Category: Nursing

  • Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Physical assessment
     is an inevitable procedure not just for nurses but also for doctors. Establishing a good assessment would later-on provide a more accurate diagnosis, planning, and better interventions and evaluation, that’s why it’s important to have a good and strong assessment.

    Below is your ultimate guide in performing a head-to-toe physical assessment. You might want to print a copy and bring it during your hospital duty, making your physical assessment better and more accurate!

    Skull, Scalp & Hair

    Observe the size, shape, and contour of the skull.

    Observe scalp in several areas by separating the hair at various locations; inquire about any injuries. Note presence of lice, nits, dandruff or lesions.

    Palpate the head by running the pads of the fingers over the entire surface of the skull; inquire about tenderness upon doing so. (wear gloves if necessary)

    Observe and feel the hair condition. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Normal Findings:

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    Skull

    Generally round, with prominences in the frontal and occipital area. (Normocephalic).

    No tenderness noted upon palpation.

    Scalp

    Lighter in color than the complexion.

    Can be moist or oily.

    No scars noted.

    Free from lice, nits, and dandruff.

    No lesions should be noted.

    No tenderness or masses on palpation.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Hair

    Can be black, brown or burgundy depending on the race.

    Evenly distributed covers the whole scalp

    No evidence of Alopecia

    Maybe thick or thin, coarse or smooth.

    Neither brittle nor dry.

    Face

    Observe the face for shape.

    Inspect for Symmetry.

    Inspect for the palpebral fissure (distance between the eyelids); should be equal in both eyes.

    Ask the patient to smile, There should be bilateral Nasolabial fold (creases extending from the angle of the corner of the mouth) Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide. Slight asymmetry in the fold is normal.

    If both are met, then the Face is symmetrical

    Test the functioning of Cranial Nerves that innervates the facial structures

    CN V (Trigeminal)

    1. Sensory Function

    Ask the client to close the eyes.

    Run cotton wisp over the forehead, cheek, and jaw on both sides of the face.

    Ask the client if he/she feels it, and where she feels it.

    Check for corneal reflex using cotton wisp.

    The normal response in blinking.

    2. Motor function

    Ask the client to chew or clench the jaw.

    The client should be able to clench or chew with strength and force.

    CN VII (Facial)

    1. Sensory function (This nerve innervate the anterior 2/3 of the tongue).

    Place a sweet, sour, salty, or bitter substance near the tip of the tongue.

    Normally, the client can identify the taste. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    2. Motor function

    Ask the client to smile, frown, raise eyebrow, close eyelids, whistle, or puff the cheeks.

    Normal Findings

    Shape may be oval or rounded.

    Face is symmetrical.

    No involuntary muscle movements.

    Can move facial muscles at will.

    Intact cranial nerve V and VII.

    Eyebrows, Eyes, and Eyelashes

    All three structures are assessed using the modality of inspection.

    Normal findings

    Eyebrows

    Symmetrical and in line with each other.

    Maybe black, brown or blond depending on race.

    Evenly distributed.

    Severe exophthalmos

    Eyes

    Evenly placed and inline with each other.

    None protruding.

    Equal palpebral fissure.

    Eyelashes

    Color dependent on race.

    Evenly distributed.

    Turned outward.

    Eyelids and Lacrimal Apparatus

    Inspect the eyelids for position and symmetry.

    Palpate the eyelids for the lacrimal glands.

    To examine the lacrimal gland, the examiner, lightly slide the pad of the index finger against the client’s upper orbital rim.

    Inquire for any pain or tenderness.

    Palpate for the nasolacrimal duct to check for obstruction. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    To assess the nasolacrimal duct, the examiner presses with the index finger against the client’s lower inner orbital rim, at the lacrimal sac, 
    NOT AGAINST THE NOSE.

    In the presence of blockage, this will cause regurgitation of fluid in the puncta

    Normal Findings

    Eyelids

    Upper eyelids cover the small portion of the iris, cornea, and sclera when eyes are open.

    No PTOSIS noted. (Drooping of upper eyelids).

    Meets completely when eyes are closed.

    Symmetrical.

    Lacrimal Apparatus

    Lacrimal gland is normally non palpable.

    No tenderness on palpation.

    No regurgitation from the nasolacrimal duct.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Conjunctivae

    The bulbar and palpebral conjunctivae are examined by separating the eyelids widely and having the client look up, down and to each side. When separating the lids, the examiner should exert NO PRESSURE against the eyeball; rather, the examiner should hold the lids against the ridges of the bony orbit surrounding the eye.

    In examining the palpebral conjunctiva, everting the upper eyelid in necessary and is done as follow:

    Ask the client to look down but keep his eyes slightly open. This relaxes the levator muscles, whereas closing the eyes contracts the orbicularis muscle, preventing lid eversion.

    Gently grasp the upper eyelashes and pull gently downward. Do not pull the lashes outward or upward; this, too, causes muscles contraction.

    Place a cotton tip application about I can above the lid margin and push gently downward with the applicator while still holding the lashes. This everts the lid.

    Hold the lashes of the everted lid against the upper ridge of the bony orbit, just beneath the eyebrow, never pushing against the eyebrow.

    Examine the lid for swelling, infection, and presence of foreign objects.

    To return the lid to its normal position, move the lid slightly forward and ask the client to look up and to blink. The lid returns easily to its normal position.

    Normal Findings

    Both conjunctivae are pinkish or red in color.

    With presence of many minutes capillaries.

    Moist

    No ulcers

    No foreign objects

    Sclerae

    The sclerae are easily inspected during the assessment of the conjunctivae.

    Normal Findings

    Sclerae is white in color (anicteric sclera)

    No yellowish discoloration (icteric sclera).

    Some capillaries may be visible.

    Some people may have pigmented positions.

    Cornea

    The cornea is best inspected by directing penlight obliquely from several positions.

    Normal findings

    There should be no irregularities on the surface.

    Looks smooth.

    The cornea is clear or transparent. The features of the iris should be fully visible through the cornea.

    There is a positive corneal reflex.

    Anterior Chamber and Iris

    The anterior chamber and the iris are easily inspected in conjunction with the cornea. The technique of oblique illumination is also useful in assessing the anterior chamber.

    Normal Findings

    The anterior chamber is transparent.

    No noted any visible materials.

    Color of the iris depends on the person’s race (black, blue, brown or green).

    From the side view, the iris should appear flat and should not be bulging forward. There should be NO crescent shadow casted on the other side when illuminated from one side.

    Pupils

    Examination of the pupils involves several inspections, including assessment of the size, shape reaction to light is directed is observed for direct response of constriction. Simultaneously, the other eye is observed for consensual response of constriction.

    The test for papillary accommodation is the examination for the change in papillary size as it is switched from a distant to a near object.

    Ask the client to stare at the objects across the room.

    Then ask the client to fix his gaze on the examiner’s index fingers, which is placed 5 – 5 inches from the client’s nose.

    Visualization of distant objects normally causes papillary dilation and visualization of nearer objects causes papillary constriction and convergence of the eye.

    Normal Findings

    Pupillary size ranges from 3 – 7 mm, and are equal in size.

    Equally round.

    Constrict briskly/sluggishly when light is directed to the eye, both directly and consensual.

    Pupils dilate when looking at distant objects, and constrict when looking at nearer objects.

    If all of which are met, we document the findings using the notation PERRLA, pupils equally round, reactive to light and accommodation.

    A Snellen chart

    Cranial Nerve II (optic nerve)

    The optic nerve is assessed by testing for visual acuity and peripheral vision.

    Visual acuity is tested using a Snellen chart, for those who are illiterate and unfamiliar with the western alphabet, the illiterate E chart, in which the letter E faces in different directions, may be used.

    The chart has a standardized number at the end of each line of letters; these numbers indicate the degree of visual acuity when measured at a distance of 20 feet.

    The numerator 20 is the distance in feet between the chart and the client, or the standard testing distance. The denominator 20 is the distance from which the normal eye can read the lettering, which corresponds to the number at the end of each letter line; therefore the larger the denominator the poorer the version.

    Measurement of 20/20 vision is an indication of either refractive error or some other optic disorder.

    In testing for visual acuity you may refer to the following:

    The room used for this test should be well lighted.

    A person who wears corrective lenses should be tested with and without them to check for the adequacy of correction.

    Only one eye should be tested at a time; the other eye should be covered by an opaque card or eye cover, not with client’s finger.

    Make the client read the chart by pointing at a letter randomly at each line; maybe started from largest to smallest or vice versa.

    A person who can read the largest letter on the chart (20/200) should be checked if they can perceive hand movement about 12 inches from their eyes, or if they can perceive the light of the penlight directed to their yes.

    Peripheral vision or visual fields

    The assessment of visual acuity is indicative of the functioning of the macular area, the area of central vision. However, it does not test the sensitivity of the other areas of the retina which perceive the more peripheral stimuli. The Visual field confrontation test, provide a rather gross measurement of peripheral vision.

    The performance of this test assumes that the examiner has normal visual fields, since that client’s visual fields are to be compared with the examiners.

    Follow the steps on conducting the test:

    The examiner and the client sit or stand opposite each other, with the eyes at the same, horizontal level with the distance of 1.5 – 2 feet apart.

    The client covers the eye with an opaque card, and the examiner covers the eye that is opposite to the client covered eye.

    Instruct the client to stare directly at the examiner’s eye, while the examiner stares at the client’s open eye. Neither looks out at the object approaching from the periphery.

    The examiner holds an object such as pencil or penlight, in his hand and gradually moves it in from the periphery of both directions horizontally and from above and below.

    Normally the client should see the same time the examiners see it. The normal visual field is 180 degrees.

    Cranial Nerve III, IV & VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)

    All the 3 Cranial nerves are tested at the same time by assessing the Extra Ocular Movement (EOM) or the six cardinal position of gaze.

    Follow the given steps:

    Stand directly in front of the client and hold a finger or a penlight about 1 ft from the client’s eyes.

    Instruct the client to follow the direction the object held by the examiner by eye movements only; that is without moving the neck.

    The nurse moves the object in a clockwise direction hexagonally.

    Instruct the client to fix his gaze momentarily on the extreme position in each of the six cardinal gazes.

    The examiner should watch for any jerky movements of the eye (nystagmus).

    Normally the client can hold the position and there should be no nystagmus.

    Ears

    Inspect the auricles of the ears for parallelism, size position, appearance and skin color.

    Palpate the auricles and the mastoid process for firmness of the cartilage of the auricles, tenderness when manipulating the auricles and the mastoid process.

    Inspect the auditory meatus or the ear canal for color, presence of cerumen, discharges, and foreign bodies.

    For adult pull the pinna upward and backward to straighten the canal.

    For children pull the pinna downward and backward to straighten the canal

    Perform otoscopic examination of the tympanic membrane, noting the color and landmarks.

    Normal Findings

    The earlobes are bean-shaped, parallel, and symmetrical.

    The upper connection of the ear lobe is parallel with the outer canthus of the eye.

    Skin is the same in color as in the complexion.

    No lesions noted on inspection.

    The auricles have firm cartilage on palpation.

    The pinna recoils when folded.

    There is no pain or tenderness on the palpation of the auricles and mastoid process.

    The ear canal has normally some cerumen of inspection.

    No discharges or lesions noted at the ear canal.

    On otoscopic examination, the tympanic membrane appears flat, translucent and pearly gray in color.

    Nose and Paranasal Sinuses

    The external portion of the nose is inspected for the following:

    Placement and symmetry.

    Patency of nares (done by occluding nostril one at a time, and noting for difficulty in breathing)

    Flaring of alae nasi

    Discharge

    The external nares are palpated for:

    Displacement of bone and cartilage.

    For tenderness and masses

    The internal nares are inspected by hyperextending the neck of the client, the ulnar aspect of the examiners hard over the forehead of the client, and using the thumb to push the tip of the nose upward while shining a light into the nares.

    Inspect for the following:

    Position of the septum.

    Check septum for perforation. (Can also be checked by directing the lighted penlight on the side of the nose, illumination at the other side suggests perforation).

    The nasal mucosa (turbinates) for swelling, exudates, and change in color.

    Paranasal Sinuses

    Examination of the paranasal sinuses is indirect. Information about their condition is gained by inspection and palpation of the overlying tissues. Only frontal and maxillary sinuses are accessible for examination.

    By palpating both cheeks simultaneously, one can determine tenderness of the maxillary sinusitis, and pressing the thumb just below the eyebrows, we can determine tenderness of the frontal sinuses.

    Normal Findings

    Nose in the midline

    No Discharges.

    No flaring alae nasi.

    Both nares are patent.

    No bone and cartilage deviation noted on palpation.

    No tenderness noted on palpation.

    Nasal septum in the midline and not perforated.

    The nasal mucosa is pinkish to red in color. (Increased redness turbinates are typical of allergy).

    No tenderness noted on palpation of the paranasal sinuses.

    Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory Nerve)

    To test the adequacy of function of the olfactory nerve:

    The client is asked to close his eyes and occlude.

    The examiner places aromatic and easily distinguish nose. (E.g. alcohol, vinegar, coffee).

    Ask the client to identify the odor.

    Each side is tested separately, ideally with two different substances.

    Mouth and Oropharynx Lips

    Inspected for:

    Symmetry and surface abnormalities.

    Color

    Edema

    Normal Findings:

    With visible margin

    Symmetrical in appearance and movement

    Pinkish in color

    No edema

    Temporomandibular

    Palpate while the mouth is opened wide and then closed for:

    Crepitus

    Deviations

    Tenderness

    Normal Findings:

    Moves smoothly no crepitous.

    No deviations noted

    No pain or tenderness on palpation and jaw movement.

    Gums

    Inspected for:

    Color

    Bleeding

    Retraction of gums.

    Normal Findings:

    Pinkish in color

    No gum bleeding

    No receding gums

    Teeth

    Inspected for:

    Number

    Color

    Dental caries

    Dental fillings

    Alignment and malocclusions (2 teeth in the space for 1, or overlapping teeth).

    Tooth loss

    Breath should also be assessed during the process.

    Normal Findings

    28 for children and 32 for adults.

    White to yellowish in color

    With or without dental caries and/or dental fillings.

    With or without malocclusions.

    No halitosis.

    Tongue

    Palpated for:

    Texture

    Normal Findings:

    Pinkish with white taste buds on the surface.

    No lesions noted.

    No varicosities on ventral surface.

    Frenulum is thin attaches to the posterior 1/3 of the ventral aspect of the tongue.

    Gag reflex is present.

    Able to move the tongue freely and with strength.

    Surface of the tongue is rough.

    Uvula

    Inspected for:

    Position

    Color

    Cranial Nerve X (Vagus nerve) – Tested by asking the client to say “Ah” note that the uvula will move upward and forward.

    Normal Findings:

    Positioned in the midline.

    Pinkish to red in color.

    No swelling or lesion noted.

    Moves upward and backward when asked to say “ah”

    Tonsils

    Inspected for:

    Inflammation

    Size

    A Grading system used to describe the size of the tonsils can be used.

    Grade 1 – Tonsils behind the pillar.

    Grade 2 – Between pillar and uvula.

    Grade 3 – Touching the uvula

    Grade 4 – In the midline.

    Neck

    The neck is inspected for position symmetry and obvious lumps visibility of the thyroid gland and Jugular Venous Distension

    Check the Range of Movement of the neck.

    Normal Findings:

    The neck is straight.

    No visible mass or lumps.

    Symmetrical

    No jugular venous distension (suggestive of cardiac congestion).

    The neck is palpated just above the suprasternal note using the thumb and the index finger.

    Normal Findings:

    The trachea is palpable.

    It is positioned in the line and straight.

    Lymph nodes are palpated using palmar tips of the fingers via systemic circular movements. Describe lymph nodes in terms of size, regularity, consistency, tenderness, and fixation to surrounding tissues. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Normal Findings:

    May not be palpable. Maybe normally palpable in thin clients.

    Non-tender if palpable.

    Firm with smooth rounded surface.

    Slightly movable.

    About less than 1 cm in size.

    The thyroid is initially observed by standing in front of the client and asking the client to swallow. Palpation of the thyroid can be done either by posterior or anterior approach.

    Posterior Approach:

    Let the client sit on a chair while the examiner stands behind him.

