Tag: Clinical-Nursing

  • Nursing Cultural knowledge

    Nursing Cultural knowledge

    Nursing, Cultural knowledge: Biological differences in selected groups and populations can have a strong impact on the kind of care a nurse delivers. Select a race or ethnicity for this assignment and conduct independent online research on this group or population. Identify two medical conditions that impact the selected group or population.

    In a 1-2 page Word document:  APA Format

    Explain each medical condition and its impact.

    Be sure to address how that group’s own biological differences contribute to the causes of each condition.

    Discuss how biological differences might influence the level of care being delivered. Nursing Cultural knowledge.

  • Phenomenological inquiry/ethnography Assignment

    Phenomenological inquiry/ethnography Assignment Question description

    Phenomenological inquiry/ethnography Assignment: So, in your opinion which of the following topics is best suited to a phenomenological inquiry? To a ethnography? To a grounded theory study? Importantly, provide a rational for each response.

    a-First, the passage through menarche among Hatian refugee

    b-The process of coping among AIDS patients

    c-Also, the experience of having a child with leukemia

    d-Or rituals relating to dying among nursing home residents

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    e-Lastly, Decision making processes among nurses regarding do-not-resucitate orders

    Phenomenological inquiry/ethnography Assignment requirements

    APA

    Also, 4 sources

    Lastly, peer-reviewed articles

    Phenomenological inquiry/ethnography Assignment

  • SOC 100 Incidents of Inequality

    SOC 100 Week 5 Incidents of Inequality Latest

    Incidents of Inequality Details:

    Search the GCU Library for articles that describe incidents of gender, age, racial, and ethnic discrimination. SOC 100 Incidents of Inequality.

    Choose two incidents of discrimination. Be sure each is of a different type of discrimination (age, gender, race, and/or ethnicity, etc.).

    Complete the “Incidents of Inequality” worksheet and submit it to your instructor.

    Instructions: 
    After researching the GCU library to find articles that describe incidents of gender, age, racial, and ethnic discrimination, please answer the questions for each scenario. Write your response as a full paragraph using a minimum of 200 words for each scenario.

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    Scenario #1: _______________ discrimination.

    1) 
    Summarize the incident.

    2) 
    How might this situation affect the victim?

    3) 
    How might it affect the offending person or institution?

    4) 
    How do situations like this affect society as a whole?

     

    Write your 200 word paragraph for scenario 1 below:

     

    Scenario # 2: __________________ discrimination.

    1) 
    Summarize the incident.

    2) 
    How might this situation affect the victim?

    3) 
    How might it affect the offending person or institution?

    4) 
    How do situations like this affect society as a whole?

     

    Write your 200 word paragraph for scenario 2 below: SOC 100 Incidents of Inequality.

  • Redundant nursing functions discussion

    Redundant nursing functions discussion Question description

    Redundant nursing functions discussion: I work in 24 bed ICU. I am a Nurse. Please relate the discussion question to the setting and the question being asked and also please reply to Jennifer richs post and RIGOBERTOS post. Please provide constructive feedback.

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    Redundant nursing functions discussion

    Discussion question-Are there tasks or functions in your work environment that you believe are redundant, unnecessary, or repetitive or that could be done by a lesser-paid employee? Explain. Redundant nursing functions discussion.

  • Politics, Stress, and Sleep

    Politics, Stress, and Sleep

    In your reading assignments for this module, you read about a classic example of politics and health promotion in the episode of Rick Perry and the HPV vaccine. For your original post, cite another example of politics and a health promotion topic. An example could be smoking cessation and politics (whether on the local, state, or national level). Thoroughly explain how politics and the selected health promotion topic are related. Your post should clearly demonstrate a thorough understanding of the example being provided. 
    Remember to include an APA formatted in-text citation and corresponding reference from a recent (within last 5 years) professional journal or website (NIH, CDC, etc.).

