    The AACN levels of evidence tool also guides nurses

    in rating evidence based on nonexperimental research.

    Nurses often must make practice decisions that are

    based on the recommendations of experts or manufacturers. Experts in nursing practice have a comprehensive

    and

    authoritative knowledge of a

    particular

    area of

    nursing. These experts are regionally, nationally, or

    internationally recognized as authorities and have

    published supporting scholarly work related to their

    areas of nursing. Although manufacturers may sponsor

    research related to their products, bias due to implicit

    financial interests is an overriding factor when considering the research findings and recommendations.

    In itself, a low level of evidence such as level M

    (manufacturers’ recommendations) does not mean that

    the recommendations are not the current best practices.

    Often manufacturers’ recommendations are specific

    ways to use the equipment based on internal quality

    assurance, for example, a blood filter that is manufactured to last for a certain number of hours or a patient

    warmer that is calibrated so that a specific setting warms

    the patient to a normal temperature. In addition, many

    pieces of equipment used by clinicians have been approved

    by the Food and Drug Administration and have practice

    recommendations related to the approval process to

    ensure patients’ safety. Typically approval requires a

    Anurse in a spinal trauma unit recognized that

    the incidence of skin breakdown was high.

    Patients in the unit were acutely ill and immobile,

    making them at increased risk for pressure ulcers.

    Fecal incontinence adds to that risk. A new fecal containment device was purchased, and a nurse was

    charged with developing a procedure for use of the

    device. The nurse and his team of caregivers began to

    explore what needed to be done to write the new procedure and disseminate it to the ICU staff members.

    The vendor agreed to offer in-service education on the

    product, but the guidelines for nursing care extend

    beyond the specific practical details of product insertion.

    The nurse reviewed the AACN Procedure Manual for

    Critical Care33 and the manufacturer’s instructions for use

    of the fecal containment device. The evidence found was

    rated as level D (expert opinion) and level M (manufacturer’s recommendations). Procedures that are developed

    on the basis of evidence gleaned from expert opinion and

    manufacturers’ recommendations may be the only information available for new products and practices. The

    nurse recognized that publications may be outdated and

    that a search of the most current literature for pertinent

    research was a priority. He was obligated to do a thorough literature search to verify concurrence among

    sources and findings.

    The nurse appreciated that the practices might be

    fluid and could change over time as clinical use of the

    product led to new clinical studies and outcomes analysis. After reviewing all the available recommendations for

    the use of the fecal containment device, he decided to

    adapt or adopt the procedure from the AACN Procedure

    Manual for Critical Care. He wrote the procedure and

    included references from the manufacturer’s recommendations, the AACN manual, and other current research.

    He was careful to note on the procedure that the levels of

    evidence were D and M. He made plans for disseminating

    and educating staff about the new procedure. When

    exploring the literature on the subject of fecal incontinence

    containment, the nurse recognized that the use of this

    device would present an opportunity for clinical research

    that would add a higher level of evidence to the knowledge base. He made a note to discuss this prospect with

    his colleagues and the clinical nurse specialist.

    CASE 3

    Change in Clinical Practice Based on Expert Opinion and

    Manufacturers’ Recommendations

    66 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    With practice alerts, critical care nurses have

    evidence-based guidelines and implementation

    strategies at their fingertips and know the

    strength of the evidence on which the

    recommendations were based.

    considerable body of research and consensus of recognized experts. Case 3 describes using the AACN levels of

    evidence to assess information obtained from expert

    opinions or manufacturers’ recommendations.

    Summary

    The 2011-2013 EBPRWG continued the tradition of

    previous workgroups to move research to the patient

    bedside. Member of AACN provided feedback about the

    AACN levels of evidence published in 2009 that prompted

    a revision to further assist clinicians. The AACN rating

    system for levels of evidence is illustrated by the evidencebased care pyramid. The purpose of the schematic is to

    help bedside nurses determine the strength of evidence

    on the basis of the research methods and design. Clinicians must critically evaluate research before attempting

    to implement the findings into practice. The clinical relevance of any research must be evaluated as appropriate

    for inclusion into practice.

    The process for preparing practice alerts has been

    standardized so that clinicians can trust the recommendations and put them to immediate use at the bedside.

    Typically, practice alerts are reviewed and/or revised

    every 3 years, but new research may elicit an immediate

    review and revision. Members of the current workgroup

    have focused on shifting the use of scientific evidence

    from a research or evidence-based practice project to a

    practical guide for everyday nursing practice. Each practice alert has current resources for managers and clinicians

    to use for education, implementation, and evaluation of

    best practices. These resources include PowerPoint presentations, audit tool kits, and access to current literature. To that end, evidence-based patient care becomes a

    lifelong approach to clinical decision making to improve

    clinical outcomes and includes use of best evidence, clinical expertise, and values of patients and their families.

    The goal to implement best evidence to guide clinical

    practice is possible for the AACN community. CCN

    Now that you’ve read the article, create or contribute to an online discussion

    about this topic using eLetters. Just visit www.ccnonline.org and select the article

    you want to comment on. In the full-text or PDF view of the article, click

    “Responses” in the middle column and then “Submit a response.”

    www.ccnonline.org

    To learn more about evidence-based practice, read “EvidenceBased Practice Habits: Putting More Sacred Cows Out to Pasture”

    by Makic et al in Critical Care Nurse, April 2011;31:38-62. Available

    at www.ccnonline.org.

    25. Lin SM, Liu CY, Wang CH, et al. The impact of delirium on the survival of mechanically ventilated patients. Crit Care Med. 2004;32(11):

    2254-2259.

    26. Ouimet S, Kavanagh BP, Gottfried SB, Skrobik Y. Incidence, risk factors

    and consequences of ICU delirium. Intensive Care Med. 2007;33(1):66-73.

    27. Ely EW, Truman B, Shintani A, et al. Monitoring sedation status over

    time in ICU patients: the reliability and validity of the Richmond Agitation-Sedation Scale (RASS). JAMA. 2003;289(22):2983-2991.

    28. Ely EW. Confusion Assessment Method for the ICU: the complete training manual. http://www.mc.vanderbilt.edu/icudelirium/docs/CAM

    _ICU_training.pdf. Published 2002. Revised October 2012. Accessed

    January 16, 2014.