    In examining the isthmus of the thyroid, locate the cricoid cartilage and directly below that is the isthmus.

    Ask the client to swallow while feeling for any enlargement of the thyroid isthmus.

    To facilitate examination of each lobe, the client is asked to turn his head slightly toward the side to be examined to displace the sternocleidomastoid, while the other hand of the examiner pushes the thyroid cartilage towards the side of the thyroid lobe to be examined.

    Ask the patient to swallow as the procedure is being done.

    The examiner may also palate for thyroid enlargement by placing the thumb deep to and behind the sternocleidomastoid muscle, while the index and middle fingers are placed deep to and in front of the muscle.

    Then the procedure is repeated on the other side.

    Anterior approach:

    The examiner stands in front of the client and with the palmar surface of the middle and index fingers palpate below the cricoid cartilage.

    Ask the client to swallow while palpation is being done.

    In palpating the lobes of the thyroid, similar procedure is done as in posterior approach. The client is asked to turn his head slightly to one side and then the other of the lobe to be examined.

    Again the examiner displaces the thyroid cartilage towards the side of the lobe to be examined.

    Again, the examiner palpates the area and hooks thumb and fingers around the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

    Normal Findings:

    Normally the thyroid is non-palpable.

    Isthmus may be visible in a thin neck.

    No nodules are palpable.

    Auscultation of the Thyroid is necessary when there is thyroid enlargement. The examiner may hear bruits, as a result of increased and turbulence in blood flow in an enlarged thyroid. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Thorax (Cardiovascular System)

    Inspection of the Heart

    The chest wall and epigastrium is inspected while the client is in supine position. Observe for pulsation and heaves or lifts

    Normal Findings:

    Pulsation of the apical impulse may be visible. (this can give us some indication of the cardiac size).

    There should be no lift or heaves.

    Palpation of the Heart

    The entire precordium is palpated methodically using the palms and the fingers, beginning at the apex, moving to the left sternal border, and then to the base of the heart.

    Normal Findings:

    No, palpable pulsation over the aortic, pulmonic, and mitral valves.

    Apical pulsation can be felt on palpation.

    There should be no noted abnormal heaves, and thrills felt over the apex.

    Percussion of the Heart

    The technique of percussion is of limited value in cardiac assessment. It can be used to determine borders of cardiac dullness.

    Auscultation of the Heart

    Anatomic areas for auscultation of the heart:

    Aortic valve – Right 2nd ICS sternal border.

    Pulmonic Valve – Left 2nd ICS sternal border.

    Tricuspid Valve – – Left 5th ICS sternal border.

    Mitral Valve – Left 5th ICS midclavicular line

    Positioning the client for auscultation:

    If the heart sounds are faint or undetectable, try listening to them with the patient seated and leaning forward, or lying on his left side, which brings the heart closer to the surface of the chest.

    Having the client seated and leaning forward is best suited for hearing high-pitched sounds related to semilunar valves problem.

    The left lateral recumbent position is best suited low-pitched sounds, such as mitral valve problems and extra heart sounds.

    Auscultating the heart:

    Auscultate the heart in all anatomic areas aortic, pulmonic, tricuspid and mitral

    Listen for the S1 and S2 sounds (S1 closure of AV valves; S2 closure of semilunar valve). S1 sound is best heard over the mitral valve; S2 is best heard over the aortic valve.

    Listen for abnormal heart sounds e.g. S3, S4, and Murmurs.

    Count heart rate at the apical pulse for one full minute.

    Auscultation of Heart Sounds

    Normal Findings:

    S1 & S2 can be heard at all anatomic site.

    No abnormal heart sounds are heard (e.g. Murmurs, S3 & S4).

    Cardiac rate ranges from 60 – 100 bpm.

    Breast

    Inspection of the Breast

    There are 4 major sitting position of the client used for clinical breast examination. Every client should be examined in each position.

    The client is seated with her arms on her side.

    The client is seated with her arms abducted over the head.

    The client is seated and is pushing her hands into her hips, simultaneously eliciting contraction of the pectoral muscles.

    The client is seated and is learning over while the examiner assists in supporting and balancing her.

    While the client is performing these maneuvers, the breasts are carefully observed for symmetry, bulging, retraction, and fixation.

    An abnormality may not be apparent in the breasts at rest a mass may cause the breasts, through invasion of the suspensory ligaments, to fix, preventing them from upward movement in position 2 and 4.

    Position 3 specifically assists in eliciting dimpling if a mass has infiltrated and shortened suspensory ligaments.

    Normal Findings:

    The overlying the breast should be even.

    May or may not be completely symmetrical at rest.

    The areola is rounded or oval, with same color, (Color varies from light pink to dark brown depending on race).

    Nipples are rounded, everted, same size and equal in color.

    No “orange peel” skin is noted which is present in edema.

    The veins may be visible but not engorge and prominent.

    No obvious mass noted. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Not fixated and moves bilaterally when hands are abducted over the head, or is leaning forward.

    No retractions or dimpling.

    Palpation of the Breast

    Palpate the breast along imaginary concentric circles, following a clockwise rotary motion, from the periphery to the center going to the nipples. Be sure that the breast is adequately surveyed. Breast examination is best done 1-week post menses.

    Each areolar areas are carefully palpated to determine the presence of underlying masses.

    Each nipple is gently compressed to assess for the presence of masses or discharge.

    Normal Findings:

    No lumps or masses are palpable.

    No tenderness upon palpation.

    No discharges from the nipples.

    NOTE: The male breasts are observed by adapting the techniques used for female clients. However, the various sitting position used for woman is unnecessary.

    Abdomen

    In abdominal assessment, be sure that the client has emptied the bladder for comfort. Place the client in a supine position with the knees slightly flexed to relax abdominal muscles.

    Inspection of the abdomen

    Inspect for skin integrity (Pigmentation, lesions, striae, scars, veins, and umbilicus).

    Contour (flat, rounded, scaphoid) Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

    Distension

    Respiratory movement.

    Visible peristalsis.

    Pulsations

    Normal Findings:

    Skin color is uniform, no lesions.

    Some clients may have striae or scar.

    No venous engorgement.

    Contour may be flat, rounded or scaphoid

    Thin clients may have visible peristalsis.

    Aortic pulsation may be visible on thin clients.

    Auscultation of the Abdomen

    This method precedes percussion because bowel motility, and thus bowel sounds, may be increased by palpation or percussion.

    The stethoscope and the hands should be warmed; if they are cold, they may initiate contraction of the abdominal muscles.

    Light pressure on the stethoscope is sufficient to detect bowel sounds and bruits. Intestinal sounds are relatively high-pitched, the bell may be used in exploring arterial murmurs and venous hum.

    Peristaltic sounds

    These sounds are produced by the movements of air and fluids through the gastrointestinal tract. Peristalsis can provide diagnostic clues relevant to the motility of bowel.

    Listening to the bowel sounds (borborygmi) can be facilitated by following these steps:

    Divide the abdomen into four quadrants.

    Listen over all auscultation sites, starting at the right lower quadrants, following the cross pattern of the imaginary lines in creating the abdominal quadrants Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide. This direction ensures that we follow the direction of bowel movement.

    Peristaltic sounds are quite irregular. Thus it is recommended that the examiner listen for at least 5 minutes, especially at the periumbilical area, before concluding that no bowel sounds are present.

    The normal bowel sounds are high-pitched, gurgling noises that occur approximately every 5 – 15 seconds. It is suggested that the number of bowel sound may be as low as 3 to as high as 20 per minute, or roughly, one bowel sound for each breath sound.

    Some factors that affect bowel sound:

    Presence of food in the GI tract.

    State of digestion.

    Pathologic conditions of the bowel (inflammation, Gangrene, paralytic ileus, peritonitis).

    Bowel surgery

    Constipation or Diarrhea.

    Electrolyte imbalances.

    Bowel obstruction.

    Percussion of the abdomen

    Abdominal percussion is aimed at detecting fluid in the peritoneum (ascites), gaseous distension, and masses, and in assessing solid structures within the abdomen.

    The direction of abdominal percussion follows the auscultation site at each abdominal guardant. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    The entire abdomen should be percussed lightly or a general picture of the areas of tympany and dullness.

    Tympany will predominate because of the presence of gas in the small and large bowel. Solid masses will percuss as dull, such as liver in the RUQ, spleen at the 6th or 9th rib just posterior to or at the midaxillary line on the left side.

    Percussion in the abdomen can also be used in assessing the liver span and size of the spleen.

    Percussion of the liver

    The palms of the left hand are placed over the region of liver dullness.

    The area is strucked lightly with a fisted right hand.

    Normally tenderness should not be elicited by this method.

    Tenderness elicited by this method is usually a result of hepatitis or cholecystitis.

    Renal Percussion

    Can be done by either indirect or direct method.

    Percussion is done over the costovertebral junction.

    Tenderness elicited by such method suggests renal inflammation.

    Palpation of the Abdomen

    Light palpation

    It is a gentle exploration performed while the client is in supine position. With the examiner’s hands parallel to the floor.

    The fingers depress the abdominal wall, at each quadrant, by approximately 1 cm without digging, but gently palpating with slow circular motion.

    This method is used for eliciting slight tenderness, large masses, and muscles, and muscle guarding.

    Tensing of abdominal musculature may occur because of:

    The examiner’s hands are too cold or are pressed to vigorously or deep into the abdomen. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    The client is ticklish or guards involuntarily.

    Presence of subjacent pathologic condition.

    Normal Findings:

    No tenderness noted.

    With smooth and consistent tension.

    No muscles guarding.

    Deep Palpation

    It is the indentation of the abdomen performed by pressing the distal half of the palmar surfaces of the fingers into the abdominal wall.

    The abdominal wall may slide back and forth while the fingers move back and forth over the organ being examined.

    Deeper structures, like the liver, and retroperitoneal organs, like the kidneys, or masses may be felt with this method.

    In the absence of disease, pressure produced by deep palpation may produce tenderness over the cecum, the sigmoid colon, and the aorta.

    Liver palpation

    There are two types of bimanual palpation recommended for palpation of the liver. The first one is the superimposition of the right hand over the left hand.

    Ask the patient to take 3 normal breaths.

    Then ask the client to breathe deeply and hold. This would push the liver down to facilitate palpation.

    Press hand deeply over the RUQ

    The second methods:

    The examiner’s left hand is placed beneath the client at the level of the right 11th and 12th ribs. Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide.

    Place the examiner’s right hands parallel to the costal margin or the RUQ.

    An upward pressure is placed beneath the client to push the liver towards the examining right hand, while the right hand is pressing into the abdominal wall.

    Ask the client to breathe deeply.

    As the client inspires, the liver maybe felt to slip beneath the examining fingers.

    Normal Findings:

    The liver usually cannot be palpated in a normal adult. However, in extremely thin but otherwise well individuals, it may be felt the coastal margins.

    When the normal liver margin is palpated, it must be smooth, regular in contour, firm and non-tender.

    Extremities

    Inspection

    Observe for size, contour, bilateral symmetry, and involuntary movement.

    Look for gross deformities, edema, presence of trauma such as ecchymosis or other discoloration.

    Always compare both extremities.

    Palpation

    Feel for evenness of temperature. Normally it should be even for all the extremities.

    Tonicity of muscle. (Can be measured by asking client to squeeze examiner’s fingers and noting for equality of contraction).

    Perform range of motion.

    Test for muscle strength. (performed against gravity and against resistance)

    Table showing the Lovett scale for grading for muscle strength and functional level

    Functional level

    Lovett Scale

    Grade

    Percentage of normal

    No evidence of contractility

    Zero (Z)

    0

    0

    Evidence of slight contractility

    Trace (T)

    1

    10

    Complete ROM without gravity

    Poor (P)

    2

    25

    Complete ROM with gravity

    Fair (F)

    3

    50

    Complete range of motion against gravity with some resistance

    Good (G)

    4

    75

    Complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance

    Normal (N)

    5

    100

    Normal Findings

    Both extremities are equal in size.

    Have the same contour with prominences of joints.

    No involuntary movements.

    No edema

    Color is even.

    Temperature is warm and even.

    Has equal contraction and even.

    Can perform complete range of motion.

    No crepitus must be noted on joints.

    Can counteract gravity and resistance on ROM.

    Head-to-Toe Physical Assessment Guide

  • NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments

    NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments

    NR706 Week 1 Discussion 1 & 2

    dq 1

    Week 1: Nursing Informatics and Advanced Nursing Practice

    5151 unread replies.6767 replies.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, describe the relationships among computer science, information science, and nursing science from an advanced nursing practice perspective.

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    dq 2

    Week 1: Nursing Information Systems and Advanced Nursing Practice

    4040 unread replies.6363 replies.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, describe the impact of a selected nursing information system on a selected healthcare stakeholder (patient, family, or nurse) from an advanced nursing practice perspective. NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments.

    NR706 Week 2 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 2: Nursing Informatics Roles and Advanced Nursing Practice

    4646 unread replies.5858 replies.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, determine selected nursing informatics roles and their utility from an advanced nursing practice perspective

    dq 2

    .

    Week 2: Standardized Terminology and Advanced Nursing Practice

    4848 unread replies.6060 replies NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, determine the utility of standardized terminology and nomenclature in nursing informatics from an advanced nursing practice perspective.

    NR706 Week 3 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 3: Knowledge Management and Advanced Nursing Practice

    5050 unread replies.6060 replies.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, distinguish the components of knowledge management from an advanced nursing practice perspective.

    dq 2

    Week 3: Translation Science and Advanced Nursing Practice

    4545 unread replies.5656 replies.

    Derived from your healthcare experience, distinguish components of translation science from an advanced nursing practice perspective.

    NR706 Week 4 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 4: Creating a Translation Science Culture in Advanced Nursing Practice

    4747 unread replies.5858 NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments replies.

    Articulate the potential benefits and/or barriers from selected translation science methods that serve to shape the advanced nursing practice environment.

    dq 2

    Week 4: The Human Factor and Systems Management Issues in Evidence-Based Practice

    4646 unread replies.5555 replies.

    Articulate the driving forces and restraining factors of the human factor and systems management issues that serve to shape the evidence-based practice environment.

    NR706 Week 5 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 5: Information System Contributions to Advanced Nursing Practice

    4545 unread replies.5757 replies.

    Examine potential information system contributions that serve to shape the advanced nursing practice environment.

    dq 2

    Week 5: Information System Contributions to the Improved Quality of DNP-Prepared Nurse Healthcare

    4343 unread replies.5656 replies.

    Examine potential information system contributions that serve to improve DNP-prepared nurse healthcare delivery.

    NR706 Week 6 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 6: Information System Contributions to Decision Making in Research and in Education

    4545 unread replies.5858 NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments replies.

    Differentiate potential information system contributions that serve to foster decision making in research and in education.

    dq 2

    Week 6: Information System Contributions to Evidence-Based Practice

    4444 unread replies.5353 replies.

    Differentiate potential information system contributions that serve to shape a preferred evidence-based practice environment.

    NR706 Week 7 Discussion 1 & 2 Latest 2018 May

    dq 1

    Week 7: Web-Based Continuing Education and the Improvement of Advanced Nursing Practice and Healthcare

    4949 unread replies.6060 replies.

    Formulate effective strategies for Web-based continuing education that might serve to improve advanced nursing practice and healthcare.

    dq 2

    Week 7: Web-Based Patient Education and the Transformation of Advanced Nursing Practice and Healthcare NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments.

    5454 unread replies.6666 replies.

    Formulate effective strategies for Web-based patient education that might serve to transform advanced nursing practice and healthcare.

    NR706 Week 8 Discussion Latest 2018 May

    Week 8: Future Trends for Informatics in Advanced Nursing Practice

    5151 unread replies.6363 replies.

    NR-706 Healthcare Informatics & Information Systems Essay Assignments Differentiate future trends of nursing informatics that may serve to further shape advanced nursing practice environment.

  • Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results

    Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results

    History of Present Illness

    Finding:

    Established chief complaint

    Finding:

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    Reports increased breathing problems

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Foundational questions about general well-being are important in assessing how a patient feels at the current moment. This creates a space for Tina to contextualize her current feeling in relation to a chief complaint. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    What brings you in today?