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    Provide your initial post, then engage at least two of your online colleagues in a discussion about his/her initial posts. Therefore, you should have at least one initial post and one response to each of two colleagues. Please note that your postings and responses must be “substantive”, which means that they are to be made AFTER you have read the assigned course material and additional self-chosen material. Please note that your Discussion Board assignments are worth a significant part of your course grade, therefore, you are expected to put thought and effort into these entries.

    Original post is due by Wednesday at 2359, and the two responses to peers are due by Saturday of Module 2 at 2359.

    A
    n APA formatted in-text citation and corresponding reference from a recent (within last 5 years) professional journal or website (NIH, CDC, etc.) are required in your initial discussion post. Blogs, magazines, and newspapers are NOT considered scholarly, professional sources. Politics, Stress, and Sleep.

  • Measle Disease Presentation Assignment

    Measle Disease Presentation Assignment

    Question description

    Measle Disease Presentation  Assignment Overview

    To understand influential factors related to an outbreak, you must assess and expand on concepts related to Health Behavior and Health Communication and Advocacy.

    Measle Disease Presentation  Case Assignment

    PART ONE

    Write a script for a presentation that you have been asked to make at a community coalition meeting. The script must address (but is not limited to) the following:

    Verbalize the problem, needs at the local/state level, and the type of assistance you seek.

    Describe the intrapersonal and interpersonal factors which contribute to an individual contracting measles.

    Identify health behaviors an individual can adopt/minimize to reduce their chance of contracting measles.

    Explain how the main principles of the social marketing theory can be used to change behavior associated with measles.

    Examine the benefits and consequences of informing and influencing policymakers through health-related advocacy. Measle Disease Presentation Assignment.

    Assignment Expectations

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    Length:
     3–4 pages, excluding title page and references.

    PART TWO

    Addressing an audience in an appropriate manner is key to achieving your desired outcome.

    Using the script that you wrote for the previous assignment, produce a narrated slide, video, or photo-voice presentation. The presentation will be disseminated to community organizations that can help your effort to enact change at the local and state levels regarding measles within your specific target population.

    SLP Assignment Expectations

    Length:
     Slide or photo-voice presentations must have at least 15 slides, excluding the cover and reference slides, and at least 5 minutes but no more than 10 minutes’ oral narration.

    Video presentations must include oral narration and must be at least 5 minutes but no more than 10 minutes in length.

    Assessment and Grading:
    Your presentation will be assessed based on the grading rubric that is linked within the course. Measle Disease Presentation Assignment.

  • Physician Reimbursements

    Physician Reimbursements

    Discussion Board: Reimbursements

    There are many reimbursement methods that are utilized to reimburse physicians and facilities for the services and procedures that they provide to patients. A physician and the facility must keep track of the services and procedures that they are providing to the patients to bill out and receive the appropriate reimbursement. The chargemaster or charge description master (CDM) is the billing process that is used in all health care facilities, and it is updated yearly.

    Focus your discussion on the following questions:

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    What are the consequences of not utilizing current codes and charges? Discuss how using last year’s CDM will affect the current year’s bottom line.

    Will this create a positive or negative result for the health care facility? Explain your answer.

    How can facilities ensure that the current CDM is used?

    Discussion Board: Reimbursements

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    Part 2

    Summative Discussion Board

    Review and reflect on the knowledge you have gained from this course. Based on your review and reflection, write at least 3 paragraphs on the following:

    What were the most compelling topics learned in this course?

    How did participating in discussions help your understanding of the subject matter? Is anything still unclear that could be clarified?

    What approaches could have yielded additional valuable information?

    The main post should include at least 1 reference to research sources, and all sources should be cited using APA format. physician Reimbursements.

  • Nursing Literature Review Assignment

    Nursing Literature Review Assignment

    Literature Review Assignment: Save Link Assignment Literature Review View Rubric Due Date: Mar 10, 2018 Max Points: 100 Details:

    While the implementation plan prepares students to apply their research to the problem or issue they have identified for their capstone change proposal project, the literature review enables students to map out and move into the active planning and development stages of the project.