    29. Pandharipande PP, Pun BT, Herr DL, et al. Effect of sedation with

    dexmedetomidine vs lorazepam on acute brain dysfunction in mechanically ventilated patients: the MENDS randomized controlled trial.

    JAMA. 2007;298(22):2644-2653.

    30. Riker RR, Shehabi Y, Bokesch PM, et al; SEDCOM (Safety and Efficacy

    of Dexmedetomidine Compared With Midazolam) study group.

    Dexmedetomidine vs midazolam for sedation of critically ill patients: a

    randomized trial. JAMA. 2009;301(5):489-499.

    31. Girard TD, Kress JP, Fuchs BD, et al. Efficacy and safety of a paired sedation and ventilator weaning protocol for mechanically ventilated patients

    in intensive care (Awakening and Breathing Controlled trial): a randomised controlled trial. Lancet. 2008;371(9707):126-134.

    32. Girard TD, Pandharipande PP, Carson SS, et al; MIND Trial Investigators. Feasibility, efficacy, and safety of antipsychotics for intensive care

    unit delirium: the MIND randomized, placebo-controlled trial. Crit

    Care Med. 2010;38(2):428-437.

    33. Wiengard DL, ed. AACN Procedure Manual for Critical Care. 6th ed. St

    Louis, MO; Saunders Elsevier; 2011.

    68 CriticalCareNurse Vol 34, No. 2, APRIL 2014 www.ccnonline.org

    Financial Disclosures PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

    None reported.

    References

    1. Nightingale F. Notes on Nursing: What It Is and What It Is Not. New York,

    NY: D. Appleton & Co; 1860.

    2. American Nurses Association. Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice.

    2nd ed. Silver Spring, MD: American Nurses Association; 2010.

    3. American Nurses Association. Code of Ethics for Nurses With Interpretive

    Statements. Washington, DC: American Nurses Association; 2001.

    4. American Association of Colleges of Nursing. The Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice. Rev ed. Washington,

    DC: American Association of Colleges of Nursing; 2008. http://www

    .aacn.nche.edu/publications/order-form/baccalaureate-essentials.

    Accessed January 15, 2014.

    5. Polit DF, Beck CT. Resource Manual for Nursing Research: Generating and

    Assessing Evidence for Nursing Practice. 9th ed. Philadelphia, PA:

    Williams & Wilkins; 2012.

    6. Dawes M, Davies P, Gray A, Mant J, Seers K, Snowball R. Evidence-Based

    Practice: A Primer for Health Care Professionals. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA:

    Elsevier; 2005.

    7. Pravikoff DS, Tanner AB, Pierce ST. Readiness of US nurses for evidencebased practice. Am J Nurs. 2005;105(9):40-51.

    8. Thiel L, Ghosh Y. Determining registered nurses’ readiness for evidencebased practice. Worldviews Evid Based Nurs. 2008;5(4):182-192.

    9. Armola RR, Bourgault AM, Halm MA, et al; 2008-2009 Evidence-Based

    Practice Resource Work Group of the American Association of CriticalCare Nurses. Upgrading the American Association of Critical-Care

    Nurses’ evidence-leveling hierarchy. Am J Crit Care. 2009;18(5):405-409.

    10. Melnyk BM, Fineout-Overholt, E. Evidence-Based Practice in Nursing and

    Healthcare: A Guide to Best Practice. 2nd ed. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott

    Williams & Wilkins; 2011.

    11. Gugiu PC, Gugiu MR. A critical appraisal of standard guidelines for

    grading levels of evidence. Eval Health Prof. 2010;33(3):233-255.

    doi:10.1177/0163278710373980.

    12. Evans D. Hierarchy of evidence: a framework for ranking evidence evaluating healthcare interventions. J Clin Nurs. 2003;12(1):77-84.

    13. Cesario S, Morin K, Santa-Donato A. Evaluating the level of evidence of

    qualitative research. J Obstet Gynecol Neonatal Nurs. 2002;31(6):708-714.

    14. Armola RR, Bourgault AM, Halm MA, et al. AACN levels of evidence:

    what’s new? Crit Care Nurse. 2009;29(4):70-73.

    15. Gibbons RJ, Smith S, Antman E; American College of Cardiology;

    American Heart Association. American College of Cardiology/American

    Heart Association clinical practice guidelines, I: where do they come

    from? Circulation. 2003;107(23):2979-2986.

    16. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. AACN practice alerts. http://

    www.aacn.org/WD/Practice/Content/practicealerts.content?menu

    =Practice. Accessed January 17, 2014.

    17. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice alert: venous

    thromboembolism prevention. http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice

    /content/vte-prevention-practice-alert.pcms?menu=practice. Published

    April 2010. Accessed January 17, 2014.

    18. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. Practice alert: family

    presence: visitation in the adult ICU. http://www.aacn.org/wd/practice/content/practicealerts/family-visitation-icu-practice-alert.pcms?

    menu=practice. Published November 2011. Accessed January 17, 2014.

    19. Liberati A, Altman DG, Tetzlaff J, et al. The PRISMA statement for

    reporting systematic reviews and meta-analyses of studies that evaluate

    health care interventions: explanation and elaboration. J Clin Epidemiol.

    2009;62(10):e1-e34.

    20. Moher D, Liberati A, Tetzlaff J, Altman DG; PRISMA Group. Preferred

    reporting items for systematic reviews and meta-analyses: the PRISMA

    statement. J Clin Epidemiol. 2009;62(10):1006-1012.

    21. Moher D, Simera I, Schulz KF, Hoey J, Altman DG. Helping editors,

    peer reviewers and authors improve the clarity, completeness and transparency of reporting health research. BMC Med. 2008;6:13.

    doi:10.1186/1741-7015-6-13.

    22. American Association of Critical-Care Nurses. AACN practice alert:

    delirium assessment and management. http://www.aacn.org/WD

    /practice/docs/practicealerts/delirium-practice-alert-2011.pdf. Issued

    November 2011. Accessed January 16, 2014.

    23. Ely EW, Gautam S, Margolin R, et al. The impact of delirium in the

    intensive care unit on hospital length of stay. Intensive Care Med. 2001;

    27(12):1892-1900.

    24. Ely EW, Shintani A, Truman B, et al. Delirium as a predictor of mortality in mechanically ventilated patients in the intensive care unit. JAMA.