    Finding:

    Asked about reasons for seeking treatment

    Finding:

    Reports worry that inhaler “isn’t working like it usually does”

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Initially establishing a chief complaint allows the patient to express their reason for seeking care, primary concerns, or condition they are presenting with.

    Example Question:

    Why did you decide to seek treatment?

    Finding:

    Believes breathing problems triggered by asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Questions about what factors might have caused an illness can point to a patient’s environmental stressors, habits, and general wellbeing. Asking Tina what caused her asthma might indicate her health literacy and understanding of what factors impact her breathing. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    What do you think caused your illness?

    Finding:

    Asked about current breathing

    Finding:

    Reports current breathing is normal

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Foundational questions about general well-being are important in assessing how a patient feels at the current moment. This creates a space for Tina to contextualize her current feeling in relation to a chief complaint.

    Example Question:

    Are you having difficulty breathing right now?

    Finding:

    Asked about symptoms during asthma exacerbation

    Finding:

    Describes exacerbation symptoms as chest tightness and “can’t take in air”

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Symptoms often vary from patient to patient. Asking Tina to describe what happens when her asthma acts up will indicate how her individual symptoms manifest. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    What happens when your asthma acts up?

    Finding:

    Reports asthma severity as “not full attack,” but worse than usual

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma severity might change over time for a variety of reasons. Asking Tina about the severity of her asthma will allow her to assess her condition.

    Example Question:

    How severe is your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports audible wheeze during asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to wheezing and, as a result, might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina if she’s been wheezing illustrates how her asthma is presenting.

    Example Question:

    Do you wheeze during an asthma exacerbation?

    Finding:

    Reports audible wheeze lasting 5 minutes during asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to wheezing and, as a result, might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina how long her wheezing lasts illustrates how her asthma is presenting. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    How long does your wheezing usually last?

    Finding:

    Reports no post nasal drainage with asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Post-nasal drip can worsen already exacerbated asthma. Soliciting information about Tina’s sinuses will point to additional factors that are triggering Tina’s breathing problems.

    Example Question:

    Do you have postnasal drainage when you have breathing problems?

    Finding:

    Reports no chest pain during asthma exacerbation

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Symptoms often vary from patient to patient. Asking Tina whether she experiences chest pain during an attack will indicate how her individual symptoms manifest.

    Example Question:

    Are the shortness of breath episodes associated with chest pain?

    Finding:

    Asked about asthma management

    Finding:

    Reports feeling asthma is less controlled recently

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: The frequency of asthma episodes or shortness of breath might vary over time. Asking Tina about her recent experience will expound upon her current condition.

    Example Question:

    How well do you feel your asthma is controlled? Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Finding:

    Reports asthma has been interfering with activities of daily life

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Severe asthma can interfere with daily life. Asking Tina the degree to which asthma impacts her daily life can be illustrative of the relative severity of her asthma.

    Example Question:

    Is there anything you can’t do because of your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports no record keeping of asthma exacerbation or shortness of breath episodes

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: For some patients, keeping records of asthma exacerbation allows them to monitor their conditions. Soliciting this information from Tina will show health literacy.

    Example Question:

    Do you use a chart to monitor your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports no peak flow meter usage

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: A peak flow meter measures how well a patient’s lungs can expel air. By asking whether Tina uses a peak flow meter, you are asking about her health literacy and what kind of medical tools she uses to manage her asthma.

    Example Question:

    Do you check your peak flow regularly?

    Finding:

    Reports no nebulizer use

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: The medication that a patient takes reveals a current treatment plan and healthcare access. Asking Tina if she uses a nebulizer for her asthma will indicate her treatment plan and the degree to which she complies with it.

    Example Question:

    Do you use a nebulizer?

    Finding:

    Reports no vaporizer use

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina is she ever used a vaporizer can help you to discern whether smoking was an exacerbating factor for Tina’s asthma.

    Example Question:

    Do you use a vaporizer?

    Finding:

    Asked about recent asthma exacerbation

    Finding:

    Confirms recent asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asking about how Tina is recently breathing can provide a comparative baseline for assessing Tina’s current condition and previous breathing concerns or conditions.

    Example Question:

    Have you had breathing problems recently?

    Finding:

    Reports most recent asthma exacerbation two days ago

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a shallow history of a patient’s condition can provide a baseline for comparing an attack, exacerbation, and more regular breathing. Asking about breathing problems can elicit a response about recent troubles.

    Example Question:

    When did you last have problems with your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports asthma exacerbation at cousin’s house

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking Tina where she was when the most recent exacerbation occurred can point to potential environmental factors.

    Example Question:

    Where were you when your breathing problems started?

    Finding:

    Reports recent asthma exacerbation triggered by cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Questions about what factors might have caused an illness can point to a patient’s environmental stressors, habits, and general wellbeing. Asking Tina what caused her asthma might indicate her health literacy and understanding of what factors impact her breathing. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    What started your recent asthma problems?

    Finding:

    Treated recent asthma exacerbation with rescue inhaler

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Tina’s response to a question about recent asthma management will reveal the severity of her symptoms, her health literacy, and the way she’s complied with previous treatment plans.

    Example Question:

    What treatment did you use when your asthma acted up?

    Finding:

    Asked about cat allergy

    Finding:

    Confirms cat allergy

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina has a cat allergy can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Can you confirm that you are allergic to cats?

    Finding:

    Reports wheezing around cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors, like pets, can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina wheezes around cats can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Do cats make you wheeze?

    Finding:

    Reports runny nose around cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors, like pets, can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina gets a runny nose around cats can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    How is your nose around cats?

    Finding:

    Reports eyes red, itchy, and swollen around cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma triggers can result in symptoms that manifest in various ways. Asking Tina how being around a known trigger will indicate what some of these symptoms might look like.

    Example Question:

    How does being around cats affect your eyes?

    Finding:

    Reports sneezing around cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors, like pets, can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina sneezes around cats can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Do you sneeze around cats?

    Finding:

    Reports infrequent cat exposure

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking how often Tina is around cats, a known trigger, will indicate how frequently she is exposed to one trigger.

    Example Question:

    How often are you around cats?

    Finding:

    Asked about asthma triggers

    Finding:

    Confirms knowledge of asthma triggers

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Discerning what’s making Tina’s asthma worse can point to possible triggers like environmental factors, bodily positions, or movement that may have a bearing on Tina’s breathing. Asking Tina what triggers her asthma will indicate, in part, Tina’s health literacy.

    Example Question:

    Does anything trigger your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports asthma triggered by cats

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina has a cat allergy can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Do cats trigger your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports asthma triggered by dust

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina has a dust allergy can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Does being around dust trigger your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports asthma triggered by running up stairs

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Shortness of breath or asthma can be exercise-induced. Asking whether climbing stairs can be a trigger for Tina might reveal a possible provocation.

    Example Question:

    Does climbing stairs trigger your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports no seasonal triggers

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Discerning what’s making Tina’s asthma worse can point to possible triggers like environmental factors, bodily positions, or movement that may have a bearing on Tina’s breathing. Asking Tina whether she has seasonal triggers will indicate, in part, Tina’s health literacy.

    Example Question:

    Do you have seasonal asthma triggers?

    Finding:

    Reports changes in weather do not trigger asthma

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: For some patients, weather changes can be asthma irritants. Asking Tina if the weather impacts her asthma will indicate if weather is an irritant for Tina’s condition. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    Do changes in weather make your asthma worse?

    Finding:

    Asked any question about exacerbation onset

    Finding:

    Reports asthma exacerbation two days ago

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a shallow history of a patient’s condition can provide a comparative baseline for juxtaposing an attack, exacerbation, and more regular breathing. Asking about breathing problems can elicit a response about recent troubles.

    Example Question:

    How long ago did your breathing problems start?

    Finding:

    Asked about breathing since recent asthma exacerbation

    Finding:

    Reports frequent shortness of breath episodes since asthma exacerbation

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a shallow history of a patient’s condition can provide a comparative baseline for juxtaposing an attack, exacerbation, and more regular breathing. Asking about breathing problems can elicit a response about recent troubles.

    Example Question:

    How has your breathing been since the exacerbation?

    Finding:

    Reports shortness of breath episodes about every 4 hours since original asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: The frequency of asthma episodes or shortness of breath might vary over time. Asking Tina about her recent experience will expound upon her current condition.

    Example Question:

    How many times have you had breathing problems in the past two days?

    Finding:

    Reports last shortness of breath episode was early in the morning

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a shallow history of a patient’s condition can provide a comparative baseline for juxtaposing an attack, exacerbation, and more regular breathing. Asking about breathing problems can elicit a response about recent troubles. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    When did you last have trouble breathing?

    Finding:

    Asked any question about aggravating factors

    Finding:

    Reports shortness of breath slightly increased when lying flat on back

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma can be aggravated by movements that constrict the respiratory airways. By asking Tina if lying down causes shortness of breath, you’re assessing which positions might cause exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    Does lying down make your asthma worse?

    Finding:

    Reports shortness of breath aggravated by movement

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma can be aggravated by movements that constrict the respiratory airways. Inquiring into what activities make Tina short of breath can indicate possible triggers.

    Example Question:

    Is there anything you can’t do because of your asthma?

    Finding:

    Asked any question about associated symptoms since exacerbation

    Finding:

    Reports persistent cough

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: A shallow history of a patient’s condition can provide a comparative baseline for juxtaposing an attack, exacerbation, and more regular breathing. Soliciting this information from Tina allows her to explain any recent developments with her asthma.

    Example Question:

    Have you been coughing?

    Finding:

    Reports no phlegm or sputum since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: A productive asthma cough can expel sputum from the lungs. By asking whether Tina has been coughing up phlegm or sputum you are discovering the nature of Tina’s cough since exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    Have you been coughing anything up?

    Finding:

    Reports shortness of breath is worse at night

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Sometimes a condition will fluctuate during the course of the day. By asking Tina how her asthma differentially impacts her both during the day and at night, you are assessing an important change over time.

    Example Question:

    Is your asthma worse at night?

    Finding:

    Asked any question about wheezing since exacerbation

    Finding:

    Reports wheezing since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to wheezing and, as a result, might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina if she’s been wheezing illustrates how her asthma is presenting.

    Example Question:

    Have you been wheezing?

    Finding:

    Reports increased wheezing episodes since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma exacerbation can result in increased wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Asking if Tina’s been wheezing more frequently since exacerbation can indicate the severity of her symptoms since exacerbation. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    Have you been wheezing more than usual?

    Finding:

    Reports 10 wheezing episodes since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to wheezing and, as a result, might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina how frequently she’s been wheezing will illustrate the extent of exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    How many times have you wheezed in the past two days?

    Finding:

    Asked about asthma medication

    Finding:

    Reports asthma treated with inhaler

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Tina’s response to a question about asthma management will reveal the severity of her symptoms, her health literacy, and the way she’s complied with previous treatment plans.

    Example Question:

    What usually works to treat your asthma?

    Finding:

    Asked about inhaler prescription

    Finding:

    Inhaler is Proventil

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: The medication that a patient takes reveals a current treatment plan and healthcare access. Asking Tina what medication she takes for her asthma will indicate her treatment plan and the degree to which she complies with it.

    Example Question:

    What is the name of the inhaler you are currently using?

    Finding:

    Prescribed usage is 2 puffs

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: The medication that a patient takes reveals a current treatment plan and healthcare access. Asking Tina how many puffs of her inhaler she’s prescribed will indicate her treatment plan and the degree to which she complies with it. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    How many puffs of your inhaler are you prescribed?

    Finding:

    Reports inhaler use since asthma diagnosis

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Tina’s response to a question about asthma management will reveal the severity of her symptoms, her health literacy, and the way she’s complied with previous treatment plans.

    Example Question:

    How long have you had an inhaler?

    Finding:

    Reports sometimes needing a third puff to resolve asthma symptoms

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Inhaler effectiveness can vary over time for a variety of reasons. Asking Tina about the number on inhaler puffs she needs to resolve symptoms can indicate whether her asthma has worsened or point to potential problems like poor inhaler technique.

    Example Question:

    How many inhaler puffs do you need?

    Finding:

    Asked about inhaler use over past 2 days

    Finding:

    Reports increased inhaler usage since asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Asthma exacerbation can result in increased wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Asking if Tina’s been using her inhaler more frequently since exacerbation can indicate how she’s been treating her symptoms since exacerbation. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    How often do you use your inhaler?

    Finding:

    Reports using inhaler every 4 hours or so since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: After an asthma exacerbation, patients often will become more reliant on medical tools like inhalers. Asking Tina how many times she’s used her inhaler in the past two days will point to the severity of her recent exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    How many times have you used your inhaler in the past two days?

    Finding:

    Reports most recent inhaler use early in the morning

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a shallow history of a patient’s medication history can reveal recent exacerbation. Asking Tina when she last used her inhaler will indicate when her symptoms most recently required medical treatment.

    Example Question:

    When did you last use your inhaler?

    Finding:

    Asked about possible contributing factors in environment

    Finding:

    Reports living situation is tidy and free of dust

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors at home or work can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking Tina about possible allergens at home might indicate a relevant factor in her recent exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    Have you noticed anything at home that aggravates your asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports very rare exposure to asthma triggers at work

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Environmental factors at home or work can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking Tina about possible allergens at work might indicate a relevant factor in her recent exacerbation. Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results.

    Example Question:

    Does anything at work make your asthma worse?

    Finding:

    Reports new bedding

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Bedding provides the perfect environment for dust mites and other allergens. By asking Tina if she regularly changes her bedding, you’re soliciting information about environmental factors that might exacerbate her condition.

    Example Question:

    Do you change your bedding regularly?

    Finding:

    Reports using hypoallergenic mattress cover

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Hypoallergenic bedding can provide relief to those who suffer from sensitivity to dust mites, allergies, or asthma. Discovering that Tina uses hypoallergenic bedding can indicate a reason why she might feel asthma relief at night.

    Example Question:

    Do you use a hypoallergenic mattress cover?

    Finding:

    Reports mattress approximately 1 year old

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Bedding provides the perfect environment for dust mites and other allergens. By asking Tina how old her mattress is, you’re soliciting information about environmental factors that might exacerbate her condition.

    Example Question:

    How old is your mattress?

    Finding:

    Reports using hypoallergenic pillows

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Hypoallergenic bedding can provide relief to those who suffer from sensitivity to dust mites, allergies, or asthma. Discovering that Tina uses hypoallergenic bedding can indicate a reason why she might feel asthma relief at night.

    Example Question:

    Are your pillows hypoallergenic?

    Finding:

    Has no pets at home

    (Found)

    Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results Pro Tip: Environmental factors can often be primary allergy triggers. Asking whether Tina has any pets can reveal one such trigger.

    Example Question:

    Do you have pets at home?

    Finding:

    Reports no one at home smokes tobacco

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Secondhand smoke can be particularly triggering for asthmatics. Asking whether anyone in Tina’s household smokes might indicate a proximate environmental trigger.

    Example Question:

    Does anyone in your house smoke?

    Finding:

    Asked follow up question about cough

    Finding:

    Reports cough started two days ago

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to coughing and thus might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina how long she has been coughing illustrates how her asthma is presenting.

    Example Question:

    When did the cough start?

    Finding:

    Reports cough since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to coughing and thus might not volunteer this information. Asking Tina how long she has been coughing illustrates how her asthma is presenting.

    Example Question:

    How long have you had a cough?

    Finding:

    Reports cough aggravated by movement

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Coughing can be a symptom of a constricted airway. Assessing what makes Tina’s cough worse can open up a conversation about asthma management.

    Example Question:

    What makes your cough worse?

    Finding:

    Reports cough worse at night

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Sometimes a condition will change during the course of the day. By asking Tina how her cough differentially impacts her both during the day and at night, you are assessing an important change over time.

    Example Question:

    Is your cough worse at a certain time of day?

    Finding:

    Reports cough slightly relieved by drinking water

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Coughing can be a symptom of a constricted airway. Assessing what relieves Tina’s cough can open up a conversation about asthma management.

    Example Question:

    What makes your cough better?