    A literature review analyzes how current research supports the PICOT, as well as identifies what is known and what is not known in the evidence. Students will use the information from the earlier PICOT Statement Paper and Literature Evaluation Table assignments to develop a 750-1,000 word review that includes the following sections: Nursing Literature Review Assignment.

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    1-Title page

    2-Introduction section

    3-A comparison of research questions

    4-A comparison of sample populations

    5-A comparison of the limitations of the study

    6-A conclusion section, incorporating recommendations for further research

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required. This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion. You are required to submit this assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center. Nursing Literature Review Assignment.

    Apply Literature Review Assignment Rubrics

    Literature Review 1 Unsatisfactory 0.00% 2 Less than Satisfactory 75.00% 3 Satisfactory 79.00% 4 Good 89.00% 5 Excellent 100.00% 80.0 % Content 10.0 % Introduction An introduction is not present. An introduction is present, but it does not relate to the body of the paper. An introduction is present, and it relates to the body of the paper. There is nothing in the introduction to entice the reader to continue reading. An introduction is present, and it relates to the body of the paper. Information presented in the introduction provides incentive for the reader to continue reading. An introduction is present, and it relates to the body of the paper. Information presented in the introduction is intriguing and encourages the reader to continue reading. 20.0 % Comparison of Research Questions No comparison of research questions is presented. A comparison of research questions is presented, but it is not valid. A cursory though valid comparison of research questions is presented. A moderately thorough and valid comparison of research questions is presented. A reflective and insightful comparison of research questions is presented. 20.0 % Comparison of Sample Populations No comparison of sample populations is presented. A comparison of sample populations is presented, but it is not valid. A cursory though valid comparison of sample populations is presented Nursing Literature Review Assignment. A moderately thorough and valid comparison of sample populations is presented. A reflective and insightful comparison of sample populations is presented. 20.0 % Comparison of the Limitations of the Study No comparison of the limitations of the study is presented. A comparison of the limitations of the study is presented, but it is not valid. A cursory though valid comparison of the limitations of the study is presented. A moderately thorough and valid comparison of the limitations of the study is presented. A reflective and insightful comparison of the limitations of the study is presented. 10.0 % Conclusion and Recommendations for Further Research No conclusion and recommendations for further research are presented. A conclusion and recommendations for further research are presented, but they are not valid. A conclusion and recommendations for further research are valid, but they are cursory. A conclusion and recommendations for further research are valid and moderately thorough. A conclusion and recommendations for further research are reflective and insightful. 15.0 % Organization and Effectiveness 5.0 % Thesis Development and Purpose Paper lacks any discernible overall purpose or organizing claim. Thesis is insufficiently developed or vague. Purpose is not clear. Thesis is apparent and appropriate to purpose. Thesis is clear and forecasts the development of the paper. Thesis is descriptive and reflective of the arguments and appropriate to the purpose. Thesis is comprehensive and contains the essence of the paper. Thesis statement makes the purpose of the paper clear. 5.0 % Argument Logic and Construction Statement of purpose is not justified by the conclusion. The conclusion does not support the claim made. Argument is incoherent and uses noncredible sources. Sufficient justification of claims is lacking. Argument lacks consistent unity. There are obvious flaws in the logic. Some sources have questionable credibility. Argument is orderly, but may have a few inconsistencies. The argument presents minimal justification of claims. Argument logically, but not thoroughly, supports the purpose. Sources used are credible. Introduction and conclusion bracket the thesis. Argument shows logical progressions. Techniques of argumentation are evident. There is a smooth progression of claims from introduction to conclusion. Most sources are authoritative. Clear and convincing argument that presents a persuasive claim in a distinctive and compelling manner. All sources are authoritative. 5.0 % Mechanics of Writing (includes spelling, punctuation, grammar, language use) Surface errors are pervasive enough that they impede communication of meaning. Inappropriate word choice or sentence construction is used. Frequent and repetitive mechanical errors distract the reader. Inconsistencies in language choice (register), sentence structure, or word choice are present. Some mechanical errors or typos are present, but they are not overly distracting to the reader. Correct sentence structure and audience-appropriate language are used. Prose is largely free of mechanical errors, although a few may be present. A variety of sentence structures and effective figures of speech are used. Writer is clearly in command of standard, written, academic English. 5.0 % Format 2.0 % Paper Format (use of appropriate style for the major and assignment) Template is not used appropriately or documentation format is rarely followed correctly. Template is used, but some elements are missing or mistaken; lack of control with formatting is apparent. Template is used, and formatting is correct, although some minor errors may be present. Template is fully used; There are virtually no errors in formatting style. All format elements are correct. 3.0 % Documentation of Sources (citations, footnotes, references, bibliography, etc., as appropriate to assignment and style) Sources are not documented. Documentation of sources is inconsistent or incorrect, as appropriate to assignment and style, with numerous formatting errors. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, although some formatting errors may be present. Sources are documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is mostly correct. Sources are completely and correctly documented, as appropriate to assignment and style, and format is free of error. 100 % Total Weightage Nursing Literature Review Assignment