    2004;291(14):1753-1762.

    Copyright of Critical Care Nurse is the property of American Association of Critical-Care

    Nurses and its content may not be copied or emailed to multiple sites or posted to a listserv

    without the copyright holder’s express written permission. However, users may print,

    download, or email articles for individual use. PICOT and EBP Assignment: Finding the Research Evidence

  • MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

    MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

    Unit 5 Discussion

    Topic 3

    Mr. E.D. is a 63-year-old retired mail carrier who presents to his primary care provider for a routine follow up for his hypertension. He complains of a 4-day history of dysuria, increased urinary frequency, and nocturia. He states that he has been having fever and chills. Denies any recent sexual activity. On examination, his temperature is 99.5 F., pulse 75 and regular, respiratory rate 16 and unlabored, and blood pressure 135/85. He does not appear acutely ill and is in no apparent distress MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy. Examination of the abdomen was normal. A digital rectal exam revealed a moderately enlarged, firm, non-tender prostate gland. He states that he has severe urgency and difficulty urinating.

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    Subjective Data

    The use of questionnaire such as the American Urological Symptom Index is helpful to understand the severity of symptoms. The questionnaire reveals an overall score of mild, moderate and severe. Questions include asking the patient over the past month it is felt they did not fully empty the bladder, how often they have urinated in the past month within 2 hours, how often in the past month urinary flow started and stopped, how often in the past month it is difficult to urinate, how often in the past month urine flow is weak, how often in the past month staining with urination occurred, and how often in the past month they were woken in the night to urinate (Dunphy et al., 2015). MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

    Other subjective data would include questioning of when fever, chills first started and if the patient has taken anything to relieve the fever, chills. Family history of cancer and prostate cancer should be obtained from the patient. It is important to obtain history around any recent trauma to the urethral area and prostate.

     

    Differential Diagnosis

    1) Benign Prostate Hyperplasia

    2) Urinary Tract Infection

    3) Prostatitis

    4) Urethral obstruction/stricture related to trauma

    5) Unrelated etiologies- diabetes, neurogenic bladder.

    MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

     

    Physical Examination

    A focused subjective data collection will assist in diagnosis of benign prostate hypertrophy. A focused physical examination on the suprapubic area with concentration on the bladder should be completed. The practitioner should assess for bladder distention and complaints of pain with palpation. A digital rectal exam (DRE) will assist in determination of nodules and size of prostate based on fingers breath during the DRE. This exam may be contraindicated in patients with neurological anal sphincter disorders (Deters & Kin, 2017). MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy Measurement of the prostate gland can be assessed by fingers breath and reported in documentation. Caution should be taken when performing a digital rectal exam if infection is suspected because of the potential for sepsis by performing DRE.

    Diagnostics

    Diagnostic testing for this patient should include a prostate specific antigen (PSA) and consideration of a cystoscopy. A PSA level of 4.0ng/mL and lower is considered normal (National Cancer Institute, 2018). A PSA above 4.0ng/mL would be an indication for a referral to a urologist or a needle biopsy to be completed. The National Cancer Institute (2018) points out that twenty-five percent of men with an elevated PSA will not have prostate cancer (National Cancer Institute, 2018). The PSA can assist in helping a practitioner to not overtreat a patient with an enlarged prostate with medications that could affect the patients erectile function.

    Laboratory diagnostics for urinalysis, urine culture, comprehensive blood panel and complete blood count are indicated to rule out infection and electrolyte imbalances.

    The prostate symptom index is an eight-question test created by the American Urological Association to assist the practitioner by allowing the patient to rate how severe the symptoms can be affecting individual quality of life. An intravenous pyelogram can measure postvoid residual based on the severity of reported symptoms from the patient questionnaire. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

    Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy

    Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy is a common condition that affects men after age forty. The prostate gland begins to enlarge during puberty through around age twenty and begins to enlarge again in older years (Dunphy, Winland-Brown, Porter, & Thomas, 2015). The enlarged prostate interrupts the flow of urine and affects a male’s quality of life.  Some studies suggest a high incidence of BPH with obesity and lack of physical activity (Belaynen & Korownyki, 2016). Education for prevention of BPH from the nurse practitioner should include regular physical activity, a low fat diet, and reduction of alcohol consumption. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

    Evidence-based Treatment Plan

    Evidence-based treatment plan for mild symptoms (severity score >7) scale and for those with moderate-severe symptoms (severity score >8) that is not affecting quality of life (Deters, 2017). For patients with symptoms affecting their quality of life medication therapy such as alpha blockers, 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are supported as best practice once prostate cancer has been ruled out.

    First line therapy selective alpha₁-adrenergic receptors include silodosin 4 to 8mg daily, or terazosin 1 to 10mg daily (Dunphy et al., 2015). Long-acting alpha₁-adrenergic blockers are also useful in daily dosing and should be titrated gradually. 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors helps to reduce the size of the prostate by blocking the conversion of testosterone to DHT (Dunphy et al., 2015). Slow titration to maximum dosing is important to prevent hypotension with these medications. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.  Saw palmetto acts similar to 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors for nonpharmacological interventions. These pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions can improve quality of life for patients with BPH.

    Patients with BPH should be reevaluated annually and screened for prostate cancer. The nurse practitioner should assess the effectiveness of pharmacological or nonpharmacological approach and severity of the symptoms affecting the patient’s quality of life. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy.

    References

    Belaynen, M., & Korownyki, C. (2016). Treatment of lower symptoms in benign prostatic

    hypertrophy with α-blockers.
    Canadian Family Physician, 62
    , 523. MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

    Deters, L. A. (2017). Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) Treatment & Management.
    Medscape.

    Retrieved from https://emedicine.medscape.com/article/437359-treatment#d18

    Dunphy, L. M., Winland-Brown, J. E., Porter, B. O. & Thomas, D. J. (2015)
    Primary Care: The

    Art and Science of Advanced Practice Nursing
    . Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company.

    National Cancer Institute. (2018). Prostate-Specific-Antigen (PSA) Test. Retrieved from

    https://www.cancer.gov/types/prostate/psa-fact-sheet MN568 Unit 5 Discussion – benign prostate hypertrophy

  • MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Random Section 1

     

    Question 1

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following antibiotics provides the best coverage in acute or chronic sinusitis when gram-negative organisms are suspected?