    Finding:

    Reports cough persistent but not severe

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Symptoms often vary from patient to patient. Asking Tina to describe her cough specifies the way her individual symptoms manifest.

    Example Question:

    How severe is your cough?

    Finding:

    Reports “small, dry” cough

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Symptoms often vary from patient to patient. Asking Tina to describe her cough specifies the way her individual symptoms manifest.

    Example Question:

    How would you describe your cough?

    Finding:

    Reports no cough treatments

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Some people who experience chronic asthma may be accustomed to coughing and thus might not treat this symptom Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results. Asking Tina how she is treating her cough might reveal her current symptom management and health literacy.

    Example Question:

    Have you tried to treat your cough?

    Finding:

    Asked follow up question about asthma at night

    Finding:

    Reports waking up with shortness of breath since asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Many patients with asthma report trouble sleeping. Asking Tina if she has trouble sleeping can indicate the severity of her asthma.

    Example Question:

    Does your asthma wake you up at night?

    Finding:

    Reports waking up twice a night with asthma since exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Many patients with asthma report trouble sleeping. Asking Tina if she has trouble sleeping can indicate the severity of her asthma.

    Example Question:

    How many times in the past two nights did asthma wake you up?

    Finding:

    Reports wheezing at night

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Wheezing might indicate a recent asthma exacerbation. Asking Tina whether she’s been wheezing in the past two nights will give you insight into her immediately recent symptoms.

    Example Question:

    Have you been wheezing the past two nights?

    Relevant Medical History

    Finding:

    Asked about asthma diagnosis

    Finding:

    Has asthma

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Asking whether Tina has asthma will elicit information regarding any previous respiratory diagnosis.

    Example Question:

    Can you confirm that you have asthma?

    Finding:

    Diagnosed with asthma in childhood

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: By determining the onset of asthma you can get a sense for Tina’s asthma history, instance, and frequency of exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    How long have you had asthma?

    Finding:

    Diagnosed with asthma at 2 1/2 years old

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: By determining the onset of asthma you can get a sense for Tina’s asthma history, instance, and frequency of exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    How old were you when you were diagnosed with asthma?

    Finding:

    No current asthma doctor

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Seeing a specialist, like an asthma doctor, can help patients to manage symptoms. Asking whether Tina is seeing an asthma doctor will allow you to assess her current treatment plan and healthcare access.

    Example Question:

    Do you have an asthma doctor?

    Finding:

    Asked about hospitalizations for asthma

    Finding:

    Reports prior hospitalizations for asthma

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Hospitalization for a condition, like asthma, can reveal its severity. By asking Tina if she’s been hospitalized, you are soliciting information about the history and severity of her condition.

    Example Question:

    Have you ever been hospitalized for asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports last hospitalization was age 16

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Hospitalization for a condition, like asthma, can reveal its severity. By asking Tina when she was last hospitalized, you are soliciting information about the history and severity of her condition.

    Example Question:

    When was your last hospitalization for asthma?

    Finding:

    Estimates 5 total hospitalizations for asthma

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Hospitalization for a condition, like asthma, can reveal its severity. By asking Tina the number of times she’s been hospitalized, you are soliciting information about the history and severity of her condition.

    Example Question:

    How many times have you been to the hospital?

    Finding:

    Reports she has never been intubated

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Intubation for a condition, like asthma, can reveal its severity Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results. By asking Tina if she’s been intubated, you are soliciting information about the history and severity of her condition.

    Example Question:

    Have you ever been put on a breathing tube?

    Finding:

    Asked about relevant history

    Finding:

    Reports no history of eczema

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Children with eczema are often at a higher risk of developing asthma. In soliciting a medical history from Tina, you are getting a sense for the history of Tina’s asthma and related conditions.

    Example Question:

    Have you had eczema?

    Finding:

    Reports no history of sinus problems

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: People with asthma are likely to also experience sinus problems. It is important to determine whether Tina has sinus problems as they can cause complicating symptoms in patients who also experience asthma.

    Example Question:

    Do you have a history of sinus problems?

    Finding:

    Reports no current tobacco use

    (Found)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina if she currently smokes can help you to discern whether smoking was a factor in Tina’s recent asthma exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    Do you smoke cigarettes?

    Finding:

    Reports no history of tobacco use

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina is she ever smoked cigarettes can help you to discern whether smoking was an exacerbating factor for Tina’s asthma.

    Example Question:

    Have you ever smoked cigarettes?

    Finding:

    Reports no history of GERD

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: People with asthma are almost twice as likely to also experience GERD. It is important to determine whether Tina has GERD as GERD can cause shortness of breath in patients who also experience asthma.

    Example Question:

    Do you have gastroesophageal reflux disease?

    Finding:

    Reports no history of respiratory infection

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: History of respiratory illness can manifest in various conditions. Inquiring into Tina’s relevant history can reveal past diagnoses and previous conditions or concerns.

    Example Question:

    Have you ever had respiratory infections?

    Risk Factors

    Finding:

    Asked about family history

    Finding:

    Reports younger sister only family with asthma

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Soliciting a family history helps you to determine which, if any, conditions are inherited. In asking Tina whether anyone in her family has asthma, you’re ascertaining whether Tina’s condition is inherited.

    Example Question:

    Does anyone in your family have asthma?

    Finding:

    Reports no recent illnesses with family members at home

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: For people with asthma, getting sick can increase their risk for exacerbation. If Tina’s had any family members recently sick, that might have caused her recent exacerbation.

    Example Question:

    Has anyone at home been sick?

    Finding:

    Reports no family history of eczema

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: People with a family history of eczema are often at a higher risk of developing asthma. In soliciting a medical history from Tina, you are getting a sense for the history of Tina’s asthma and related conditions.

    Example Question:

    Does anyone in your family have eczema?

    Finding:

    Reports no family history of sinus problems

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: People with a family history of sinus problems are often at a higher risk for asthma. If Tina has a family history of sinus problems, this could suggest inherited sensitivity.

    Example Question:

    Do you have a family history of sinus problems?

    Finding:

    Asked about smoking any substances

    Finding:

    Reports past marijuana use

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina is she ever smoked marijuana can help you to discern whether smoking was an exacerbating factor for Tina’s asthma.

    Example Question:

    Have you ever smoked marijuana?

    Finding:

    Reports quitting marijuana due to lack of interest and asthma exacerbation

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina why she quit smoking marijuana can help you to discern whether smoking exacerbated Tina’s asthma.

    Example Question:

    Why did you stop smoking marijuana?

    Finding:

    Reports stopping marijuana use at 20 or 21

    (Available)

    Pro Tip: Smoking or inhaling substances can have adverse respiratory effects. Asking Tina when she quit smoking marijuana can help you to discern whether smoking recently exacerbated Tina’s asthma.

    Example Question:

    When was the last time you smoked marijuana?

    Finding:

    Reports smoking marijuana for 5 or 6 years Shadow health Questions – respiratory for Tina transcript results

  • NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments

    Week 1 Discussion

    Defining a Quality Care Issue in Nursing

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

    Think of an area of opportunity within your current or former clinical setting that is quality driven. Define (D) one nursing care issue (not a workforce issue such as staffing) from a current or former nursing workplace (or clinical setting) that could be impacted by improved quality. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments. This nursing care issue should not be one that has already undergone a quality improvement process. Tell us details of this issue and how it this issue impacts nursing care quality at that facility.

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    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 2 Discussion

    DMAIC Process for a Real Life Issue

    CO2 Discuss effective processes and strategies to improve quality in nursing. (POs 2 and 8)

    Why is it important to have a structured process to approach and improve nursing care quality? How can use of this structured process help to improve quality nursing care in your setting?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 3 Discussion

    Quality Improvement Education

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

    CO3 Examine culture of safety principles that improve patient outcomes based on current evidence. (POs 7 and 8) NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments.

    In your prelicensure nursing education program, what did you learn about quality improvement in nursing? How was quality improvement emphasized? As you consider nursing education today, what would you suggest be included in future education or orientation programs about the important topic of quality improvement in nursing?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 4 Discussion

    Culture of Safety

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7) NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments.

    CO2 Discuss effective processes and strategies to improve quality in nursing. (POs 2 and 8)

    How does your current or former clinical environment maintain a culture of safety? How are errors reported and managed to improve quality? What suggestions would you make as a nurse leader to improve the culture of safety?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 5 Discussion

    Strategies for Interprofessional Collaboration to Promote Quality

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

    CO2 Discuss effective processes and strategies to improve quality in nursing. (POs 2 and 8)

    This week as we focus on interprofessional collaboration to promote quality, please remember that professionals include dietitians, therapists (respiratory, physical, occupational, and speech), social workers/case managers, psychologists, physicians, pharmacists, and others. Professionals do not include patients, families, aides, or unlicensed assistive personnel. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments.

    Working as an interdisciplinary team helps promote positive patient outcomes. What strategies do you use to successfully work with other professions in your workplace to promote quality care? What strategies are not successful? What are the barriers to interprofessional collaboration, and how will you overcome these barriers?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 6 Discussion

    Quality Improvement Using Evidence-Based Practice in Nursing

    CO3 Examine culture of safety principles that improve patient outcomes based on current evidence. (POs 7 and 8)

    Consider a single nursing care issue at your facility where quality has already been improved by implementation of evidence. Answer the following:

    How was evidence on that topic located in scholarly professional nursing journal articles and evaluated? NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments.

    What was the implementation plan?

    How was the improvement in quality measured after the implementation?

    What do you suggest that would have improved this implementation and maintenance of improved quality?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 7 Discussion

    The Role of Patients in Your Course Project Nursing Issue

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

    CO3 Examine culture of safety principles that improve patient outcomes based on current evidence. (POs 7 and 8)

    Considering the nursing issue for your Course Project, address the following:

    Provide a brief summary of your Course Project for the class NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments.

    What patient data is collected? What data do you want collected?

    How will this actual and desired data help you to continue to improve quality on this nursing issue?

    NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing

    Week 8 Discussion

    Reflection on AACN BSN Essential II

    CO1 Identify the role of the BSN nurse in the quality improvement process as a member of the collaborative interprofessional team. (POs 2 and 7)

    CO2 Discuss effective processes and strategies to improve quality in nursing. (POs 2 and 8)

    Quality is an overriding principle in the AACN BSN Essentials document. Essential II specifically describes the role of the baccalaureate nurse in quality improvement. As you complete this course, reflect on how you will implement lessons learned about quality improvement into your future nursing practice. Provide details about what you plan to do to improve quality in your current or ideal future professional nursing position. NR392 Quality Improvement in Nursing Essay Assignments Think big!

  • Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript

    Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript

    NR 509 Week 2 Alternate Writing Assignment: Respiratory Summer 2018

    Purpose

    As a family nurse practitioner, you must possess excellent physical assessment skills. This alternative writing assignment mirrors the discussion content of the debriefing session and will allow the student to expand their knowledge of physical health assessment principles specific to the advanced practice role.

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    Course Outcomes

    This assignment is guided by the following Course Outcomes (COs):

    Apply advanced practice nursing knowledge to collecting health history information and physical examination findings for various patient populations. (PO 1, 2)

    Differentiate normal and abnormal health history and physical examination findings. (PO 1, 2)

    Adapt health history and physical examination skills to the developmental, gender-related, age-specific, and special population needs of the individual patient. (PO 1, 2). Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    The purposes of this assignment are to: (a) identify and articulate advanced assessment health history and physical examination techniques which are relevant to a focused body system (CO 1), (b) differentiate normal and abnormal findings with regard to a disease or condition that impacts the body system (CO 2), and (c) adapt advanced assessment skills if necessary to suit the needs of specific patient populations (CO 4).

    WE ARE THE SHADOW HEALTH EXPERTS, LET’S HELP YOU HANDLE YOUR 
    ASSESSMENT

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    NOTE
    : 
    You are to complete this alternative writing assignment ONLY if you had not participated or do not plan to participate in a debriefing session for the given week.

    Due Date: 
    This alternative written assignment is due no later than the 
    Sunday of the week in which you did not attend the weekly debriefing session
    . The standard MSN Participation Late Assignment policy applies to this Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript assignment.

    Brian Foster Chest Pain Shadow Health Assessment

    Preparing the Paper:

    Select a focused body system from the weekly lesson which corresponds with the week of the written assignment.

    Carefully read and review the selected body system in your course textbooks.

    Incorporate at least 
    one
    scholarly peer-reviewed journal article that relates to the body system. It may be useful to identify an article that relates to a disease that impacts the body system.

    The paper must clearly articulate the relevance of advanced physical assessment skills, techniques, application of advanced practice knowledge, and assessment modification (when necessary) to accommodate for specific patient populations. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    Provide concluding statements that should summarize key points of the overall assignment content.

    In-text citations and reference page(s) must be written using proper APA format (6thedition).

    NR 509 Week 2: Shadow Health Respiratory Physical Assessment Assignment

    Shadow Health Respiratory Assessment Pre Brief

    NB: We have all the questions and documented answers in the SUBJECTIVE DATA, OBJECTIVE DATA, ASSESSMENT AND CARE PLAN format. All you need to do is ORDER NOW for an equivalent of 4 pages and score 100% in this assignment and all other Shadow Health Assignments. By placing this order, the only thing you will do is ask Tina the questions that we will give you and then use our documentation  to create yours!!! Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    Tina had an asthma episode 2 days ago. At that time she used her albuterol inhaler and her symptoms decreased although they did not completely resolve. Since that incident she notes that she has had ten episodes of wheezing and has shortness of breath approximately every four hours. Tina presents with continued shortness of breath and wheezing. Be sure to ask pertinent questions during the interview about related body systems. This case study will provide the opportunity to carefully assess lung sounds during the physical examination. Be sure to appropriately document your findings using correct medical terminology.

    Reason for visit: Patient presents complaining of a recent asthma episode that is not fully resolved.

    APPROACH

    Overview

    | 
    Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | Student Pre-Survey

    | Lifespan Activity

    | Review Questions

    | Self-Reflection Activity

    SAMPLE Shadow Health Respiratory Assessment

    Model Documentation

    Subjective

    Social History: She is not aware of any environmental exposures or irritants at her job or home……

    Review of Systems:

    General: Denies changes in…

    Nose/Sinuses:

    Gastrointestinal:

    Respiratory:

    Objective                   

    General: Ms. Jones is a pleasant….

    Respiratory: Chest expansion is….

    Assessment                

    Mild-persistent….

    Plan

    Diagnostics

    Obtain office….

    Education

    Encourage Ms. Jones to continue t….

    Referral/Consultation

    Refer to…..

     Follow-up Planning

    Order ….

    Instruct Ms. Jones …..

    Revisit….

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    Tina’s second cousin was diagnosed with asthma at age 5. What would be included in your treatment plan? What factors might concern you related to compliance?

    The treatment plan for this child would be to….

    Consider that Tina’s uncle is now 68 years old and has smoked heavily every day since he was fifteen. What would you expect to find in his respiratory assessment? How would this affect your oxygenation goals for this patient?

    Common significant deviations of the chest for older adults include marked dorsal curvature, kyphosis, increased AP diameter of the chest (barrel chest), and diminished chest expansion (Hogstel & Curry, 2005). Bones become thinner, more rigid, and change shape, and muscles may become weakened. This results in a lower oxygen level with less carbon dioxide removed from the body, and decreased ability to cough. Osteoporosis causes decreased thoracic vertebrae height. Aging also causes the alveoli to lose their shape causing shortness of breath. Due to diminished cough reflex with decreased sensitivity, large amounts of particles that are more difficult to expectorate can collect in the lungs. In addition, the brain is less sensitive to hypoxia (low oxygen) and hypercapnea (higher than normal carbon dioxide) and higher residual volume. As a result of these changes, older persons are at increased risk for pneumonia and bronchitis (Minaker, 2011; Sharma & Goodwin, 2006). Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    In the respiratory assessment of this patient, I expect to find marked dorsal curvature, increased AP diameter of the chest, diminished chest expansion, and kyphosis. The weakened muscles will result in lower oxygen levels and lower elimination of carbon dioxide leading to decreased coughing capacity. Alveoli will also will also lose their shape leading to dypnea. Therefore, oxygenation goals will have to take in cognizance these realities and advise the patient accordingly. Consequently, efforts to increase exercise tolerance, treat complication, and relieve symptoms will be initiated.