  • Nursing exam questions and answers

    Nursing exam questions and answers

    Question 1

    A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?

    A. A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing

    B. A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction

    C. A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen

    D. A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion

    1 points

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    Question 2

    A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that

    A. she will report this to the physician immediately.

    B. it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety.

    C. optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment.

    D. the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed.

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 3

    A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of

    A. diabetic hyperlipidemia.

    B. increased intraocular pressure.

    C. seizure disorders.

    D. low blood pressure.

    1 points

    Question 4

    A 39-year-old patient who is having trouble sleeping is beginning drug treatment with zaleplon (Sonata). The nurse will be sure to ask the patient if she is taking

    A. oxycodone (Percodan).

    B. secobarbital (Seconal).

    C. cimetidine (Zantac).

    D. meperidine (Demerol).

    1 points

    Question 5

    A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with acute cocaine intoxication. Which of the following vital signs would the nurse expect to find initially when assessing the patient?

    A. BP: 130/88, P: 92, R: 28

    B. Blood pressure (BP): 98/50, pulse (P): 120, respirations (R): 40

    C. BP: 170/98, P:110, R: 20

    D. BP: 150/90, P: 80, R: 16

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 6

    A nurse is caring for a patient who abuses marijuana. The treatment for marijuana abuse consists mainly of

    A. no nursing action unless the patient experiences a “bad trip.”

    B. nonpharmacologic interventions combined with an exercise program.

    C. aggressive respiratory assistance

    D. drug therapy with bromocriptine (Parlodel).

    1 points

    Question 7

    A patient is suffering from acute inhalant intoxication. The priority nursing intervention will be to

    A. assess the patient’s psychosocial status.

    B. administer oxygen therapy.

    C. provide an emesis basin.

    D. administer epinephrine.

    1 points

    Question 8

    A 20-year-old man has begun treatment of the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia using olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following symptoms would be categorized as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

    A. Visual hallucinations

    B. Auditory hallucinations

    C. Delusional thinking

    D. Lack of interest in normal activities

    1 points

    Question 9

    A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with phenytoin?

    A. The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose.

    B. The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood.

    C. Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects.

    D. The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration.

    1 points

    Question 10

    The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be

    A. “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”

    B. “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”

    C. “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”

    D. “I’ll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 11

    A patient who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is being treated with intravenous lorazepam (Ativan). This drug achieves a therapeutic effect by

    A. inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidase.

    B. increasing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA.

    C. increasing the amount of serotonin available in the synapses.

    D. affecting the regulation of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain.

    1 points

    Question 12

    A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan

    A. has a shorter half-life than morphine.

    B. has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine.

    C. causes the respiratory rate to decrease.

    D. combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine.

    1 points

    Question 13

    A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that the child has been vomiting, and the nurse notes that the child’s face is flushed and she is diaphoretic. The mother thinks that the child may have swallowed carbachol drops. A diagnosis of cholinergic poisoning is made. Which of the following drugs would be administered?