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    Question options:

    a)

    Penicillin V

    b)

    Amoxicillin

    c)

    Levofloxacin

    d)

    Clindamycin

    Question 2

    MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    2 / 2 points

    A 65-year-old man presents to the clinician with complaints of increasing bilateral peripheral vision loss, poor night vision, and frequent prescription changes that started 6 months previously. Recently, he has also been seeing halos around lights. The clinician suspects chronic open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements is true concerning the diagnosis of chronic open-angle glaucoma?

    Question options:

    a)

    The presence of increased intraocular pressure measured by tonometry is definitive for the diagnosis of open-angle glaucoma.

    b)

    The clinician can definitively diagnosis open-angle glaucoma based on the subjective complaints of the patient.

    c)

    Physical diagnosis relies on gonioscopic evaluation of the angle by an ophthalmologist.

    d)

    Early diagnosis is essential in order to reverse any damage that has occurred to the optic nerve.

    Question 3

    0 / 2 points

    Joyce is taking a long-acting beta agonist for her asthma. What additional medication should she be taking? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    Inhaled corticosteroid

    b)

    Leukotriene receptor antagonist

    c)

    Systemic corticosteroid

    d)

    Methyl xanthenes

    Question 4

    2 / 2 points

    You are in the park playing with your children when you see that your friend is screaming for help. Her toddler has fallen and there is a stick lodged in his eye. The child is kicking and screaming and grabbing for the stick. You:

    Question options:

    a)

    instruct his mother to hold him securely and not allow him to touch the stick, then carefully remove the stick from the eye.

    b)

    stabilize the foreign object and accompany the mother and child to the local ER.

    c)

    find a water fountain, hold the child to the water, and flush the eye.

    d)

    call 911.

    Question 5

    2 / 2 points

    A patient presents with the following signs and symptoms: gradual onset of low-grade fever, marked fatigue, severe sore throat, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Based on the signs and symptoms alone, which of the following conditions is most likely the cause? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    Gonorrhea

    b)

    Mononucleosis

    c)

    Influenza

    d)

    Herpes zoster

    Question 6

    0 / 2 points

    Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss?

    Question options:

    a)

    Perforation of the tympanic membrane

    b)

    Otosclerosis

    c)

    Cholesteatoma

    d)

    Presbycusis

    Question 7

    0 / 2 points

    Which of the following statements regarding pulmonary function is true?

    Question options:

    a)

    Cigarette smoking accelerates the decline in pulmonary function tenfold.

    b)

    Smoking cessation can reverse most pathological changes.

    c)

    Cigarette smoking decreases mucus production.

    d)

    There is a normal age-related decline in pulmonary function.

    Question 8

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following statements regarding TST is true?

    Question options:

    a)

    Tests should be read 48 hours after the injection.

    b)

    The size of the TST reaction has nothing to do with erythema but is based solely on induration.

    c)

    It is a type V T cell-mediated immune response.

    d)

    The diameter of the induration is measured in centimeters.

    Question 9

    2 / 2 points

    A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain. On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    Otitis media

    b)

    Meniere’s disease

    c)

    Tinnitus

    d)

    Otitis externa

    Question 10

    2 / 2 points

    An acutely presenting, erythematous, tender lump within the eyelid is called:

    Question options:

    a)

    Blepharitis

    b)

    Hordeolum

    c)

    Chalazion

    d)

    Iritis

    Question 11

    0 / 2 points

    Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Vasomotor rhinitis

    b)

    Rhinitis medicamentosum

    c)

    Atrophic rhinitis

    d)

    Viral rhinitis

    Question 12

    2 / 2 points

    Most nosocomial pneumonias are caused by:

    Question options:

    a)

    Fungi

    b)

    Viruses

    c)

    Gram-negative bacteria

    d)

    Pneumococcal pneumonia

    Question 13

    2 / 2 points

    You are doing a cerumen extraction and touch the external meatus of your patient’s ear. He winces and starts coughing. What is the name of this reflex? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    Baker phenomenon

    b)

    Arnold reflex

    c)

    Cough reflex

    d)

    Tragus reflex

    Question 14

    2 / 2 points

    Sinusitis is considered chronic when there are episodes of prolonged inflammation with repeated or inadequately treated acute infection lasting greater than:

    Question options:

    a)

    4 weeks

    b)

    8 weeks

    c)

    12 weeks

    d)

    16 weeks

    Question 15

    2 / 2 points

    As diabetic retinopathy progresses, the presence of ‘cotton wool’ spots can be detected. Cotton wool spots refer to:

    Question options:

    a)

    Nerve fiber layer infarctions

    b)

    Blood vessel proliferation

    c)

    Venous beading

    d)

    Retinal hemorrhage

    Question 16

    2 / 2 points

    Which immunoglobulin mediates the type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involved in allergic rhinitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    IgA

    b)

    IgE

    c)

    IgG

    d)

    IgM

    Question 17

    2 / 2 points

    Cydney presents with a history of asthma. She has not been treated for a while. She complains of daily but not continual symptoms, greater than 1 week and at nighttime. She has been using her rescue inhaler. Her FEV1 is 60% to 80% predicted. How would you classify her asthma severity?

    Question options:

    a)

    Mild intermittent

    b)

    Mild persistent

    c)

    Moderate persistent

    d)

    Severe persistent

    Question 18

    2 / 2 points

    Acute angle-closure glaucoma involves a sudden severe rise in intraocular pressure. Which of the following ranges represents normal intraocular pressure? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    0 to 7 mm Hg

    b)

    8 to 21 mm Hg

    c)

    22 to 40 mm Hg

    d)

    40 to 80 mm Hg

    Question 19

    2 / 2 points

    What is the first-line recommended treatment against Group A â-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS), the most common cause of bacterial pharyngitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Penicillin

    b)

    Quinolone

    c)

    Cephalosporin

    d)

    Macrolide

    Question 20

    2 / 2 points

    Which type of stomatitis results in necrotic ulceration of the oral mucous membranes?

    Question options:

    a)

    Vincent’s stomatitis

    b)

    Allergic stomatitis

    c)

    Apthous stomatitis

    d)

    Herpetic stomatitis

    Question 21

    0 / 2 points

    Your patient states he has a strep throat infection. Which of the following symptoms makes you consider a viral etiology instead?