    If Tina had mentioned that she was just diagnosed with pneumonia, what would you have expected to find during percussion?

    If the results of Tina’s pulse oximetry had been 97%, which of the following would have been true?

    Suppose that, during your lung exam on Tina, you had heard bronchial breath sounds in the left lower lung posteriorly. What would you have suspected based on this finding?

    Suppose that while auscultating, you assessed a few scattered expiratory wheezes. Why would this be an expected finding for a patient with Tina’s history. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    When you observe a patient like Tina throughout an exam, there are many ways to determine whether a patient is experiencing respiratory distress. Identify one indicator of respiratory distress that can be assessed through observation alone.

     

    Describe how you would assess Tina for dyspnea

    Dyspnea can be assessed both……

    Explicitly describe the tasks you undertook to complete this exam.

    The examination…..

    Explain the clinical reasoning behind your decisions and tasks.

    Identify how your performance could be improved and how you can apply “lessons learned” within the assignment to your professional practice.

    My performance could be improved by seeking more history from the patient…..

    NR 509 Week 1 Shadow Health History Assignment

    Pre-brief

    Obtaining an accurate history is the critical first step in determining the etiology of a patient’s problem. A large percentage of the time, you will actually be able to make a diagnosis based on the history alone. The value of the history, of course, will depend on your ability to elicit relevant information. Your sense of what constitutes important data will grow exponentially as you practice your interviewing skills and through increased exposure to patients and illness…………………… Interviewing patients is an art and should remain an essential skill for successful practice.

    In this activity, you will interview Tina Jones to collect data to assess Ms. Jones’ condition. You will also have the opportunity to educate and empathize with Tina to engage in effective therapeutic communication; create a problem listusing evidence from the data you collected; prioritize the identified problems to differentiate immediate from non-immediate care; plan how to best address the most important concern with further assessment, interventions, and patient education; and compare your documentation to model documentation.

    Ms. Jones is a pleasant, 28-year-old obese African American single woman who presents to establish care and with a recent right foot injury. She is the primary source of the history. Ms. Jones offers information freely and without contradiction. Her speech is clear and coherent and she maintains eye contact throughout the interview. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    Reason for visit: Patient presents for an initial primary care visit today complaining of an infected foot wound.

    | Overview

    | Transcript

    | Subjective Data Collection

    | Objective Data Collection

    | Education & Empathy

    | Documentation / Electronic Health Record

    | Information Processing

    | Lab Pass: Certificate of Completion

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz

    A mother brings her two month old daughter in for an examination says “my daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has the spot soft on the top of her head, is there something terribly wrong?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    During percussion the FNP knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. This most likely results from:

    The patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The FNP suspects Damage to:

    When examining the face, the FNP is aware that the two pairs of salivary gland‘s that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands

    A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The FNP suspects damage to cranial nerve ____ and proceeds with the examination by____

    When examining a patient’s cranial nerve function, the FNP remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

    The patient’s laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The FNP would proceed with an examination of the _____ gland. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adams apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that leaves the FNP to suspect that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump:

    The FNP notices that the patient’s submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the FNP would assess the patient’s:

    The FNP is aware that the four areas in the body were lymph nodes accessible are the:

    A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his eyes. The FNP should know that floaters are usually not significant and are caused by:

    The FNP is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How should the FNP proceed?

    A patient’s vision is recorded as 20/30 when the Snellen eye chart is used. The FNP interprets these results to indicate that: Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    A patient is unable to read even the largest letters on the Snellen chart. The FNP should take which action next:

    A patient’s vision is reported as 20/80 in each eye. The FNP interprets this finding to mean that

    When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the FNP notes that the light is reflected at 2 o’clock in each eye. The FNP should

    The FNP is performing the diagnostic positions test. Normal findings would be which of these results?

    During an assessment of the sclera of an African-American patient, the FNP would consider which of these an expected finding?

    A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an examination. The FNP suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. How should the FNP check for this?

    The FNP is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale gray and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

    The FNP is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation?

    During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old African-American patient, the FNP notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the FNP do in response to these findings

    During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a three day history of nausea and vomiting the FNP notices dry mucous and deep vertical fissures on the tongue. These findings are reflective of:

    The FNP is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?

    The FNP student is reviewing physical assessment findings of the HEENT system associated with pregnancy. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of expected HEENT changes associated with pregnancy? Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript During pregnancy:

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz Review – (Jarvis 8,9,13,14,15,16,18), (Swartz 4,6,7,8,9,10)

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz

    A mother brings her two month old daughter in for an examination says “my daughter rolled over against the wall and now I have noticed that she has the spot soft on the top of her head, is there something terribly wrong?” The FNP‘s best response would be:

    During percussion the FNP knows that a dull percussion note elicited over a lung lobe. This most likely results from:

    The patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The FNP suspects Damage to:

    When examining the face, the FNP is aware that the two pairs of salivary gland‘s that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands

    A patient comes to the clinic complaining of neck and shoulder pain and is unable to turn her head. The FNP suspects damage to cranial nerve ____ and proceeds with the examination by____

    When examining a patient’s cranial nerve function, the FNP remembers that the muscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the:

    The patient’s laboratory data reveal an elevated thyroxine level. The FNP would proceed with an examination of the _____ gland

    A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her “Adams apple” that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that leaves the FNP to suspect that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump:

    The FNP notices that the patient’s submental lymph nodes are enlarged. In an effort to identify the cause of the node enlargement, the FNP would assess the patient’s:

    The FNP is aware that the four areas in the body were lymph nodes accessible are the:

    A 52-year-old patient describes the presence of occasional floaters or spots moving in front of his eyes. The FNP should know that floaters are usually not significant and are caused by:

    The FNP is preparing to assess the visual acuity of a 16-year-old patient. How should the FNP proceed? Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    A patient’s vision is recorded as 20/30 when the Snellen eye chart is used. The FNP interprets these results to indicate that:

    A patient is unable to read even the largest letters on the Snellen chart. The FNP should take which action next:

    A patient’s vision is reported as 20/80 in each eye. The FNP interprets this finding to mean that

    When performing the corneal light reflex assessment, the FNP notes that the light is reflected at 2 o’clock in each eye. The FNP should

    The FNP is performing the diagnostic positions test. Normal findings would be which of these results?

    During an assessment of the sclera of an African-American patient, the FNP would consider which of these an expected finding? Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an examination. The FNP suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. How should the FNP check for this?

    The FNP is doing an assessment on a 21-year-old patient and notices that his nasal mucosa appears pale gray and swollen. What would be the most appropriate question to ask the patient?

    The FNP is palpating the sinus areas. If the findings are normal, then the patient should report which sensation?

    During an oral assessment of a 30-year-old African-American patient, the FNP notices bluish lips and a dark line along the gingival margin. What would the FNP do in response to these findings

    During an assessment of a 20-year-old patient with a three day history of nausea and vomiting the FNP notices dry mucous and deep vertical fissures on the tongue. These findings are reflective of:

    The FNP is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus?

    The FNP student is reviewing physical assessment findings of the HEENT system associated with pregnancy. Which statement by the graduate FNP reflects a correct understanding of expected HEENT changes associated with pregnancy? During pregnancy: Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    NR 509 Week 2 Quiz Review – (Jarvis 8,9,13,14,15,16,18), (Swartz 4,6,7,8,9,10)

    1.       What does dullness when percussing lung fields: Jarvis pg 427

    2.       Facial sensation controlled by which CN: Jarvis 283,

    3.       Know what two salivary glands are accessible during exam

    4.       What CN is being … when pt shrugs shoulders Jarvis 646

    5.       What muscles are being …. when …. CN 11 (spinal accessory nerve)

    6.       Concern for malignant nodules versus benign lymph nodule

    7.       Know what you’d do next if you palpated a submental lymph node: Jarvis pg 253

    8.       Define visual acuity

    9.       Know what to do if your patient can’t read the largest number on the Snellen chart: Jarvis 289

    10.   Example of good visual acuity : Jarvis 289

    11.   Example of poor visual acuity: Jarvis 289

    12.   What is …. with corneal light reflex-

    13.   Know normal variances of sclera : Jarvis 283

    14.   Know how to check for Ptosis: Jarvis 292

    15.   What does ptosis indicate: Jarvis 292

    16.   Nasal fissure of pt with chronic allergies : Jarvis 271

    ·         Acute allergies : Jarvis p 363 .

    17.   What is an abnormal palpation of sinuses: Jarvis 362

    ·         Normal palpation of sinuses

    18.   Know normal variations in gingival margin Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript

    19.   Know what a dehydrated oral cavity will look like: Jarvis 387

    20.   What is tactile fremitus, how do you test for it and what does it indicate. Jarvis 425

    N 518 Module 2: THE GENERAL SURVEY AND HEENT

    Module 2: Discussion Question

    Start by reading and following these instructions:

    You are responsible for minimally at least 3 posts for each question in your discussion boards; your initial post and reply to two of your classmates. 
    Your initial post(s) should be your response to the questions posed in the discussion question. You should research your answer and cite at least one scholarly source when appropriate, and always use quality writing.The discussion board is never a place to use text language or emoticons. You will also be asked to respond to your classmates. This is designed to enhance the academic discussion around the topic. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript. It is all right to disagree with something posted by another, however your responses should always be thoughtful and respectful and reflect your opinions professionally.

    Discussion Question:

    In your professional opinion, what is the difference between chronic and acute pain? How is the assessment for each type of pain different? What must you keep in mind when assessing acute pain? What must you keep in mind when assessing chronic pain?  Reflect upon a time when you assessed a patient in pain. What did you do well? What points could you have improved upon? How did the pain impact the patient? What specific treatments could have lessened the impact of the pain on the patient?

    Your initial posting should be 200 to 300 words in length and utilize at least one scholarly source other than the textbook. Please reply to at least two classmates. Replies to classmates should be at least 100 words in length. To properly “thread” your discussion posting, please click on REPLY Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    When you are ready for the discussion, do the following:

    Click on the discussion link above.

    Start your answer by clicking “Start a New Thread” button with the title of your answer and the body of text following the guidance above.

    To properly post your answer, please click on the “Post” button.

    After posting your contribution, you must read what others have posted, reply to at least two of those posts, and respond (when appropriate) to those you have responded to you.

    To reply to a classmate’s post:

    Click on the title of another student’s post.

    Click “Reply to Thread” and type your response to the student.

    Click the “Post” button to post your reply.

    N 581 Module 2: Assignment

    Remember to submit your work following the file naming convention FirstInitial.LastName_M01.docx. For example, J.Smith_M01.docx. Remember that it is not necessary to manually type in the file extension; it will automatically append. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    Start by reading and following these instructions:

    1. Quickly skim the questions or assignment below and the assignment rubric to help you focus.

    2. Read the required chapter(s) of the textbook and any additional recommended resources. Some answers may require you to do additional research on the Internet or in other reference sources. Choose your sources carefully.

    3. Consider the discussion and the any insights you gained from it.

    4. Create your Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript Assignment submission and be sure to cite your sources, use APA style as required, check your spelling.

    Assignment:

    Exercises
    : 

    Complete the Shadow Health HEENT assessment.

    Professional Development

    Write a reflection essay of your experience with the Shadow Health virtual assessment. At least two scholarly sources in addition to your textbook should be utilized. Please be sure to address each of the following prompts:

    What went well in your assessment?

    What did not go so well? What will you change for your next assessment?

    What findings did you uncover?

    What questions yielded the most information? Why do you think these were effective?

    What diagnostic tests would you order based on your findings? Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript.

    What differential diagnoses are you currently considering?

    What patient teaching were you able to complete? What additional patient teaching is needed?

    Would you prescribe any medications at this point? Why or why not? If so, what?

    How did your assessment demonstrate sound critical thinking and clinical decision making? What could you change to make it better?

    N 581: SHADOW HEALTH ASSIGNMENT

    Shadow Health Physical Assessment Rubric

    Shadow Health Physical Assessment Rubric

    Criteria

    Ratings

    Pts

    This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome
    Subjective Data, Organization, Communication, and Summary (DCE Score or transcript)

    25.0
     pts

    Above Average- DCE Score greater than or equal to 93; Comprehensive introduction with expectations of exam verbalized; questions worded in a non-judgmental way; professional language exercised; questions well-organized; appropriate closing with summary of findings verbalized to patient.

    21.0
     pts

    Average- DCE Score greater than or equal to 86-92; Adequate introduction; some questions worded in a non-judgmental way; professional language mostly exercised; questions generally organized; somewhat complete closing.

    10.0
     pts

    Below Average- DCE Score greater than or equal to 80-85; Incomplete introduction; many questions worded in a judgmental way; some professional language exercised; questions somewhat organized; incomplete closing. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript

    0.0
     pts

    Unsatisfactory- DCE Score less than or equal to 79; Introduction missing; questions worded in a judgmental way; little professional language; questions unorganized; closing missing.

    25.0
     pts

    This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome
    Objective Data, Physical Examination, Interpretation of Findings, Assessment, and Documentation

    20.0
     pts

    Above Average- Physical assessment documentation includes all relevant body systems; all pertinent normal and abnormal findings identified; documentation reflects professional language; treatment plan includes each of the following components: diagnostics, medication, education, consultation/referral, and follow-up planning.

    16.0
     pts

    Average- Physical assessment documentation lacks sufficient details pertaining to one or two relevant body systems; or identifies ≥ 50% of the pertinent normal and abnormal findings; or documentation lacks professional language; or treatment plan lacks one or two components (diagnostics, medication, education, consultation/referral, or follow-up planning).

    8.0
     pts

    Below Average- Physical assessment documentation lacks sufficient details pertaining to three or more relevant body systems; or identifies < 49% of the pertinent normal and abnormal findings; or documentation includes unprofessional language; or treatment plan lacks three or more components (diagnostics, medication, education, consultation/referral, or follow-up planning). 0.0  pts Unsatisfactory- No physical assessment documentation or no treatment plan. Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript 20.0  pts This criterion is linked to a Learning Outcome Self-Reflection 5.0  pts Above Average- Responds to three of the three reflection post questions; and provides analysis of performance; and reflection posts written using professional language; and reflection posts demonstrate insight. 3.0  pts Average- Responds to two of the three reflection post questions; or provides limited self-analysis of performance; or reflection posts are somewhat unclear related to the assignment and the student’s experience; or reflection posts lack insight. 2.0  pts Below Average- Responds to one of the three reflection post questions; or does not provide self-analysis of performance; or reflections are not related to the assignment and the student’s experience; or does not provide insight 0.0  pts Unsatisfactory- No reflection posts for the assignment. 5.0  pts Total Points:  50.0 Shadow health respiratory assessment questions and transcript

  • ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU

    ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU

    ENG 105 Topic 2 DQ 1

    Look again at the 
    CDC’s Web page about ADHD
    .

    In 150-200 words, please analyze the document’s purpose and audience. Who, for example, is the CDC’s audience? What are the CDC’s beliefs about ADHD, and how does the CDC’s Web page relate itself to those beliefs? Why would the federal government post a Web page about ADHD? ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU. What role does the general public expect the government to play regarding disorders such as ADHD?

    During the week, go back and read some of your classmates’ posts. Do you agree with their views?

    ENG 105 Topic 2 DQ 2

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    Review the CDC website and answer at least three of the questions below:

    Who is the writer?

    What is the writer’s purpose?

    Who is the intended audience?

    What is the broader cultural context that motivated the writing of the article?

    How does the writer establish ethos?

    Does the writer appeal to logos (logic)?

    Does the writer appeal to pathos (emotions)?

    ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU

    Do you feel that the website is effective? Why or why not?

    Use these questions to guide the content of your rhetorical analysis.

    During the week, review your classmates’ posts. What are some similarities and differences between your response and your peers’ responses?

    ENG 105 Topic 2 First Draft of a Rhetorical Analysis of a Public Document

    Details:

    Refer to the “First Draft Rhetorical Analysis of a Public Document” resource for instructions on completing this ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU.