    A. Nicotine

    B. Cevimeline

    C. Atropine

    D. Acetylcholine

    1 points

    Question 14

    A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in

    A. gastrointestinal distress.

    B. cognitive deficits.

    C. acute renal failure.

    D. liver damage.

    1 points

    Question 15

    A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?

    A. Amphetamines

    B. Opioids

    C. Benzodiazepines

    D. Sedative–hypnotic drugs

    1 points

    Question 16

    A 59-year-old woman has presented to a clinic requesting a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) in order to treat her recurrent anxiety. Her care provider, however, believes that a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would be more appropriate. What advantage do SSRIs have over benzodiazepines in the treatment of anxiety?

    A. SSRIs have a more rapid therapeutic effect.

    B. SSRIs require administration once per week, versus daily or twice daily with benzodiazepines.

    C. SSRIs generally have fewer adverse effects.

    D. SSRIs do not require serial blood tests during therapy.

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 17

    A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for

    A. a history of current or past alcohol use.

    B. a diet high in fat.

    C. current nicotine use.

    D. a diet high in carbohydrates.

    1 points

    Question 18

    Which of the following would be an expected outcome in a patient who has been given atropine during a medical emergency?

    A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm

    B. Resolution of respiratory acidosis

    C. Reduction of severe hypertension

    D. Increased level of consciousness

    1 points

    Question 19

    A trauma patient has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the patient’s

    A. bowel patterns.

    B. urine specific gravity.

    C. skin integrity.

    D. core body temperature.

    1 points

    Question 20

    A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?

    A. Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions

    B. Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis

    C. Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine

    D. Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine

    1 points

    Question 21

    A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?

    A. A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week

    B. A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid

    C. A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep

    D. A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 22

    A 26-year-old professional began using cocaine recreationally several months ago and has begun using the drug on a daily basis over the past few weeks. He has noticed that he now needs to take larger doses of cocaine in order to enjoy the same high that he used to experience when he first used the drug. A nurse should recognize that this pattern exemplifies

    A. drug tolerance.

    B. dependence.

    C. addiction.

    D. withdrawal.

    1 points

    Question 23

    A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient’s concerns?

    A. “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”

    B. “You don’t need to worry. It’s actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”

    C. “It’s important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”

    D. “If you do become addicted, we’ll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”

    1 points

    Question 24

    A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

    A. The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning.

    B. It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms.

    C. The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.

    D. It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed.

    E. One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache.

    1 points

    Question 25

    A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

    A. The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness).

    B. The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol.

    C. The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever.

    D. The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine.

    1 points

    Question 26

    A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that

    A. there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin.

    B. intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application.

    C. lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control.

    D. pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site.

    1 points

    Question 27

    Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?

    A. Lorazepam (Ativan)

    B. Diazepam (Valium)

    C. Alprazolam (Xanax)

    D. Buspirone (BuSpar)

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 28

    A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse’s priority assessments?

    A. Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level

    B. Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness

    C. Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes

    D. Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status

    1 points

    Question 29

    A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to

    A. administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution.

    B. inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute.

    C. inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds.

    D. avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist.

    1 points

    Question 30

    A 30-year-old woman is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 30mg PO tid. The nurse knows that at that dosage, the patient will need to be carefully monitored for

    A. increased secretions.

    B. facial flushing.

    C. dizziness

    Nursing exam questions and answers

  • Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers

    Anatomy Physiology MCQs

    1) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis?

    1. mRNA is produced in nucleus.

    2. Ribosome moves along mRNA

    3. DNA uncoils for transcription.

    4. Polypeptide is produced.

    5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome.

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    6. mRNA moves to ribosome. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4

    B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5

    C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6

    D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4

    E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6

    2) The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is called a ________, the same unit of mRNA is called a ________, which, during protein synthesis, is matched by the ________ of tRNA.

    A) triplet; codon; anticodon

    B) nitrogen base; sugar; phosphate

    C) codon; anticodon; ribosome

    D) gene; triplet; amino acid

    E) triplet; co-triplet; gene

    3) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________.