    Question options:

    a)

    Fever

    b)

    Headache

    c)

    Exudative pharyngitis

    d)

    Rhinorrhea

    Question 22

    0 / 2 points

    The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?

    Question options:

    a)

    Weber test

    b)

    Schwabach test

    c)

    Rinne test

    d)

    Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test

    Question 23

    0 / 2 points

    A patient presents to the clinician with a sore throat, fever of 100.7ϒF, and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. The clinician suspects strep throat and performs a rapid strep test that is negative. What would the next step be?

    Question options:

    a)

    The patient should be instructed to rest and increase fluid intake as the infection is most likely viral and will resolve without antibiotic treatment.

    b)

    Because the patient does not have strep throat, the clinician should start broad spectrum antibiotics in order to cover the offending pathogen.

    c)

    A throat culture should be performed to confirm the results of the rapid strep test.

    d)

    The patient should be treated with antibiotics for strep throat as the rapid strep test is not very sensitive.

    Question 24

    2 / 2 points

    Which information should be included when you are teaching your patient about the use of nicotine gum?

    Question options:

    a)

    The gum must be correctly chewed to a softened state and then placed in the buccal mucosa.

    b)

    Patients should not eat for 30 minutes prior to or during the use of the gum.

    c)

    Initially, one piece is chewed every 30 minutes while awake.

    d)

    Acidic foods and beverages should be encouraged during nicotine therapy.

    Question 25

    0 / 2 points

    Which of the following conditions is associated with cigarette smoking?

    Question options:

    a)

    Glaucoma

    b)

    Increased sperm quality

    c)

    Bladder cancer

    d)

    Eczema

    Question 26

    2 / 2 points

    The presence of hairy leukoplakia in a person with no other symptoms of immune suppression is strongly suggestive of which type of infection? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    HSV type 2

    b)

    HIV

    c)

    Pneumonia

    d)

    Syphilis

    Question 27

    2 / 2 points

    Which subtype of cataracts is characterized by significant nearsightedness and a slow indolent course?

    Question options:

    a)

    Nuclear cataracts

    b)

    Cortical cataracts

    c)

    Posterior cataracts

    d)

    Immature cataracts

    Question 28

    2 / 2 points

    Julie has a postnasal drip along with her cough. You assess her for:

    Question options:

    a)

    Asthma

    b)

    Sinusitis

    c)

    Allergic or vasomotor rhinitis

    d)

    Influenza

    Question 29

    0 / 2 points

    Otitis media is considered chronic when:

    Question options:

    a)

    Inflammation persists more than 3 months with intermittent or persistent otic discharge.

    b)

    There are more than six occurrences of otitis media in a 1-year period.

    c)

    Otitis media does not resolve after two courses of antibiotics.

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 30

    0 / 2 points

    Which of the following statements is true concerning the use of bilberry as a complementary therapy for cataracts?

    Question options:

    a)

    The body converts bilberry to vitamin A, which helps to maintain a healthy lens.

    b)

    Bilberry blocks an enzyme that leads to sorbitol accumulation that contributes to cataract formation in diabetes.

    c)

    Bilberry boosts oxygen and blood delivery to the eye.

    d)

    Bilberry is a good choice for patients with diabetes as it does not interact with antidiabetic drugs.

    Question 31

    0 / 2 points

    Nathan, a 32-year-old policeman, has a 15-pack-a-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. During every visit, he gets irate when you try to talk to him about quitting. What should you do?

    Question options:

    a)

    Hand him literature about smoking cessation at every visit.

    b)

    Wait until he is ready to talk to you about quitting.

    c)

    Document in the record that he is not ready to quit.

    d)

    Continue to ask him at every visit if he is ready to quit.

    Question 32

    2 / 2 points

    Patients with acute otitis media should be referred to a specialist in which of the following situations? MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    Question options:

    a)

    Concurrent vertigo or ataxia

    b)

    Failed closure of a ruptured tympanic membrane

    c)

    If symptoms worsen after 3 or 4 days of treatment

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 33

    2 / 2 points

    A patient with hypertension comes in and insists that one of his new medications is causing him to cough. When looking at his list of medications, you think the cough must be from:

    Question options:

    a)

    Metoprolol

    b)

    Clopidogrel

    c)

    Tadalafil

    d)

    Captopril

    Question 34

    0 / 2 points

    In which of the following situations would referral to a specialist be needed for sinusitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Recurrent sinusitis

    b)

    Allergic sinusitis

    c)

    Sinusitis that is refractory to antibiotic therapy

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 35

    2 / 2 points

    The clinician is seeing a patient complaining of red eye. The clinician suspects conjunctivitis. The presence of mucopurulent discharge suggests which type of conjunctivitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Viral conjunctivitis

    b)

    Keratoconjunctivitis

    c)

    Bacterial conjunctivitis

    d)

    Allergic conjunctivitis

    Question 36

    0 / 2 points

    You are using the CURB-65 clinical prediction tool to decide whether Mabel, whom you have diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), should be hospitalized or treated at home. Her score is 3. What should you do?

    Question options:

    a)

    Consider home treatment.

    b)

    Plan for a short inpatient hospitalization.

    c)

    Closely supervise her outpatient treatment.

    d)

    Hospitalize and consider admitting her to the intensive care unit.

    Question 37

    2 / 2 points

    Jason, age 62, has obstructive sleep apnea. What do you think is one of his contributing factors?

    Question options:

    a)

    He is a recovering alcoholic of 6 years.

    b)

    His collar size is 17 inches.

    c)

    He is the only person in his family who has this.

    d)

    He is extremely thin.

    Question 38

    2 / 2 points

    Jolene has breast cancer that has been staged as T1, N0, M0. What might this mean?

    Question options:

    a)

    The tumor size cannot be evaluated; the cancer has not spread to the lymph nodes; and the distant spread cannot be evaluated.

    b)

    The cancer is in situ; it is spreading into the lymph nodes, but the spread cannot be evaluated otherwise.

    c)

    The cancer is less than 2 cm in size and has not spread to the lymph nodes or other parts of the body.

    d)

    The cancer is about 5 cm in size; nearby lymph nodes cannot be evaluated; and there is no evidence of distant spreading.