    ENG105_First DraftRhetoricalAnalysisofPublicDocAssignment.docxENG105_T2Rubric.RhetoricalAnalysis.doc

    ENG 105 Topic 2 
    Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum

    Please follow these steps: 

    Begin by posting your Rhetorical Analysis Rough Draft by the deadline to 
    TWO 
    places: to the Module 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum 
    AND
    to the Module 2 Rhetorical Analysis Rough Draft assignment box ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU.

    Next, review the draft of the person who posted his/her response 
    directly below
     yours in the Peer Review forum. If your draft is the last posted, review the first draft posted. Then, complete the “Peer Review Rhetorical Analysis Worksheet” (see attachment in Assignment dropbox). Review the “Rubric Peer Review” media piece for information on effective peer reviews.

    You will then need to post your completed Peer Review Worksheet to 
    TWO
    places: to the Module 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum for your peer to view, as well as to the Module 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review assignment box, so the instructor can grade your work. ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU.

    Attach the file with your completed Peer Review Worksheet to the Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum as a “reply” to the initial post of your peer’s first draft.

    Please note that to participate in the peer review process you must post your essay by 11:59 pm (AZ time) on Wednesday of Module 2.

    If you do not submit the Rough Draft or Peer Review Worksheet to both places or if you review the wrong person, you may not receive full credit for this assignment.

    ENG 105 Topic 2 Peer Review of a Classmate’s First Draft of a Rhetorical Analysis of a Public Document

    Details:

    Please follow these steps: 

    Begin by posting your Rhetorical Analysis Rough Draft by the deadline to 
    TWO 
    places: to the Topic 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum 
    AND
     to the Topic 2 Rhetorical Analysis Rough Draft assignment box.

    ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU Review the media piece: “Peer Review Using Rubrics” located in the Course Material folder for information on effective peer reviews.

    Next, review the draft of the person who posted his/her response 
    directly below
     yours in the Peer Review forum. If your draft is the last posted, review the first draft posted. Then, complete the “Peer Review Rhetorical Analysis Worksheet” (see attachment).

    You will then need to post your completed Peer Review Worksheet to 
    TWO
     places: to the Topic 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum for your peer to view, as well as to the Topic 2 Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review assignment box, so the instructor can grade your work.

    Attach the file with your completed Peer Review Worksheet to the Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Forum as a “reply” to the initial post of your peer’s first draft. ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU.

    Please note that to participate in the peer review process you must post your essay by 11:59 pm (AZ time) on Wednesday of Topic 2.

    If you do not submit the Rough Draft or Peer Review Worksheet to both places or if you review the wrong person, you may not receive full credit for this assignment.

    ENG 105 Week 2 Discussions and Assignment GCU Rhetorical Analysis Peer Review Worksheet Revised .docx

  • ENG and PHI-105 Quiz

    ENG and PHI-105 Quiz

    Quiz Details

    This quiz covers material that is critical to your success in ENG-105. As you take the quiz, please write down vocabulary and concepts that seem unfamiliar. You will have a chance to refresh your understanding of all the information on this quiz throughout our first week of class. Please do not hesitate to ask about study materials for any information you need.

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    The quiz will be in two parts; part one will be responding to the questions below, and part two will be a multiple choice section; you will be completing this section in the quiz forum (Go to the Task tab>>Quiz).

    Part One Instruction:

    Please answer the following five questions on this document; if you require more room to respond to the question, the space can be manipulated. Please remember to save your work and then submit this document in the assignment drop box for Module 1 Quiz: Part One. If you are unclear of these instructions, please contact your instructor. ENG and PHI-105 Quiz.

    1.      Clark Kent is writing an essay for Professor Thunder Lope’s ENG-105 course and asks you to guide him in writing his heading in GCU Style for a paper that is due February 1, 2015.  In the space below, please write the heading for this paper in GCU Style.

     

    2.      Sally Student has been asked to summarize a passage from her PHI-105 textbook. In your own words, what is a summary? (Your response should be between 25-50 words please.)

     

    3.     
    Summarize
    the following passage in 25-50 words:

    From Martin Luther King, Jr.’s “Letter from a Birmingham Jail”:

    “In any nonviolent campaign there are four basic steps: collection of the facts to determine whether injustices exist; negotiation; self-purification; and direct action. We have gone through all these steps in Birmingham. There can be no gainsaying the fact that racial injustice engulfs this community. Birmingham is probably the most thoroughly segregated city in the United States. Its ugly record of brutality is widely known. Negroes have experienced grossly unjust treatment in the courts. There have been more unsolved bombings of Negro homes and churches in Birmingham than in any other city in the nation. ENG and PHI-105 Quiz. These are the hard, brutal facts of the case. On the basis of these conditions, Negro leaders sought to negotiate with the city fathers. But the latter consistently refused to engage in good faith negotiation” (King, 1963, para. 6).

     

    4.      Write a paragraph
    interpreting
    the meaning of the passage taken from Martin Luther King Jr.’s “Letter from a Birmingham Jail”: (Your response should be at least 100 words in length please.) ENG and PHI-105 Quiz.

     

    “In any nonviolent campaign there are four basic steps: collection of the facts to determine whether injustices exist; negotiation; self-purification; and direct action. We have gone through all these steps in Birmingham. There can be no gainsaying the fact that racial injustice engulfs this community. Birmingham is probably the most thoroughly segregated city in the United States. Its ugly record of brutality is widely known. Negroes have experienced grossly unjust treatment in the courts ENG and PHI-105 Quiz. There have been more unsolved bombings of Negro homes and churches in Birmingham than in any other city in the nation. These are the hard, brutal facts of the case. On the basis of these conditions, Negro leaders sought to negotiate with the city fathers. But the latter consistently refused to engage in good faith negotiation” (King, 1963, para. 6).

     

    5.      Based on the guidelines for the first essay assignment and the assigned readings for this week, what is a rhetorical analysis? What does it mean to analyze a text?  (Your response should be between 50-100 words please.)

    Reference

    ENG and PHI-105 Quiz King, M. L. (1963).
    Letter from a Birmingham Jail.
    Retrieved from
    http://www.africa.upenn.edu/Articles_Gen/Letter_Birmingham.html

  • Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay

    Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay
    .

    Katherine Kolcaba developed comfort theory in early 1990s. She was born in Cleveland, Ohio on 8 December, 1944. She specializes in nursing and her main areas of specialization are End of Life and Long Term Care Interventions, Gerontology, Nursing Theory and Research, Instrument Development, and Comfort Theory. She authored a book known as Comfort Theory and Practice: a Vision for Holistic Health Care and Research. Presently, she is a professor of nursing at University of Akron College of Nursing.

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    Main Premises of the Theory

    According to the comfort theory, comfort is an immediate desirable outcome that should be achieved in a nursing care setting. This theory also argues that when nurses deliver all comfort interventions over time with consistencies, it will cause a trend showing increased levels of comfort of the patients. Major concepts of the comfort theory include health care needs, intervening variables, health seeking behaviors, best policies, best practices, and institutional integrity. Institutional integrity refers to the financial stability, values, and the wholeness that there are in health care organizations. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay. These facts occur in all health care organizations located at regional, state, local, and national levels. Health seeking behaviors can be external, internal, and peaceful death. Internal seeking behaviors include immune functions, numbers of T-cells, and healing. External seeking behaviors include functional outcomes and health related activities. Intervening variables refer to all factors that are expected to remain constant in the nursing care setting. Health care providers do not have any control over such factors. They include an extent of social support, financial situation, and prognosis. Health care needs are all needs that are indentified by a patient or family of a particular patient in any clinical care setting.

    According to Kolcaba, conflict exists in three forms. They include relief, ease, and transcendence. Relief refers to the state that a patient feels when his/her need is met in a particular health care setting. Ease refers to a state of contentment and calmness. Lastly, transcendence refers to a state in which a patient is able to rise above the problems that may be facing him/her. It also refers to a state in which a particular patient is able to rise above his/her pain. Kolcaba also gave four contexts in which comfort occurs. They include physical, psychospiritual, environmental, and social cultural. Physical context relates to the sensations of the body. Environmental context relates to external conditions, surroundings, and influences. Social cultural context relates to the family, interpersonal, and social relations. Lastly, psychospiritual context relates to the internal awareness of a person, self-esteem, and the sexuality of a person. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    Comfort theory has several assumptions. Some of these assumptions include that all human beings have holistic responses to stimuli that have a complex nature. Another assumption of this theory is that when comfort needs of a patient are met, patients become strengthened. This theory also assumes that all human beings always strive to meet their needs. They also struggle all the times in order to ensure that they are able to satisfy their basic comfort needs. Another key assumption of this theory is that comfort is critical in the nursing field.

    Current Utility of the Theory for Application to Research Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay

    This theory can be applied in several ways in nursing research. According to this theory, nursing is defined as the process of investigating comfort needs of patients. It also deals with the development and implementation of necessary nursing interventions and evaluations of patient’s comfort. Considering this fact, researchers always want to establish whether patients experience comfort whenever health care services are delivered to them. Patients experience comfort when they are confident that the services that they expected to receive are delivered to them. Comfort theory also stresses the importance of intentional assessments of all comfort needs and the reassessment of the levels of comfort after they become implemented in a particular health care setting.

    This theory has also been used widely while providing care for children. When families of a particular child become stressed because of a particular condition that their child might have, a caregiver provides social comfort by avoiding words such as pain before the child undergoes any medical procedure Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay. In addition, nurses and other physicians provide psychospiritual and social comfort by allowing parents to be present when the child undergoes any medical procedure. Physical comfort to the child can be provided by ensuring that the child is positioned in an appropriate and comfortable manner during the medical procedure that the child may be undergoing. Environmental comfort is provided by ensuring that the atmosphere in which the medical procedure is carried out on the child is conducive and calm.

    In a general clinical setting, physical comfort is provided by giving patients appropriate medications. It can be achieved by giving patients repositioning, backrubs, and therapeutic touch. Patients should be given proper medication, for example, adequate anti-anxiety and analgesics. Psychospiritual comfort is given to patients by giving them privacy wherever they request that privacy is awarded to them. Healthcare providers should also encourage all patients that they may be attending to express their feelings in order to recognize this form of comfort. Nurses and other physicians are also supposed to allow their clients to freely practice and express their spirituality in order to award this form of comfort. Social interaction can be provided by interacting freely with the client and allowing the patient to socialize freely with other people in the health care setting.

    Problem or Issue in Practice That is an Area of Concern to You

    What is a Problem?

    The problem in practice that is of great concern to me is poor patient satisfaction in nursing care. Poor patient satisfaction occurs when patients strongly feel that they did not receive the services that they had expected to receive in a particular health care setting. In some instances, patients end up feeling that doctors did not listen to the concerns that patients might have presented to them leading to poor patient satisfaction Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay. Doctors argue that they may fail to fulfill the demands of patients due to several reasons. Although patient autonomy is critical, physicians argue that they are not obliged to fulfill any demand that they may be given by the patient concerning test, treatment, or a particular medication. In some instances, doctors argue that a particular medical procedure that a patient may have requested may not be valid considering all scientific methods that may be present. Doctors also argue that some of the subjective judgments that patients may require to address may be incorrect. Due to this, doctors may not fulfill these needs making the patient unsatisfied.

    Patients also become dissatisfied when they feel that physicians do not conduct follow-up activities after they are discharged from hospital. According to research, follow-up is the most critical step that is missed in the service recovery cycle of patients. However, this step is crucial to the overall satisfaction of a patient. Doctors and nurses may forget to engage in follow-up calls in order to establish whether the progress of their patient has been positive. Follow-up procedures are also important since a physician is able to obtain feedback regarding the quality of services that a particular patient may have received while receiving patient care (Irwin Press, 2006). Poor patient satisfaction may also be caused by the fact that a particular hospital may fail to conduct process review and performance tracking assessments in order to improve patient care. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay Improvement in the level of patient satisfaction can be achieved when procedures and operational processes are constantly reviewed, so that they can be adjusted to align with the needs of patients.

    One of the strategies that hospitals and other health care services can adopt to improve their levels of patient satisfaction is conducting Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) surveys. Hospitals and other health care facilities that score low in this survey do not communicate clearly with their patients. This mostly happens when the tools of communication adopted by a particular hospital are poor. For example, the staff in a hospital may only use single modes of communication instead of using multiple communication modes. Researchers have established that patients become satisfied when instructions given to them are both written and repeated verbally to enhance the level of their understanding. In case a patient is not fluent in English or any other language, hospitals should have interpreters who are able to explain to the patients important discharge information.

    Patients also become dissatisfied when they feel that they were not given proper patient education while receiving medical care in a particular health care setting. All hospitals should ensure that they give patients appropriate education regarding their medication, condition, follow-up plans, and post discharge plans. This is because they are unable to understand their condition and strategies that they can adopt in order to improve their medical condition. Due to this, hospitals are always encouraged to educate their patients during transitions of care. Patient education is especially critical during transition from hospital setting to home or long-term care (Shelton, 2000). This will help to reduce any anxiety that patients may have because of not understanding things that they are supposed to do during the process of post discharge Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    Poor patient satisfaction is harmful to healthcare settings due to several reasons. Talented staff in a hospital may move to other hospitals that have higher patient satisfaction scores. This is because a nurse feels motivated when he/she knows that the services that he/she offers to patients are appreciated by clients that he/she serves. Patient loyalty also becomes low when they are not satisfied with the level of services that they receive from a particular clinical care setting. This makes them opt to seek services in other health care institutions, so that they are able to receive the quality of services that they want. It makes hospitals lose their patient base.

    Significance of the Problem

    The problem of poor patient satisfaction is significant since it will help hospitals to appreciate the importance of maintaining high levels of patient satisfaction. Patient satisfaction is important since it helps to increase retention rates of patients. This is because satisfied patients are always loyal to their health care providers. In addition, patient satisfaction helps to ensure that hospitals conduct adequate word of mouth advertising. When patients are satisfied after being given quality care, they usually tell their friends about the experience that they received from a particular health care institution. It will help to increase the number of referrals that a particular hospital receives, thus ensuring that the client base of a hospital increases. This will help in improving overall billings that a hospital receives. Hospitals are also able to reduce their malpractice costs if they have many satisfied patients. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay. It is common for hospitals to face many lawsuits that originate from patients who feel that they did not receive services that they ought to have received. In most instances, patients file malpractice lawsuits because of poor communication that makes a hospital face the risk of having malpractice lawsuits. Due to this, hospitals have to try hard to ensure that they communicate empathically concerning complex issues that may affect patient’s health outcomes.

    Design Intervention that ‘fits’ the Theory

    Report Findings in at least One Published Article that Addressed this Practice Problem/Issue

    Medscape Education published a research on ways to adopt in order to improve the levels of patient satisfaction. From its research, it argues that poor patient satisfaction can be solved in heath care institutions by ensuring that good communication exists between patients and the physician. Patients become satisfied when they perceive that they have a strong connection with the physician that attends to their health needs and concerns. One of the ways of creating strong perception between patients and physicians is through the engagement of social talks. Studies among Japanese cancer out patients have revealed that social talks ensure that high perceptions are created. These patients argued that social talks helped to ensure that “partnership building approach” existed between patients and physicians. Patients suffering from severe chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases argued that their perceptions became high when they felt that physicians listened to their needs. In addition, these patients argued that their perceptions also became high when physicians attended to all concerns that they had. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    The research by the Medscape Education also reveals that empathy leads to an increase in patient satisfaction. In order for physicians to create empathy with patients, they need to respond to the emotional state of patients. It also calls for assisting patients in dealing with any emotional needs that they may have or needs that may be affecting them. Studies have also revealed that empathy is created when doctors and other physicians show a strong sense of caring towards their patients. This research quoted a study conducted by Zacharie on Danish patients. Zacharie surveyed about 454 oncology outpatients. The variables investigated under this study were self-efficacy, patient distress, and the perception of communication behaviors of physicians. From this study, it was clear that most patients became satisfied with how their medical needs were handled. In addition, patient empathy and attentiveness determined the level of patient satisfaction. Moreover, patient distress was correlated negatively with empathy and how attentive physicians were.

    Several physical verbal behaviors help to ensure positive interpersonal relations exist between patients and physicians ensuring high patient satisfaction levels. One of these behaviors is being attentive while taking the medical history of patients. This will help to ascertain that doctors are able to know all critical information about a particular patient. Doctors are also supposed to listen to and answer to all questions that patients may have, so that they are able to address all issues that patients may have presented. Physicians are also encouraged to engage in non-verbal behaviors in order to increase the level of patient satisfaction. Examples of non-verbal behaviors that physicians can engage in include having a less mutual gaze towards their patients. They should also consider uncrossing their arms and lengths. In order to promote exchange of information with patients, physicians are supposed to clarify all the statements that they give to patients. Moreover, they need to address needs, problems, daily lives, and emotions of patients. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    Report Findings in at least One Published Text or Article that Addressed How the Theory Could Be Useful in Practice in General.

    One published text has provided an application of comfort theory in practice. Marie was diagnosed with acute lymphatic leukemia. She was an 11-year-old Chinese patient admitted in a semi private ward. However, she looked sad and cried constantly before she received her chemotherapy. Physicians determined that the main reason that she was sad was that she was not given adequate relief described in the comfort theory. Considering physical comfort, her mouth was sore. In addition, she had constipation and neuropathy. Her environmental context was also not that favorable since she was placed in a cold room. Her social cultural context was also not that favorable since she did not have any family members around to take care of her. She was also not at ease since she could not communicate effectively as she only knew how to speak the Chinese language. She was also not given adequate privacy in her hospital ward. The physician knew that addressing the terms and context of the comfort theory would help in ensuring that Marie was happy and comfortable while receiving treatment in this hospital. At first, they created ease by educating Marie the techniques that she could use to accept and anticipate the social stigma that she could be face like baldness or skin problems that could affect her because of chemotherapy. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay. Her bed was also changed and she ended up sleeping in a comfortable resting position. Due to this, relaxation and her sleep were enhanced. This helped in ensuring that her physical context was favorable reducing the chances of fatigue affecting her.

    Marie was also given transcendence by reassuring her that all health needs that she had would be met and attended to by the health staff in the hospital where she received her medical treatment. Standard comfort was given to her by ensuring that she was given adequate medication to help her relive all side effects of chemotherapy that affected her. All the vitals that she had were also adequately checked in order to determine whether she faced the risk of developing nosocomial infections and fever. During all the assessments that she attended after chemotherapy, doctors avoided the word pain at all times. This was in an attempt of ensuring that this patient was at ease and that she did not fear anything. Marie was also given privacy since doctors acknowledged the fact that she was already in her puberty stage and she was therefore concerned about her privacy and overall body image. All these strategies were conducted after considering three comfort interventions described by Kolcaba that include standard comfort interventions, coaching, and comfort food for the soul. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    Propose an Intervention You Would Try that Could Use the Viewpoint of the Theory or Some Concept in the Theory

    One intervention could be used to solve the problem of poor patient satisfaction based on the comfort theory. Comfort theory suggests the use of coaching intervention to ensure that patients are happy because of the quality of services that may be given to them. Coaching intervention helps to relieve the anxiety that patients may have. If the anxiety that patients may have is eliminated, the level of patient satisfaction will increase because of this. Coaching also stresses the importance of physicians instilling hope in all the patients. If patients are given hope that they will be able to overcome all health challenges that may be affecting them, they will become satisfied since their confidence levels will increase. Coaching also stresses the importance of physicians giving patients adequate information concerning their historical background and medical progress. If patients are able to learn about their overall progress, they will become satisfied since they will be able to know if the medication that they may be taking is successful.

    Evaluate Effectiveness of Intervention

    Would You Need to Develop an Evaluation Plan? Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    It is critical to develop an evaluation plan. This is because an evaluation plan would enable hospitals to learn whether the proposed coaching intervention strategy is successful in eliminating poor patient satisfaction that is very common in health care settings. An evaluation plan will also enable hospitals to know whether they need to change the proposed intervention strategy and adopt another strategy that will yield maximum patient satisfaction.

    Does a Tool Exist that Measures your Area of Concern, Based on the Theory that Would Be Useful. How Would You Use It?

    Several tools exist that would measure the level of patient satisfaction based on comfort theory. One of these tools is the end of life comfort questionnaire of both patients and families. Family questionnaires aim at measuring the comfort of family members. These questionnaires argue that when a particular patient is comfortable, then it is highly likely that family members of this patient will also be comfortable. I would use this tool to determine whether family members are satisfied with the level of services given to their patients since they will translate to the level of patient satisfaction. I would also use verbal rating scale questionnaire. This questionnaire mainly aims at comparing coaching, healing interventions, and comfort towards young patients.

    What Would Need to Be Done to Use the Theory as a Base for an Intervention?

    Several things need to be done in order to use this theory as a base of intervention. One of the key things that need to be done is educating all nurses and other health care practitioners on the key principles of the comfort theory. Due to this, they will be able to know how to use principles outlined by this theory to promote patient satisfaction. Another key thing that needs to be done is conducting massive patient education. It will help to ensure that patients receive quality services in clinical care settings. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

    Conclusion

    Overall, the application of comfort theory will lead to a reduction in the level of poor patient satisfaction. This is because patients will be able to know that physicians care for all their needs and welfare. Due to this, hospitals will be able to avoid malpractice lawsuits and low patient loyalty. Several links have showed that application of comfort theory has succeeded in creating good communication between patients and physicians. This helps in ensuring that all physicians are able to receive critical information about the history of patients that will help in patient diagnosis. Further research needs to be conducted on the problem of poor patient satisfaction. The number of published research on comfort theory is limited. This affects the study of comfort theory since researchers are not able to get multiple viewpoints on the comfort theory. Although major breakthroughs have occurred concerning strategies that hospitals can adopt in order to ensure satisfaction of patients, more research needs to be performed in order to ensure that this problem is eliminated completely from health care settings. More research also needs to be conducted in order to determine strategies that hospitals need to adopt, so that they fully apply the comfort theory. Katherine Kolcaba’s Comfort Theory Essay.

  • NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers

    NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers
    .

    Mid term weeks 1-4

    Question 1

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?

     

    Globulin

     

     

    Albumin

     

     

    Clotting factors

     

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    Complement proteins

     

    Albumin
     
    (approximately 60% of total plasma protein at a concentration of about 4 g/dl) is the most abundant plasma protein. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Incorrect
    Question 2

    0 
    / 2
     pts

    Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

     

    Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

     

     

    Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

     

     

    Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells.

     

     

    Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

     

    Carcinoma in situ (CIS) refers to preinvasive epithelial malignant tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. These early stage cancers are localized to the epithelium and have not broken through the local basement membrane or invaded the surrounding tissue. Dysplasia refers to changes in mature cell structure.

     

    Question 3

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?

     

    Ligase chain reaction (LCR)

     

     

    Gram-stain technique

     

     

    Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

     

     

    DNA testing

     

    Microscopic evaluation of Gram-stained slides of clinical specimens is deemed positive for 
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae 
    if gram-negative diplococci with the typical “kidney bean” morphologic appearance are found inside polymorphonuclear leukocytes. Such a finding is considered adequate for the diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man. The other options are not relevant to the diagnosis of this condition.

     

    Question 4

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer?

     

    Ovarian

     

     

    Uterine

     

     

    Cervical

     

     

    Vaginal

     

    The Pap test, an examination of cervical epithelial scrapings, readily detects early oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV)infection. The Pap test is not used for screening the other cancer sites listed.

     

    Incorrect
    Question 5

    0 
    / 2
     pts

    Causes of hyperkalemia include:

     

    Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition

     

     

    Vomiting and diarrhea

     

     

    Renal failure and Addison disease

     

     

    Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

    NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers

    Hyperkalemia should be investigated when a history of renal disease, massive trauma, insulin deficiency, Addison disease, use of potassium salt substitutes, or metabolic acidosis exists. The other options are not known to be causes of hyperkalemia.

     

    Question 6

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the major concern regarding the treatment of gonococci infections?

     

    Development of antibiotic resistance

     

     

    Changes in virulence

     

     

    Changes in pathogenicity

     

     

    Mutations into different strains

     

    Several types of drug-resistant strains have been identified; they are penicillinase-producing 
    Neisseria gonorrhoeae
     (PPNG), which is resistant to penicillin; tetracycline-resistant 
    N. gonorrhoeae 
    (TRNG), which is resistant to tetracycline; chromosomal control of mechanisms of resistance of 
    N. gonorrhoeae 
    (CMRNG), which is resistant to penicillin and tetracycline; and increasingly a fluoroquinolone-resistant 
    N. gonorrhoeae 
    (QRNG). The other options are not major concerns. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 7

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Hypersensitivity
     is best defined as a(an):

     

    Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens

     

     

    Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person

     

     

    Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease

     

     

    Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens

     

    Hypersensitivity
     is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the host. The other options are not accurate definitions of hypersensitivity.

     

    Question 8

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?

     

    IgM

     

     

    IgG

     

     

    IgE

     

     

    IgA

     

    Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code for increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e.g., interleukin [IL]–4, IgE, leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum. None of the other options are associated with childhood asthma.

     

    Question 9

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child?

     

    Parental history of asthma

     

     

    Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels

     

    Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing

     

     

    Improvement on a trial of asthma medication

     

    Confirmation of the diagnosis of asthma relies on pulmonary function testing using spirometry, which can be accomplished only after the child is 5 to 6 years of age. Reduced expiratory flow rates that are reversible in response to an inhaled bronchodilator would be characteristic abnormalities. For younger children, an empiric trial of asthma medications is commonly initiated. The remaining options are major historical and physical factors that contribute but do not confirm the diagnosis of asthma in children.

     

    Question 10

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?

     

    Mitral regurgitation

     

     

    Mitral stenosis

     

     

    Pulmonary edema

     

     

    Jugular vein distention

     

    Pressure changes are important because increased left ventricular filling pressures back up into the pulmonary circulation, where they force plasma out through vessel walls, causing fluid to accumulate in lung tissues (pulmonary edema). This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the disorder described in the question.

     

    Question 11

    Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

     

    Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B
    12
     deficiency

     

    Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

     

    Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

     

    Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.

    The Schilling test indirectly evaluates vitamin B
    12
     absorption by administering radioactive B
    12
    and measuring excretion in the urine. This selection is the only option that accurately describes a Schilling test. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 12

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?

     

    126 mg/dl

     

     

    150 mg/dl

     

     

    180 mg/dl

     

     

    200 mg/dl

     

    When the plasma glucose reaches 180 mg/dl, as occurs in the individual with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, the threshold for glucose is achieved.

     

    Question 13

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?

     

    1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)

     

     

    1:2 (one  capillary per two muscle cells)

     

     

    1:4 (one  capillary per four muscle cells)

     

     

    1:10 (one  capillary per ten muscle cells)

     

    The heart has an extensive capillary network, with approximately 3300 capillaries per square millimeter (ca/mm
    2
    ) or approximately one capillary per one muscle cell (muscle fiber).

     

    Question 14

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

     

    Iron

     

     

    Zinc

     

     

    Iodine

     

     

    Magnesium

     

    Of the options available, only deficient zinc intake can profoundly depress T- and B-cell function.

     

    Question 15

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

     

    Coarctation of the aorta (COA) and pulmonary stenosis (PS)

     

     

    Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus

     

     

    Atrial septal defect (ASD) and dextrocardia

     

     

    Ventricular septal defect (VSD) and patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

     

    Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome include VSD and PDA (see Table 33-2). The other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome.

     

    Question 16

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?

     

    Iron deficiency

     

     

    Pernicious

     

     

    Sideroblastic

     

     

    Hemolytic

     

    Pernicious anemia is the most common type of megaloblastic anemia. The remaining options are not classified as megaloblastic anemias.

     

    Question 17

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?

     

    Vagus

     

     

    Phrenic

     

     

    Brachial

     

     

    Pectoral

     

    Fibers of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) travel only in the vagus nerve to the lung.

     

    Question 18

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?

     

    Adrenal cortex

     

     

    Hypothalamus

     

     

    Anterior pituitary

     

     

    Limbic system

     

    The alarm phase of the GAS begins when a stressor triggers the actions of the hypothalamus and the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) (see Figure 11-1). The other organs are not stimulated by the alarm phase of GAS.

     

    Question 19

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?

     

    IgA

     

     

    IgE

     

     

    IgG

     

     

    IgM

     

    Type I reactions are only mediated by antigen-specific IgE and the products of tissue mast cells (see Figure 9-1). NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 20

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the life span of an erythrocyte 
    (in days)
    ?

     

    20 to 30

     

     

    60 to 90

     

     

    100 to 120

     

     

    200 to 240

     

    Because it cannot undergo mitotic division, the erythrocyte has a limited life span of approximately 120 days.

     

    Question 21

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the life span of platelets 
    (in days)
    ?

     

    10

     

     

    30

     

     

    90

     

     

    120

     

    A platelet circulates for approximately 10 days and ages. Macrophages of the mononuclear phagocyte system, mostly in the spleen, remove platelets.

     

    Question 22

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?

     

    Prefrontal cortex

     

     

    Anterior pituitary

     

     

    Limbic system

     

     

    Hypothalamus

     

    Perceived stressors elicit an anticipatory response that begins in the limbic system of the brain, the only option responsible for emotions and cognition.

     

    Question 23

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the final stage of the infectious process?

     

    Colonization

     

     

    Invasion

     

     

    Multiplication

     

     

    Spread

     

    From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread.

    Question 24

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    The coronary ostia are located in the:

     

    Left ventricle

     

     

    Aortic valve

     

     

    Coronary sinus

     

     

    Aorta

     

    Coronary arteries receive blood through openings in the aorta, called the 
    coronary ostia
    .

     

    Question 25

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?

     

    A

     

     

    B

     

     

    C

     

     

    D

     

    Only hepatitis B virus (HBV) is known to be sexually transmitted.

     

    Question 26

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?

     

    Glomerular filtration

     

     

    Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
    3

     

    Increased heart rate

     

     

    Compensatory hypertrophy

     

    Compensatory hypertrophy allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload throughout life. The remaining options are not relevant to accommodating an increased workload.

     

    Question 27

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?

     

    The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.

     

    The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.

     

    The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.

     

    The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.

    The two atria have the thinnest walls because they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood that is emptied into the ventricles. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies which heart chambers have the thinnest walls and why that helps cardiac function.

     

    Question 28

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?

     

    Antidiuretic hormone

     

     

    Aldosterone

     

     

    Erythropoietin

     

     

    Angiotensinogen

     

    Erythropoietin is produced by the fetal liver and in the adult kidney and is essential for normal erythropoiesis. This statement is not true of the other options.

     

    Question 29

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atrioventricular (AV) node depolarize?

     

    60 to 70

     

     

    40 to 60

     

     

    30 to 40

     

     

    10 to 20

     

    If the SA node is damaged, then the AV node will become the heart’s pacemaker at a rate of approximately 40 to 60 spontaneous depolarizations per minute. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 30

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?

     

    To evaluate the cause of hypoxia

     

     

    To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration

     

     

    To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane

     

     

    To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations

     

    Spirometry measures volume and flow rate during forced expiration. The alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient is used to evaluate the cause of hypoxia. Diffusing capacity is a measure of the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane. Arterial blood gas analysis can be used to determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations.

     

    Question 31

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in which structure?

     

    Gut

     

     

    Spleen

     

     

    Bone marrow

     

     

    Thymus

     

    The spleen is the largest of the secondary lymphoid organs and the site of fetal hematopoiesis.

     

    Question 32

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow?

     

    Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.

     

    They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.

     

     

    Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.

     

     

    They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.

     

    Exercise and change of body position activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction. The other options do not have these effects on renal blood flow.

     

    Question 33

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response?

     

    The immune response is similar each time it is activated.

     

     

    The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it.

     

     

    The response to a specific pathogen is short term.

     

     

    The response is innate, rather than acquired.

     

    Unlike inflammation, which is nonspecifically activated by cellular damage and pathogenic microorganisms, the immune response is primarily designed to afford long-term specific protection (i.e., immunity) against particular invading microorganisms; that is, it has a 
    memory
     function. The other options are not unique characteristics of the immune response.

     

    Question 34

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children? NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Folic acid deficiency

     

     

    Iron deficiency

     

     

    Hemoglobin abnormality

     

     

    Erythrocyte abnormality

     

    Similar to the anemias of adulthood, ineffective erythropoiesis or premature destruction of erythrocytes causes the anemias of childhood. The most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis is iron deficiency. The other options may be causes but are not common ones.

     

    Question 35

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What are the abnormalities in cytokines found in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?

     

    Deficit of interleukin (IL)–1 and an excess of IL-4, IL-12, and interferon-alpha (IFN-α)

     

    Deficit of IL-6 and an excess of IL-2, IL-8, and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

     

    Deficit of IL-10 and an excess of IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α

     

     

    Deficit of IL-3 and an excess of IL-14, IL-24, and colony-stimulating factor (CSF)

     

    Abnormal cytokine profiles have been documented in CF airway fluids, including deficient IL-10 and excessive IL-1, IL-8, and TNF-α, all changes conducive to promoting inflammation. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the abnormalities in cytokines observed in children with CF.

     

    Question 36

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?

     

    Difficult deflation

     

     

    Easy inflation

     

     

    Stiffness

     

     

    Inability to diffuse oxygen

     

    A decrease in compliance indicates that the lungs or chest wall is abnormally stiff or difficult to inflate. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the meaning of decreased compliance.

     

    Question 37

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the action of urodilatin?

     

    Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.

     

     

    It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.

     

     

    Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.

     

     

    It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.

     

    Urodilatin (a natriuretic peptide) inhibits sodium and water reabsorption from the medullary part of collecting duct, thereby producing diuresis. It is not involved in the actions described by the other options.

     

    Incorrect
    Question 38

    0 
    / 2
     pts

    The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Right-to-left blood shunting

     

     

    Left-to-right blood shunting

     

     

    Blood flow from the umbilical cord

     

     

    Blood flow to the lungs

     

    The nonfused septum secundum and ostium secundum result in the formation of a flapped orifice known as the 
    foramen ovale
    , which allows the right-to-left shunting necessary for fetal circulation. The foramen ovale is not involved in the blood flow described by the other options.

     

    Incorrect
    Question 39

    0 
    / 2
     pts

    Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?

     

    Retropharyngeal abscess

     

     

    Laryngospasms

     

     

    Rupturing of the tonsils

     

     

    Gagging induced aspiration

     

    Examination of the throat may trigger laryngospasm and cause respiratory collapse. Death may occur in a few hours. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the life-threatening complication that can result from an examination of the throat of a child who demonstrates the signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis.

     

    Question 40

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which statement concerning benign tumors is 
    true
    ?

     

    The resulting pain is severe.

     

     

    Benign tumors are not encapsulated.

     

     

    Benign tumors are fast growing.

     

     

    The cells are well-differentiated.

     

    A benign tumor is well-differentiated with its tissue appearing similar to the tissue from which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor.

     

    Question 41

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?

     

    Initiates the clotting cascade.

     

     

    Activates platelets.

     

     

    Stimulates fibrin.

     

     

    Deactivates fibrinogen.

     

    In the clotting process, collagen provides a particularly strong stimulus to activate platelets. Collagen does not bring about any of the other options.

    Question 42

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates? NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Stimulates antidiuretic hormones.

     

     

    Inhibits antidiuretic hormones.

     

     

    Stimulates renin and aldosterone.

     

     

    Inhibits renin and aldosterone.

     

    Natriuretic peptides inhibit renin and aldosterone during heart failure when the heart dilates. These make up a group of peptide hormones, including atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), secreted from myocardial cells in the atria and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) secreted from myocardial cells in the cardiac ventricles. When the heart dilates during volume expansion or heart failure, ANP and BNP inhibit sodium and water absorption by kidney tubules, inhibit the secretion of renin and aldosterone, vasodilate the afferent arterioles, and constrict the efferent arterioles. The result is increased urine formation, leading to decreased blood volume and blood pressure.

     

    Question 43

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?

     

    Principle cells

     

     

    Podocin cells

     

     

    Mesangial cells

     

     

    Intercalated cells

     

    Mesangial cells and the mesangial matrix, secreted by mesangial cells, lie between and support the glomerular capillaries. Different mesangial cells contract like smooth muscle cells to regulate glomerular capillary blood flow. They also have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes. The other options are not capable of these functions.

     

    Question 44

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?

     

    Neutrophils

     

     

    Monocytes

     

     

    Eosinophils

     

     

    T lymphocytes

     

    Of the options provided, only eosinophils are activated during IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions.

     

    Question 45

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?

     

    Bones

     

     

    Brain

     

     

    Bladder

     

     

    Kidney

     

    The bone, especially the lumbar spine area, is the most common metastasis site for prostate cancer.

     

    Question 46

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

     

    Liver

     

     

    Endometrial

     

     

    Stomach

     

     

    Colon

     

    The World Cancer Research Fund summarizes the effects as 
    convincing
    for cancers of the colon and 
    probable
     for postmenopausal breast cancer and endometrial cancer. The relationship is not supported for the remaining options.

     

    Question 47

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?

     

    Genital herpes

     

     

    Chancroid

     

     

    Syphilis

     

     

    Chlamydia

     

    If symptoms occur, the individual may have small (1 to 2 mm), multiple, vesicular lesions that are generally located on the labia minora, fourchette, or penis. They may also appear on the cervix, buttocks, and thighs and are often painful and pruritic. These lesions usually last approximately 10 to 20 days. The other options do not demonstrate these symptoms.

     

    Question 48

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

     

    Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries

     

     

    Diffusion rate in the renal cortex

     

     

    Diffusion rate in the renal medulla

     

     

    Glomerular active transport

     

    The filtration of the plasma per unit of time is known as the 
    glomerular filtration rate
    (GFR), which is directly related to only the perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 49

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?

     

    Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

     

     

    Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

     

     

    Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)

     

     

    Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

     

    Pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever are generally present with the most common symptoms reflecting the consequence of bone marrow failure, which results in decreased red blood cells and platelets and changes in white blood cells. This selection is the only option that correctly identifies the disease with the symptoms described.

     

    Question 50

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?

     

    PRS

     

     

    QRS

     

     

    QT interval

     

     

    P

     

    Only the QRS complex represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations.

     

    Question 51

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

     

    IL–1 and IL-6

     

     

    IL-2 and TNF-α

     

     

    IFN and IL-12

     

     

    TNF-ß and IL-4

     

    Although a number of stress factors initiate the production of CRH, of the options available, only high levels of IL-1 and IL-6 initiate such a response.

     

    Question 52

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?

     

    Peripheral nerves

     

     

    Parasympathetic fibers

     

     

    Sympathetic nervous system

     

     

    Tenth thoracic nerve roots

     

    The innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by parasympathetic fibers of the autonomic nervous system. The process is not dependent on any of the other options. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Question 53

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?

     

    Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th
    1
     lymphocytes

     

    CD4 T-helper Th
    2
     lymphocytes

     

    CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes

     

     

    Memory T lymphocytes

     

    Asthma develops because the Th
    2
     response (in which CD4 T-helper cells produce specific cytokines, such as interleukin [IL]–4, IL-5, and IL-13) promotes an atopic and allergic response in the airways. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the appropriate T-lymphocyte phenotype.

     

    Question 54

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the primary site for uncomplicated local gonococci infections in men?

     

    Epididymis

     

     

    Lymph nodes

     

     

    Urethra

     

     

    Prostate

     

    Uncomplicated local infections are observed primarily as urethral infections in men.

     

    Question 55

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the trigone?

     

    A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter

     

     

    The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys

     

     

    A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra

     

     

    One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle

     

    The trigone
     
    is a smooth triangular area lying between the openings of thetwo ureters and the urethra. The other options do not accurately identify the trigone.

     

    Question 56

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

     

    Macula densa

     

     

    Visceral epithelium

     

     

    Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

     

     

    Filtration slits

     

    Control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion occur at the JGA. Together, the juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells form the JGA. The control of renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion is not directed by any of the other options.

     

    Question 57

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

     

    Consolidation

     

     

    Pulmonary edema

     

     

    Atelectasis

     

     

    Bronchiolar plugging

     

    The primary problem is atelectasis, which causes significant hypoxemia and is difficult for the neonate to overcome because a significant negative inspiratory pressure is required to open the alveoli with each breath. None of the other options are considered a primary problem associated with RDS.

     

    Question 58

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:

     

    High body surface–to–body size ratio

     

     

    Slow metabolic rate

     

     

    Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses

     

     

    Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty

     

    Renal mechanisms that regulate fluid and electrolyte conservation are often not mature enough to counter the losses; consequently, dehydration may rapidly develop. Infants can be susceptible to changes in total body water because of their high metabolic rate and the turnover of body fluids caused by their greater body surface area in proportion to their total body size. The inability to communicate their thirst is a problem only when they are poorly cared for. NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers.

     

    Incorrect
    Question 59

    0 
    / 2
     pts

    What is the first stage in the infectious process?

     

    Invasion

     

     

    Colonization

     

     

    Spread

     

     

    Multiplication

     

    From the perspective of the microorganisms that cause disease, the infectious process undergoes four separate stages of progression: (1) colonization, (2) invasion, (3) multiplication, and (4) spread.

     

    Question 60

    2 
    / 2
     pts

    It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding?

     

    Cancer is confined to the organ of origin.

     

     

    Cancer has spread to regional structures.

     

     

    Cancer is locally invasive.

     

     

    Cancer has spread to distant sites

     

    Cancer confined to the organ of origin is stage 1; cancer that is locally invasive is stage 2; cancer that has spread to regional structures, such as the lymph nodes, is stage 3; and cancer that has spread to distant sites, such as a liver cancer spreading to the lung or a prostate cancer spreading to bone, is stage 4.

    Quiz Score: 
    110
     out of 120

     

    NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology midterm exam question with answers

  • MN553 Quiz

    MN553 Quiz Question 1 1 / 1 point

    Up to 21% of Asians are ultra-rapid 2D6 metabolizers, leading to:

    Question options:

    A need to monitor drugs metabolized by 2D6 for toxicity

    Increased dosages needed of drugs metabolized by 2D6, such as the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

    Decreased conversion of codeine to morphine by CYP 2D6

    The need for lowered dosages of drugs, such as beta blockers

    Question 2 1 / 1 point

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Rifampin is a nonspecific CYP450 inducer that may:

    Question options:

    Lead to toxic levels of rifampin and must be monitored closely

    Cause toxic levels of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, when coadministered

    Induce the metabolism of drugs, such as oral contraceptives, leading to therapeutic failure

    Cause nonspecific changes in drug metabolism

    Question 3 1 / 1 point

    Inhibition of P-glycoprotein by a drug such as quinidine may lead to:

    Question options:

    Decreased therapeutic levels of quinidine

    Increased therapeutic levels of quinidine

    Decreased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

    Increased levels of a coadministered drug, such as digoxin, that requires P-glycoprotein for absorption and elimination

    MN553 Quiz Question 4 1 / 1 point

    Warfarin resistance may be seen in patients with VCORC1 mutation, leading to:

    Question options:

    Toxic levels of warfarin building up

    Decreased response to warfarin

    Increased risk for significant drug interactions with warfarin

    Less risk of drug interactions with warfarin

    Question 5 1 / 1 point

    Pharmacogenetic testing is required by the U
    .
    S
    .
     Food and Drug Administration prior to prescribing:

    Question options:

    Erythromycin

    Digoxin

    Cetuximab

    Rifampin

    Question 6 1 / 1 point

    Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning recommending testing for the HLA-B*1502 allele in patients with Asian ancestry prior to starting therapy due to:

    Question options:

    Decreased effectiveness of carbamazepine in treating seizures in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

    Increased risk for drug interactions in Asian patients with the HLA-B*1502 allele

    Increased risk for Stevens-Johnson syndrome in Asian patients with HLA-B*1502 Allele

    Patients who have the HLA-B*1502 allele being more likely to have a resistance to carbamazepine

    Question 7 1 / 1 point

    A genetic variation in how the metabolite of the cancer drug irinotecan SN-38 is inactivated by the body may lead to:

    Question options:

    Decreased effectiveness of irinotecan in the treatment of cancer

    Increased adverse drug reactions, such as neutropenia

    Delayed metabolism of the prodrug irinotecan into the active metabolite SN-38

    Increased concerns for irinotecan being carcinogenic

    Question 8 1 / 1 point

    A good history of herb and supplement use is critical before prescribing because approximately ____ % of patients in the United States are using herbal products
    .

    Question options:

    10

    5

    38

    70

    MN553 Quiz Question 9 1 / 1 point

    A potential harmful effect on patients who take some herbal medication is:

    Question options:

    Constipation

    Lead poisoning

    Diarrhea

    Life-threatening rash

    Question 10 1 / 1 point

    A thorough understanding of herbs is critical to patient safety
    .
     An example is the use of cinnamon to treat type II diabetes
    .
     It is important the patient uses Ceylon cinnamon, as the commercially available cassia cinnamon contains:

    Question options:

    Coumadin, which may lead to bleeding problems

    Coumarin, which can cause liver and kidney damage

    Cinnamic aldehyde, which is toxic to the kidney

    Cinnamate eugenol, which is toxic to the liver

    Question 11 1 / 1 point

    Traditional Chinese medicine utilizes yin (cooling) versus yang (warming) in assessing and treating disease
    .
     Menopause is considered a time of imbalance, therefore the Chinese herbalist would prescribe:

    Question options:

    Herbs which are yang in nature

    Herbs that are yin in nature

    Ginger

    Golden seal

    Question 12 1 / 1 point

    According to traditional Chinese medicine, if a person who has a fever is given a herb that is yang in nature, such as golden seal, the patient’s illness will:

    Question options:

    Get worse

    Get better

    Not be adequately treated

    Need additional herbs to treat the yang

    Question 13 1 / 1 point

    In Ayurvedic medicine, treatment is based on the patient’s dominant dosha, which is referred to as the person’s:

    Question options:

    Vata

    Pitta

    Kapha

    Prakriti

    Question 14 1 / 1 point

    When melatonin is used to induce sleep, the recommendation is that the patient:

    Question options:

    Take 10 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

    Take 1 to 5 mg 30 minutes before bed nightly

    Not take melatonin more than three nights a week

    Combine melatonin with zolpidem (Ambien) for the greatest impact on sleep

    MN553 Quiz Question 15 1 / 1 point

    In the United States, over-the-counter drugs are regulated by:

    Question options:

    No one
    .
     There is no oversight for over-the-counter medications
    .

    The U
    .
    S
    .
     Food and Drug Administration Center for Drug Evaluation and Research

    The U
    .
    S
    .
     Drug Enforcement Administration

    MedWatch

    Question 16 1 / 1 point

    As drugs near the end of their patent, pharmaceutical companies may apply for the drug to change to over-the-counter status in order to:

    Question options:

    Get a new patent for the over-the-counter form of the drug

    Lower the costs because most prescription benefit plans do not cover generics

    Market the drug to a whole new population, as they are able to market to patients instead of just providers

    Continue to make large profits from their blockbuster brand-name drug

    Question 17 1 / 1 point

    The ailment that generates the greatest over-the-counter annual drug sales is:

    Question options:

    Constipation

    Cough and colds

    Heartburn

    Acute and chronic pain

    Question 18 1 / 1 point

    Common over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen:

    Question options:

    Are always safer for the patient than prescription pain medication

    Are harmful if taken in higher than recommended amounts

    Have minimal interaction with prescription medications

    Should never be given to children unless recommended by their provider

    MN553 Quiz Question 19 1 / 1 point

    When obtaining a drug history from Harold, he gives you a complete list of his prescription medications
    .
     He denies taking any other drugs, but you find that he occasionally takes aspirin for his arthritis flare ups
    .
     This is an example of:

    Question options:

    His appropriately only telling you about his regularly prescribed medications

    His hiding information regarding his inappropriate use of aspirin from you

    A common misconception that intermittently taken over-the counter medications are not an important part of his drug history

    A common misuse of over-the-counter aspirin

    Question 20 1 / 1 point

    Michael asks you about why some drugs are over-the-counter and some are prescription
    .
     You explain that in order for a drug to be approved for over-the-counter use the drug must:

    Question options:

    Be safe and labeled for appropriate use

    Have a low potential for abuse or misuse

    Be taken for a condition the patient can reliably self-diagnose

    All of the above MN553 Quiz