    A) replication; transcription; translation

    B) interphase; replication; active transport

    C) replication; translation; transcription

    D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis

    E) reproduction; duplication; initiation

    4) What would the complimentary DNA template strand be to produce the mRNA sequence of

    UGU – CAA?

    A) ACA – GTT

    B) UCU – GUU

    C) CGC – ATT

    D) ACA – GUU

    E) TCT – GTT

    5) A gene is a set of specific instructions that

    A) produces amino acids for proteins.

    B) copies DNA strands for mitosis.

    C) controls the process of mitosis.

    D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule.

    E) directs carbohydrate synthesis.

    6) The DNA molecule is like a twisted ladder. What molecules form the “sides” of the DNA ladder?

    A) alternating molecules of sugar and phosphate groups

    B) carbohydrates and lipids

    C) repeating molecules of acids and bases

    D) amino acids and protein

    Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers

    E) nitrogen bases and sugar molecules

    7) What would the complimentary (matching) mRNA and tRNA molecules be from a DNA molecule that has the following triplets?

    coding strand: ATG-CAA

    template strand: TAC-GTT

    A) mRNA: AUG-CAA, tRNA: TAC-GTT

    B) mRNA: ATG-CAA, tRNA: TAC-GTT

    C) mRNA: UAC-GUU, tRNA: AUG-CAA

    D) mRNA: TAC-GTT, tRNA: AUG-CAA

    E) mRNA: AUG-CAA, tRNA: UAC-GUU

    8) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following 
    except

    A) hydrolysis of ATP.

    B) the presence of the membrane channels.

    C) the charge on the ion.

    D) concentration gradient.

    E) lipid solubility.

    9) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through

    A) channels formed by integral proteins.

    B) peripheral proteins.

    C) lipid channels.

    D) peripheral carbohydrates.

    E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane.

    10) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called

    A) merotonic.

    B) hypertonic.

    C) isotonic.

    D) hypotonic.

    E) homotonic.

    11) If a red blood cell (RBC) is placed in a 0.5% salt solution, which of the following would occur?

    1. Water will move out of the RBC.

    2. RBC will hemolyze.

    3. RBC will crenate.

    4. Water will enter the RBC.

    A) 1 and 3 only

    B) 2 and 3 only

    C) 1 and 2 only

    D) 3 and 4 only

    E) 2 and 4 only

    12) Which of the following 
    best
     describes osmosis?

    A) active transport of water across the cell membrane

    B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration

    C) movement of water into a solute

    D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively permeable membrane. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy

    13) Osmotic pressure

    A) forces water to move toward the higher solute concentration.

    B) forces water to move across a semipermeable membrane.

    C) can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure.

    D) increases as solute concentration increases.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    14) Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as red blood cell bursting is to ________.

    A) crenation; hemolysis

    B) lysis; crenation

    C) hypotonic; isotonic

    D) isotonic; hypotonic

    E) isotonic; hypertonic

    15) Identify the mismatched pair.

    A) receptor proteins — bind with enzymes

    B) channel proteins — provide passageway for ions

    C) recognition proteins — identify self

    D) carrier proteins — provide transport

    E) enzymes — speed up chemical reactions

    16) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol and the suspended

    A) microvilli.

    B) nucleolus.

    C) enzymes.

    D) organelles.

    E) cilia.

    17) The process of forming mRNA is called

    A) replication.

    B) transcription.

    C) translation.

    D) ribolation.

    E) auscultation.

    18) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called

    A) replication.

    B) transcription.

    C) translation.

    D) mitosis.

    E) auscultation.

    19) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called

    A) DNA.

    B) mRNA.

    C) rRNA.

    D) tRNA.

    E) RER.

    20) The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the

    A) cytoplasm.

    B) gene.

    C) codon.

    D) anticodon.

    E) polypeptide itself.

    21) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that

    A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.

    B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.

    C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply.

    D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.

    E) some cells are older than others.

    22) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps?

    1. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles.

    2. Exocytosis

    3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles.

    4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face.

    5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.