    Question 39

    2 / 2 points

    Your patient is on Therabid for his asthma. You want to maintain his serum levels between:

    Question options:

    a)

    0 to 5 mcg/mL

    b)

    5 to 10 mcg/mL

    c)

    5 to 15 mcg/mL

    d)

    10 to 20 mcg/mL

    Question 40

    0 / 2 points

    Marta is taking TB drugs prophylactically. How do you instruct her to take them?

    MN568 Quiz Unit 2 Question options:

    a)

    Take them on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.

    b)

    Take them with aspirin (ASA) to prevent flushing.

    c)

    Take them with ibuprofen to prevent a headache.

    d)

    Take them with food to prevent nausea.

    Question 41

    0 / 2 points

    You have a patient who is a positive for Strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxacillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5 F in office). You also note significant adenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide:

    Question options:

    a)

    to refer the patient.

    b)

    that he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic.

    c)

    that his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed.

    d)

    that he possibly has mononucleosis concurrent with his strep infection.

    Question 42

    2 / 2 points

    A chronic cough lasts longer than:

    Question options:

    a)

    3 weeks

    b)

    1 month

    c)

    6 months

    d)

    8 weeks

    Question 43

    2 / 2 points

    Supplemental oxygen for how many hours per day has been shown to improve the mortality associated with COPD?

    Question options:

    a)

    3 to 5 hours

    b)

    6 to 10 hours

    c)

    11 to 14 hours

    d)

    15 to 18 hours

    Question 44

    2 / 2 points

    The most significant precipitating event leading to otitis media with effusion is:

    Question options:

    a)

    Pharyngitis

    b)

    Allergies

    c)

    Viral upper respiratory infection (URI)

    d)

    Perforation of the eardrum

    Question 45

    2 / 2 points

    African American patients seem to have a negative reaction to which of the following asthma medications?

    MN568 Quiz Unit 2Question options:

    a)

    Inhaled corticosteroids

    b)

    Long-term beta-agonist bronchodilators

    c)

    Leukotriene receptor agonists

    d)

    Oral corticosteroids

    Question 46

    2 / 2 points

    Why do you suspect that your patient may have a decreased response to the tuberculin skin test (TBT)?

    Question options:

    a)

    She is on a high-protein diet.

    b)

    She is an adolescent.

    c)

    She has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy.

    d)

    She just got over a cold.

    Question 47

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following medications used in the treatment of glaucoma works by constricting the pupils to open the angle and allow aqueous fluid to escape?

    Question options:

    a)

    Pilocarpine

    b)

    Timolol

    c)

    Brinzolamide

    d)

    Acetazolamide

    Question 48

    2 / 2 points

    Which ethnic group has the highest lung cancer incidence and mortality rates?

    Question options:

    a)

    African American men

    b)

    Scandinavian men and women

    c)

    Caucasian women

    d)

    Asian men

    Question 49

    2 / 2 points

    The barrel chest characteristic of emphysema is a result of:

    Question options:

    a)

    Chronic coughing

    b)

    Hyperinflation

    c)

    Polycythemia

    d)

    Pulmonary hypertension

    Question 50

    MN568 Quiz Unit 2

    2 / 2 points

    The most common cause of CAP is?

    Question options:

    a)

    Streptococcus pneumoniae

    b)

    Klebsiella pneumoniae

    c)

    Legionella pneumoniae

    d)

    Pseudomonas aeruginosa

  • MN568-Quiz 4

    MN568-Quiz 4 Random Section 1

     

    Question 1

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following is associated with celiac disease (celiac sprue)?

    Question options:

    a)

    Malabsorption

    b)

    Constipation

    c)

    Rectal bleeding

    d)

    Esophageal ulceration

    Question 2

    2 / 2 points

    The nurse practitioner (NP) suspects a patient has a peptic ulcer. Which of the following items on the history would lead the NP to this conclusion?

    MN568-Quiz 4Question options:

    a)

    Use of NSAIDs

    b)

    Cigarette smoker

    c)

    Ethanol consumption

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 3

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    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD?

    Question options:

    a)

    Eliminate coffee.

    b)

    Drink peppermint tea to relieve stomach distress.

    c)

    Recline and rest after meals.

    d)

    Limit the amount of antacids.

    Question 4

    2 / 2 points

    Which high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level is considered cardioprotective?

    Question options:

    a)

    Greater than 30

    b)

    Greater than 40

    c)

    Greater than 50

    d)

    Greater than 60

    Question 5

    2 / 2 points

    A patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following should be included in the patient’s differential diagnosis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Gastroenteritis

    b)

    Inflammatory bowel disease

    c)

    Lactase deficiency

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 6

    2 / 2 points

    There are four stages of heart failure, classified as A to D, that describe the evolution and progression of disease. In which stage are patients hospitalized or treated with specialized interventions or hospice care for refractory symptoms of heart failure despite medical therapy?

    Question options:

    a)

    Stage A

    b)

    Stage B

    c)

    Stage C

    d)

    Stage D

    Question 7

    2 / 2 points

    A 28-year-old patient is seen in the clinic with colicky abdominal pain particular with meals. She has frequent constipation, flatulence, and abdominal distension. Which of the data make a diagnosis of diverticulitis unlikely?

    Question options:

    a)

    Her age

    b)

    Frequent constipation

    c)

    Flatulence

    d)

    Colicky abdominal pain

    Question 8

    0 / 2 points

    Which ECG change is typical of cardiac ischemia?

    Question options:

    a)

    T-wave inversion

    b)

    ST-segment elevation

    c)

    Significant Q wave

    d)

    U-wave

    Question 9

    2 / 2 points

    What percentage of patients with angina pectoris will have simultaneous dyspnea, caused by transient increase in pulmonary venous pressures that accompany ventricular stiffening during an episode of myocardial ischemia?

    Question options:

    a)

    About 20%

    b)

    About 30%

    c)

    About 50%

    d)

    Almost all

    Question 10

    0 / 2 points

    A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report?

    Question options:

    a)

    This is a premalignant tissue.

    b)

    This tissue is resistant to gastric acid.

    c)

    This tissue supports healing of the esophagus.

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 11

    0 / 2 points

    A blood pressure (BP) of 150/90 is considered:

    Question options:

    a)

    Stage 2 hypertension

    b)

    Hypertensive

    c)

    Normal in healthy older adults

    d)

    Acceptable if the patient has DM

    Question 12

    0 / 2 points

    A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the-counter cold preparations but feels worse. The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about a month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point?