    A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3

    B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4

    C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2

    D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2

    E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5

    23) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
    except

    A) storage and release of calcium ions.

    B) modification of protein.

    C) synthesis of steroid hormones.

    D) synthesis of triglycerides.

    E) detoxification of drugs.

    24) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is 
    false
    ?

    A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.

    B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis.

    C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.

    D) The mitochondria require carbon dioxide and produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation.

    E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell’s ATP.

    25) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is 
    false
    ?

    A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER.

    B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER.

    C) It produces lysosomes.

    D) It supplies new membrane components.

    E) It produces secretory vesicles.

    26) Peroxisomes

    A) contain enzymes that break down hydrogen peroxide.

    B) absorb and break down fatty acids, generating hydrogen peroxide in the process.

    C) are produced from other peroxisomes.

    D) are more abundant in cells with higher metabolic rates.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    27) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8).

    1. mitochondrion 5. intracellular transport

    2. centriole 6. liquid in cell

    3. endoplasmic reticulum 7. provides cell energy

    4. cytosol 8. aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

    A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5

    B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7

    C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6

    D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8

    E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7

    28) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for

    A) drug and toxin neutralization.

    B) lipid synthesis.

    C) modification of new proteins.

    D) shipping molecules to the Golgi apparatus.

    E) All of the answers are correct. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    29) Microtubules have which of the following functions?

    A) They form structural components of organelles.

    B) They move chromosomes during cell division.

    C) They provide a mechanism for changing the cell shape.

    D) Molecular motors move along them.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    30) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?

    A) ribosomal endoplasmic reticulum

    B) proteosomes reticulum

    C) raised endoplasmic reticulum

    D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

    31) Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the

    A) microtubules.

    B) mitochondria.

    C) rough endoplasmic reticulum.

    D) ribosomes.

    E) Golgi apparatus.

    32) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the

    A) ribosomes.

    B) rough ER.

    C) smooth ER.

    D) Golgi apparatus.

    E) mitochondria.

    33) Microfilaments

    A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins.

    B) control the consistency of cytoplasm.

    C) with myosin, produce cell movement.

    D) consist of the protein called actin.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    34) The organelles and the watery component of the cell together is called

    A) cytosol.

    B) protoplasm.

    C) extracellular fluid.

    D) interstitial fluid.

    E) cytoplasm.

    35) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane.

    A) enables ions to pass

    B) forms enzymes

    C) affects membrane permeability

    D) anchors the phospholipids

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    36) The study of tissues is called

    A) cytology.

    B) toxicology.

    C) micrology.

    D) histology.

    E) mycology.

    37) An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface.

    A) apical

    B) pinnacle

    C) topical

    D) crest

    E) apogeal

    38) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction.

    A) Bindins

    B) Adhesions

    C) Connexins

    D) Attachons

    E) Tieons

    39) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as

    A) perithelium.

    B) myothelium.

    C) intrathelium.

    D) endothelium.

    E) mesothelium.

    40) Gland cells produce

    A) mesenchyme.

    B) antibodies.

    C) secretions.

    D) phagocytes.

    E) fibers.

    41) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure?

    A) salivary glands

    B) sebaceous glands

    C) mucous glands

    D) sweat glands

    E) gastric glands

    42) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.

    A) epicrine

    B) eccrine

    C) holocrine

    D) apocrine

    E) endocrine

    43) The viscous component of connective tissue is called. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) basal layer.

    B) ground substance.

    C) matrix.

    D) lymph.

    E) plasma.

    44) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as

    A) collagen.

    B) cartilage.

    C) chondroitin.

    D) matrix.

    E) scaffold.

    45) The watery fluid component of blood is called

    A) hemosol.

    B) liquid elements.

    C) formed elements.

    D) hemoplasm.

    E) plasma.

    46) In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine.

    A) plasma

    B) mast

    C) mesenchymal

    D) gland

    E) goblet

    47) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and

    A) synovial fluid.

    B) urine.

    C) sweat.

    D) lymph.

    E) serous fluid.