    Question options:

    a)

    Stool culture

    b)

    Liver enzymes

    c)

    Antihepatitis D virus

    d)

    Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

    Question 13

    0 / 2 points

    A 29-year-old Englishman is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer?

    Question options:

    a)

    His gender

    b)

    His age

    c)

    His use of Alka-Seltzer

    d)

    His ethnic origin

    Question 14

    2 / 2 points

    In the CHADS2 Index for the stroke risk score for AF, the ‘A’ stands for:

    Question options:

    a)

    Anticoagulation

    b)

    Autoimmune disease

    c)

    Age

    d)

    Antihypertension

    Question 15

    2 / 2 points

    Which test has long been considered the gold standard for a diagnosis of venous thromboembolism?

    Question options:

    a)

    Ultrasound

    b)

    Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

    c)

    Ascending venogram

    d)

    D-dimer

    Question 16

    2 / 2 points

    Statins are approved for which age group?

    Question options:

    a)

    Children over the age of 2

    b)

    Children over the age of 6

    c)

    Children over the age of 10

    d)

    Only adolescents and adults

    Question 17

    0 / 2 points

    George, age 64, has cardiovascular disease (CVD), a total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL, and a systolic BP of 158. He is being treated for hypertension. You are doing a Framingham Risk Assessment on him. Which assessment factor would give him the highest number of points on the scale?

    Question options:

    a)

    His age

    b)

    His cholesterol level

    c)

    His systolic BP

    d)

    The fact that he is on antihypertensive medication

    Question 18

    2 / 2 points

    The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association states which of the following regarding the use of non-statin lipid-lowering agents?

    Question options:

    a)

    Nicotinic acid derivatives are effective for lowering LDL and triglycerides (TGs).

    b)

    Bile acid sequestrates increase HDL.

    c)

    Cholesterol absorption inhibitors decrease LDL.

    d)

    There is no sufficient evidence to use non-statin lipid-drugs.

    Question 19

    2 / 2 points

    A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the history and physical examination?

    Question options:

    a)

    Digital rectal exam

    b)

    Pelvic exam

    c)

    Sexual history

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 20

    2 / 2 points

    When teaching post MI patients about their NTG tablets, the clinician should stress that the tablets should remain in the light-resistant bottle in which they are packaged and should not be put in another pill box or remain in areas that are or could become warm and humid. Once opened, the bottle must be dated and discarded after how many months?

    Question options:

    a)

    1 month

    b)

    3 months

    c)

    6 months

    d)

    As long as the tablets are kept in this special bottle, they will last forever.

    Question 21

    2 / 2 points

    A patient is diagnosed with giardia after a backpacking trip in the mountains. Which of the following would be an appropriate treatment?

    Question options:

    a)

    Vancomycin

    b)

    Penicillin

    c)

    Metronidazole

    d)

    Bactrim

    Question 22

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following is abundant in the heart and rapidly rises in the bloodstream in the presence of heart failure, making it a good diagnostic test?

    Question options:

    a)

    B-type natriuretic peptide

    b)

    C-reactive protein

    c)

    Serum albumin

    d)

    Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

    Question 23

    0 / 2 points

    In which type of arterioventricular (AV) block does the pulse rate (PR) interval lengthen until a beat is dropped?

    Question options:

    a)

    First-degree AV block

    b)

    Second-degree Mobitz I AV block

    c)

    Second-degree Mobitz II AV block

    d)

    Third-degree AV block

    Question 24

    2 / 2 points

    Nitroglycerine (NTG) is given for a patient having ischemic chest pain. One tablet or one spray should be used under the tongue every 5 minutes for three doses. What should be done if the pain has not been relieved after three doses?

    Question options:

    a)

    911 should be called, and the patient should be transported immediately to the emergency department.

    b)

    One more dose of NTG may be tried.

    c)

    The person should be given two aspirin to chew.

    d)

    A portable defibrillator should be located to ascertain the cardiac rhythm.

    Question 25

    0 / 2 points

    For the best therapeutic effect after a myocardial infarction (MI), thrombolytics should be administered within the first 3 hours (ideally 30 minutes) of symptom onset. Studies have shown, however, that thrombolytic therapy can be of benefit up to how many hours after the initial presentation of MI symptoms?

    Question options:

    a)

    6 hours

    b)

    8 hours

    c)

    10 hours

    d)

    12 hours

    Question 26

    2 / 2 points

    A 25-year-old accountant is seen in the clinic complaining of crampy abdominal pain after meals. She is often constipated and takes laxatives, which are followed by a couple of days of diarrhea. She temporarily feels better after a bowel movement. She states she is embarrassed by flatulence and has abdominal distension. She has had no weight loss or blood in her stool. This problem has gone on for about 6 months. What should the next step be?

    Question options:

    a)

    Obtain a complete history.

    b)

    Order a barium enema.

    c)

    Schedule a Bernstein’s test.

    d)

    Prescribe a trial of antispasmodics.

    Question 27

    MN568-Quiz 4

    0 / 2 points

    A patient is seen in the office with complaints of six to seven liquid bowel movements per day. Which of the following assessment findings would lead the NP to a diagnosis of inflammatory bowel disease?

    Question options:

    a)

    Intermittent constipation with periods of diarrhea

    b)

    Wakens at night with diarrhea

    c)

    History of international travel

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 28

    2 / 2 points

    Which type of angina do you suspect in Harvey, who complains of chest pain that occurs during sleep and most often in the early morning hours?

    Question options:

    a)

    Stable angina

    b)

    Unstable angina

    c)

    Variant (Prinzmetal’s angina)

    d)

    Probably not angina but hiatal hernia

    Question 29

    0 / 2 points

    A 22-year-old is seen complaining of vague belly pain. This type of pain is seen at what point in appendicitis?

    MN568-Quiz 4 Question options:

    a)

    Very early

    b)

    3 to 4 hours after perforation

    c)

    Late in inflammation

    d)

    Appendicitis never presents with vague pain.

    Question 30

    0 / 2 points

    Which group would most benefit from statins?

    Question options:

    a)

    Those with a low density lipoprotein-cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dL

    b)

    Individuals with clinical arteriosclerotic cardiovascular disease

    c)

    Individuals with a 10-year risk greater than 10%

    d)

    Individuals of all ages with diabetes mellitus (DM)

    Question 31

    0 / 2 points

    A 46-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic with abdominal pain. Which of the following tests is essential for this patient?

    Question options:

    a)

    CBC with differential

    b)

    Urine human chorionic gonadotropin

    c)

    Barium enema

    d)

    Computed tomography of the abdomen

    Question 32

    2 / 2 points

    The patient with GERD should be instructed to eliminate which of these activities?

    Question options:

    a)

    Swimming

    b)

    Weight lifting

    c)

    Golfing

    d)

    Walking

    Question 33

    2 / 2 points

    A patient comes to the office complaining of constipation. The patient lists all of the following medications. Which drug could be responsible for the constipation?

    Question options:

    a)

    Multivitamin

    b)

    Magnesium hydroxide

    c)

    Pepto-Bismol®

    d)

    Ibuprofen

    Question 34

    0 / 2 points

    Mr. J. K., 38 years old, is 5 feet 8 inches tall and weighs 189 pounds. He reports that he has had intermittent heartburn for several months and takes Tums® with temporary relief. MN568-Quiz 4. He has been waking during the night with a burning sensation in his chest. Which additional information would lead you to believe that gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is the cause of his pain?

    Question options:

    a)

    The pain seems better when he smokes to relieve his nerves.

    b)

    Coffee and fried foods don’t bother him,

    c)

    He wakes at night coughing with a bad taste in his mouth.

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 35

    0 / 2 points

    If chest pain can be alleviated with time, analgesics, and heat applications, what might the differential diagnosis be?

    Question options:

    a)

    Peptic ulcer

    b)

    Hiatal hernia

    c)

    Costochondritis

    d)

    Pericarditis

    Question 36

    2 / 2 points

    A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Endometriosis

    b)

    Colon cancer

    c)

    Diverticulitis

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 37

    MN568-Quiz 4

    2 / 2 points

    A patient is seen with dark-colored urine, and the urine dipstick reveals a high level of bilirubin. Which of the following could be a cause of this problem?

    Question options:

    a)

    Increased breakdown of red blood cells

    b)

    Inadequate hepatocyte function

    c)

    Biliary obstruction

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 38

    0 / 2 points

    A 28-year-old patient is seen with complaints of diarrhea. Which of the following responses to the history questions would help the primary care physician (PCP) establish the diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

    Question options:

    a)

    Feels relief after a bowel movement

    b)

    Sometimes is constipated

    c)

    Does not defecate in the middle of the night

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 39

    0 / 2 points

    On further questioning, the 21-year-old patient with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a day-care center. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis?

    Question options:

    a)

    Hepatitis A virus (HAV) IgM

    b)

    HAV IgG

    c)

    Anti-HAcAg

    d)

    Anti-HAsAg

    Question 40

    0 / 2 points

    A patient has acute pancreatitis with seven of the diagnostic criteria from Ranson’s criteria. In order to plan care, the NP must understand that this criteria score has which of the following meanings?

    Question options:

    a)

    A high mortality rate

    b)

    An increased chance of recurrence

    c)

    A 7% chance of the disease becoming chronic

    d)

    All of the above

    Question 41

    2 / 2 points

    Sandra has palpitations that occur with muscle twitching, paresthesia, and fatigue. What specific diagnostic test might help determine the cause? MN568-Quiz 4.

    Question options:

    a)

    Serum calcium

    b)

    Electrocardiogram (ECG)

    c)

    Thyroid-stimulating hormone test

    d)

    Complete blood cell count

    Question 42

    2 / 2 points

    What value on the ankle-brachial index diagnoses peripheral artery disease?

    Question options:

    a)

    Less than 0.25

    b)

    Less than 0.50

    c)

    Less than 0.90

    d)

    Greater than 1

    Question 43

    2 / 2 points

    Which heart sound may be heard with poorly controlled hypertension, angina, and ischemic heart disease?

    Question options:

    a)

    A physiologic split S2

    b)

    A fixed split S2

    c)

    S3

    d)

    S4

    Question 44

    2 / 2 points

    You are assessing Sigred for metabolic syndrome. Which of her parameters is indicative of this syndrome?

    Question options:

    a)

    Her waist is 36 inches.

    b)

    Her triglyceride level is 140 mg/dL.

    c)

    Her BP is 128/84.

    d)

    Her fasting blood sugar (BS) is 108 mg/dL.

    Question 45

    0 / 2 points

    Which of the following statements about dabigatran is true?

    Question options:

    a)

    It is difficult to keep the patient in therapeutic range.

    b)

    Anticoagulation cannot be immediately reversed.

    c)

    It allows for the use of tPA if the patient has a stroke despite anticoagulation.

    d)

    None of the statements are true.

    Question 46

    2 / 2 points

    Samuel is going to the dentist for some work and must take endocarditis prophylaxis because of his history of:

    MN568-Quiz 4 Question options:

    a)

    Severe asthma

    b)

    A common valvular lesion

    c)

    Severe hypertension

    d)

    A prosthetic heart valve

    Question 47

    2 / 2 points

    You just started Martha on HTN therapy. The Eighth Joint National Committee recommends that if her goal BP is not reached in what length of time, you should increase the initial drug or add a second drug to it?

    Question options:

    a)

    1 month

    b)

    3 months

    c)

    6 months

    d)

    1 year

    Question 48

    2 / 2 points

    Which of the following is most effective in diagnosing appendicitis?

    Question options:

    a)

    History and physical

    b)

    Sedimentation rate

    c)

    Kidney, ureter, and bladder x-ray

    d)

    Complete blood count (CBC) with differentials

    Question 49

    0 / 2 points

    Which pain characteristic is usually indicative of cardiac pathology?

    Question options:

    a)

    Fleeting

    b)

    Moving

    c)

    Diffuse

    d)

    Localized

    Question 50

    0 / 2 points

    Jamie, age 55, has just started on a statin after having his liver function tests (LFTs) come back normal. He now asks you how often he has to have the LFTs repeated. What do you tell him?

    Question options:

    a)

    Initially in 6 weeks

    b)

    Every 3 months

    c)

    Every 6 months

    d)

    It’s no longer necessary for his statin regimen.

    MN568-Quiz 4