    48) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called

    A) plasma.

    B) lymph.

    C) blood.

    D) humoral fluid.

    E) plasmin fluid.

    49) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and

    A) lymphocytes.

    B) platelets.

    C) phagocytes.

    D) plasma cells.

    E) mast cells.

    50) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies.

    A) T cells

    B) B cells

    C) plasma cells

    D) immunocytes

    E) phagocytes

    51) Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) leukocytes.

    B) lymphocytes.

    C) erythrocytes.

    D) thrombocytes.

    E) immunocytes.

    52) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.

    A) leukocytes

    B) lymphocytes

    C) chondrocytes

    D) erythrocytes

    E) mesenchymal cells

    53) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?

    A) mesenchymal

    B) fibrous

    C) elastic

    D) hyaline

    E) articular

    54) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of matrix around chondrocytes is called ________ growth.

    A) appositional

    B) intrasitional

    C) transitional

    D) transformational

    E) interstitial

    55) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.

    A) appositional

    B) intrasitional

    C) transitional

    D) transformational

    E) interstitial

    56) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.

    A) fasciae

    B) aponeuroses

    C) organ capsules

    D) cutaneous layers

    E) body membranes

    57) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the

    A) lamina densa.

    B) basal lamina.

    C) areolar lamina.

    D) lamina propria.

    E) mucina lamina.

    58) Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity as a result of liver or kidney disease, malnutrition, or heart failure is known as. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) edema.

    B) ischemia.

    C) inflammation.

    D) ascites.

    E) infarction.

    59) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.

    A) muscle cells

    B) neurons

    C) transmitter cells

    D) teleocytes

    E) neuroglia

    60) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.

    A) Nurse cells

    B) Neuroglia

    C) Neurons

    D) Nurturons

    E) Nutrient cells

    61) The body’s first tissue response to any injury is

    A) fever.

    B) inflammation.

    C) bleeding.

    D) shivering.

    E) All the above.

    62) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called

    A) keloids.

    B) scabs.

    C) blisters.

    D) scars.

    E) pus.

    63) Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration.

    A) imprudent

    B) non-sense

    C) impractical

    D) vacuous

    E) insensible

    64) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called

    A) cadmium.

    B) carotene

    C) hemoglobin.

    D) keratin.

    E) melanin.

    65) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum

    A) corneum.

    B) lucidum.

    C) granulosum.

    D) spinosum.

    E) basale.

    66) Myosatellite cells are found in association with ________ muscle.

    A) skeletal

    B) smooth

    C) cardiac

    D) involuntary

    E) both smooth and cardiac

    67) All of the following are true of neurons 
    except
     that

    A) when mature, they lose the ability to divide.

    B) they conduct a nervous impulse.

    C) they are composed of a cell body and axon.

    D) they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.

    E) they are separated from one another by synapses.

    68) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the 
    least
     likely in the region of the injury?

    A) increase in basophils

    B) increase in histamine

    C) increase in blood flow

    D) cold, pale skin

    E) swelling

    69) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance and adipocytes and mast cells fibers. This tissue would most likely have come from the. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) inner wall of a blood vessel.

    B) lungs.

    C) spleen.

    D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle.

    E) bony socket of the eye.

    70) The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the

    A) dermis.

    B) superficial fascia.

    C) deep fascia.

    D) subcutaneous layer.

    E) subserous fascia.

    71) The three categories of connective tissues are

    A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.

    B) epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.

    C) glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.

    D) connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.

    E) areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.

    72) Two classes of macrophages include

    A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes.

    B) mast cells and basophils.

    C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages.

    D) neutrophils and eosinophils.

    E) microphages and adipocytes.

    73) Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are

    A) all connective tissues proper.

    B) elastic and hyaline cartilage.

    C) dense irregular connective tissues.

    D) reticular connective tissues.

    E) dense regular connective tissues.

    74) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways 
    except

    A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones.

    B) supporting epithelia.

    C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.

    D) cushioning and stabilizing.

    E) filling spaces between organs.

    Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers