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Tag: Clinical-Nursing

  • Nursing exam questions and answers

    Nursing exam questions and answers

    Question 1

    A nurse who provides care on an acute medicine unit has frequently recommended the use of nicotine replacement gum for patients who express a willingness to quit smoking during their admission or following their discharge. For which of the following patients would nicotine gum be contraindicated?

    A. A patient whose stage III pressure ulcer required intravenous antibiotics and a vacuum dressing

    B. A patient with a history of angina who experienced a non-ST wave myocardial infarction

    C. A patient who received treatment for kidney failure due to an overdose of acetaminophen

    D. A patient whose pulmonary embolism was treated with a heparin infusion

    1 points

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    Question 2

    A patient who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) for 1 week calls the clinic and reports to the nurse that the drug is not working. The patient informs the nurse that she is still having symptoms of anxiety. The nurse will tell the patient that

    A. she will report this to the physician immediately.

    B. it may take up to 6 months for the drug to relieve her anxiety.

    C. optimum relief of anxiety usually occurs after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment.

    D. the drug is not going to work for her and the medication needs to be changed.

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 3

    A patient has been admitted to the ICU because of multiple traumas due to a motor vehicle accident. The physician has ordered propofol (Diprivan) to be used for maintenance of sedation. Before administration of propofol, a priority assessment by the nurse would be to check for a history of

    A. diabetic hyperlipidemia.

    B. increased intraocular pressure.

    C. seizure disorders.

    D. low blood pressure.

    1 points

    Question 4

    A 39-year-old patient who is having trouble sleeping is beginning drug treatment with zaleplon (Sonata). The nurse will be sure to ask the patient if she is taking

    A. oxycodone (Percodan).

    B. secobarbital (Seconal).

    C. cimetidine (Zantac).

    D. meperidine (Demerol).

    1 points

    Question 5

    A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted with acute cocaine intoxication. Which of the following vital signs would the nurse expect to find initially when assessing the patient?

    A. BP: 130/88, P: 92, R: 28

    B. Blood pressure (BP): 98/50, pulse (P): 120, respirations (R): 40

    C. BP: 170/98, P:110, R: 20

    D. BP: 150/90, P: 80, R: 16

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 6

    A nurse is caring for a patient who abuses marijuana. The treatment for marijuana abuse consists mainly of

    A. no nursing action unless the patient experiences a “bad trip.”

    B. nonpharmacologic interventions combined with an exercise program.

    C. aggressive respiratory assistance

    D. drug therapy with bromocriptine (Parlodel).

    1 points

    Question 7

    A patient is suffering from acute inhalant intoxication. The priority nursing intervention will be to

    A. assess the patient’s psychosocial status.

    B. administer oxygen therapy.

    C. provide an emesis basin.

    D. administer epinephrine.

    1 points

    Question 8

    A 20-year-old man has begun treatment of the psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia using olanzapine (Zyprexa). Which of the following symptoms would be categorized as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

    A. Visual hallucinations

    B. Auditory hallucinations

    C. Delusional thinking

    D. Lack of interest in normal activities

    1 points

    Question 9

    A homeless man who is well known to care providers at the local hospital has been admitted to the emergency department after having a seizure outside a mall. The man is known to be a heavy alcohol user and is malnourished with a very low body mass index. How are this patient’s characteristics likely to influence possible treatment with phenytoin?

    A. The patient’s heavy alcohol use will compete with phenytoin for binding sites and he will require a higher-than-normal dose.

    B. The patient’s protein deficit will likely increase the levels of the free drug in his blood.

    C. Phenytoin is contraindicated within 48 hours of alcohol use due to the possibility of paradoxical effects.

    D. The patient will require oral phenytoin rather than intravenous administration.

    1 points

    Question 10

    The wife of a patient who is taking haloperidol calls the clinic and reports that her husband has taken the first dose of the drug and it is not having a therapeutic effect. An appropriate response by the nurse would be

    A. “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the dosage can be increased.”

    B. “Continue the prescribed dose. It may take several days to work.”

    C. “I’ll ask the nurse practitioner if the haloperidol can be discontinued and another drug started.”

    D. “I’ll report this to the nurse practitioner and see if he will add another drug to enhance the effects of the haloperidol.”

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 11

    A patient who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal is being treated with intravenous lorazepam (Ativan). This drug achieves a therapeutic effect by

    A. inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidase.

    B. increasing the effects of the neurotransmitter GABA.

    C. increasing the amount of serotonin available in the synapses.

    D. affecting the regulation of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain.

    1 points

    Question 12

    A nurse will be prepared to administer naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who has had an overdose of morphine. Repeated doses of Narcan will be necessary because Narcan

    A. has a shorter half-life than morphine.

    B. has less strength in each dose than do individual doses of morphine.

    C. causes the respiratory rate to decrease.

    D. combined with morphine, increases the physiologic action of the morphine.

    1 points

    Question 13

    A 4-year-old child is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The mother reports that the child has been vomiting, and the nurse notes that the child’s face is flushed and she is diaphoretic. The mother thinks that the child may have swallowed carbachol drops. A diagnosis of cholinergic poisoning is made. Which of the following drugs would be administered?

    A. Nicotine

    B. Cevimeline

    C. Atropine

    D. Acetylcholine

    1 points

    Question 14

    A patient with mild low back pain has been advised to take acetaminophen. The nurse will inform him that excessive intake of acetaminophen may result in

    A. gastrointestinal distress.

    B. cognitive deficits.

    C. acute renal failure.

    D. liver damage.

    1 points

    Question 15

    A patient has been hospitalized for treatment of substance abuse after being arrested and jailed for the past 24 hours. The patient is experiencing severe muscle and abdominal cramps, seizures, and acute psychosis due to abrupt withdrawal. Which of the following drug classes is the most likely cause of these severe and potentially fatal withdrawal symptoms?

    A. Amphetamines

    B. Opioids

    C. Benzodiazepines

    D. Sedative–hypnotic drugs

    1 points

    Question 16

    A 59-year-old woman has presented to a clinic requesting a prescription for lorazepam (Ativan) in order to treat her recurrent anxiety. Her care provider, however, believes that a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) would be more appropriate. What advantage do SSRIs have over benzodiazepines in the treatment of anxiety?

    A. SSRIs have a more rapid therapeutic effect.

    B. SSRIs require administration once per week, versus daily or twice daily with benzodiazepines.

    C. SSRIs generally have fewer adverse effects.

    D. SSRIs do not require serial blood tests during therapy.

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 17

    A 64-year-old-patient has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) because of increasing periods of anxiety. The nurse should be careful to assess for

    A. a history of current or past alcohol use.

    B. a diet high in fat.

    C. current nicotine use.

    D. a diet high in carbohydrates.

    1 points

    Question 18

    Which of the following would be an expected outcome in a patient who has been given atropine during a medical emergency?

    A. Restoration of normal sinus rhythm

    B. Resolution of respiratory acidosis

    C. Reduction of severe hypertension

    D. Increased level of consciousness

    1 points

    Question 19

    A trauma patient has been receiving frequent doses of morphine in the 6 days since his accident. This pattern of analgesic administration should prompt the nurse to carefully monitor the patient’s

    A. bowel patterns.

    B. urine specific gravity.

    C. skin integrity.

    D. core body temperature.

    1 points

    Question 20

    A middle-aged patient was diagnosed with major depression after a suicide attempt several months ago and has failed to respond appreciably to treatment with SSRIs. As a result, his psychiatrist has prescribed phenelzine. When planning this patient’s subsequent care, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize?

    A. Risk for Injury related to drug–drug interactions or drug–nutrient interactions

    B. Risk for Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal peristalsis

    C. Risk for Ineffective Peripheral Tissue Perfusion related to cardiovascular effects of phenelzine

    D. Risk for Infection related to immunosuppressive effects of phenelzine

    1 points

    Question 21

    A nurse works in a sleep disorder clinic and is responsible for administering medications to the patients. Which of the following patients would be most likely to receive zaleplon (Sonata)?

    A. A 20-year-old woman who will take the drug about once a week

    B. A 46-year-old man who receives an antidepressant and needs a sleep aid

    C. A 35-year-old man who is having difficulty falling asleep, but once asleep can stay asleep

    D. A 52-year-old woman who needs to fall asleep quickly and stay asleep all night

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 22

    A 26-year-old professional began using cocaine recreationally several months ago and has begun using the drug on a daily basis over the past few weeks. He has noticed that he now needs to take larger doses of cocaine in order to enjoy the same high that he used to experience when he first used the drug. A nurse should recognize that this pattern exemplifies

    A. drug tolerance.

    B. dependence.

    C. addiction.

    D. withdrawal.

    1 points

    Question 23

    A postsurgical patient has been provided with a morphine patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) but has expressed her reluctance to use it for fear of becoming addicted. How can the nurse best respond to this patient’s concerns?

    A. “It is not uncommon to develop a dependence on pain medications, but this usually takes place over a long period and is not the same as addiction.”

    B. “You don’t need to worry. It’s actually not true that you can get addicted to the medications we use in a hospital setting.”

    C. “It’s important that you accept that your current need to control your pain is more important than fears of becoming addicted.”

    D. “If you do become addicted, we’ll make sure to provide you with the support and resources necessary to help you with your recovery.”

    1 points

    Question 24

    A patient has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for short-term treatment of insomnia. Which of the following will the nurse include in a teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply.)

    A. The drug does not cause sleepiness in the morning.

    B. It is available in both quick-onset and continuous-release oral forms.

    C. The drug should not be used for longer than 1 month.

    D. It should be taken 1 hour to 90 minutes before going to bed.

    E. One of the most common adverse effects of the drug is headache.

    1 points

    Question 25

    A patient who is experiencing withdrawal from heavy alcohol use have developed psychosis and been treated with haloperidol. Which of the following assessment findings should prompt the care team to assess the patient for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

    A. The patient develops yellowed sclerae and intense pruritis (itchiness).

    B. The patient demonstrates a significant increase in agitation after being given haloperidol.

    C. The patient develops muscle rigidity and a sudden, high fever.

    D. The patient complains of intense thirst and produces copious amounts of urine.

    1 points

    Question 26

    A nurse is providing care for a patient who suffered extensive burns to his extremities during a recent industrial accident. Topical lidocaine gel has been ordered to be applied to the surfaces of all his burns in order to achieve adequate pain control. When considering this order, the nurse should be aware that

    A. there is a risk of systemic absorption of the lidocaine through the patient’s traumatized skin.

    B. intravenous lidocaine may be preferable to topical application.

    C. lidocaine must be potentiated with another anesthetic in order to achieve pain control.

    D. pain relief is unlikely to be achieved due to the destruction of nerve endings in the burn site.

    1 points

    Question 27

    Which of the following drugs used to treat anxiety would be appropriate for a patient who is a school teacher and is concerned about feeling sedated at work?

    A. Lorazepam (Ativan)

    B. Diazepam (Valium)

    C. Alprazolam (Xanax)

    D. Buspirone (BuSpar)

    1 points

    Nursing exam questions and answers Question 28

    A nurse is caring for a patient who is in severe pain and is receiving an opioid analgesic. Which of the following would be the nurse’s priority assessments?

    A. Liver function studies, pain intensity, and blood glucose level

    B. Pain intensity, respiratory rate, and level of consciousness

    C. Respiratory rate, seizure activity, and electrolytes

    D. Respiratory rate, pain intensity, and mental status

    1 points

    Question 29

    A male patient has been brought to the emergency department during an episode of status epilepticus. Diazepam is to be administered intravenously. The nurse will be sure to

    A. administer after diluting the drug with gabapentin in intravenous solution.

    B. inject very slowly, no faster than 100 mg/minute.

    C. inject the diazepam very quickly, 15 mg in 10 to15 seconds.

    D. avoid the small veins in the dorsum of the hand or the wrist.

    1 points

    Question 30

    A 30-year-old woman is taking phenelzine (Nardil) 30mg PO tid. The nurse knows that at that dosage, the patient will need to be carefully monitored for

    A. increased secretions.

    B. facial flushing.

    C. dizziness

    Nursing exam questions and answers

  • Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers

    Anatomy Physiology MCQs

    1) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis?

    1. mRNA is produced in nucleus.

    2. Ribosome moves along mRNA

    3. DNA uncoils for transcription.

    4. Polypeptide is produced.

    5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome.

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    6. mRNA moves to ribosome. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4

    B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5

    C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6

    D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4

    E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6

    2) The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is called a ________, the same unit of mRNA is called a ________, which, during protein synthesis, is matched by the ________ of tRNA.

    A) triplet; codon; anticodon

    B) nitrogen base; sugar; phosphate

    C) codon; anticodon; ribosome

    D) gene; triplet; amino acid

    E) triplet; co-triplet; gene

    3) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called ________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________.

    A) replication; transcription; translation

    B) interphase; replication; active transport

    C) replication; translation; transcription

    D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis

    E) reproduction; duplication; initiation

    4) What would the complimentary DNA template strand be to produce the mRNA sequence of

    UGU – CAA?

    A) ACA – GTT

    B) UCU – GUU

    C) CGC – ATT

    D) ACA – GUU

    E) TCT – GTT

    5) A gene is a set of specific instructions that

    A) produces amino acids for proteins.

    B) copies DNA strands for mitosis.

    C) controls the process of mitosis.

    D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule.

    E) directs carbohydrate synthesis.

    6) The DNA molecule is like a twisted ladder. What molecules form the “sides” of the DNA ladder?

    A) alternating molecules of sugar and phosphate groups

    B) carbohydrates and lipids

    C) repeating molecules of acids and bases

    D) amino acids and protein

    Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers

    E) nitrogen bases and sugar molecules

    7) What would the complimentary (matching) mRNA and tRNA molecules be from a DNA molecule that has the following triplets?

    coding strand: ATG-CAA

    template strand: TAC-GTT

    A) mRNA: AUG-CAA, tRNA: TAC-GTT

    B) mRNA: ATG-CAA, tRNA: TAC-GTT

    C) mRNA: UAC-GUU, tRNA: AUG-CAA

    D) mRNA: TAC-GTT, tRNA: AUG-CAA

    E) mRNA: AUG-CAA, tRNA: UAC-GUU

    8) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane is influenced by all of the following 
    except

    A) hydrolysis of ATP.

    B) the presence of the membrane channels.

    C) the charge on the ion.

    D) concentration gradient.

    E) lipid solubility.

    9) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through

    A) channels formed by integral proteins.

    B) peripheral proteins.

    C) lipid channels.

    D) peripheral carbohydrates.

    E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane.

    10) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called

    A) merotonic.

    B) hypertonic.

    C) isotonic.

    D) hypotonic.

    E) homotonic.

    11) If a red blood cell (RBC) is placed in a 0.5% salt solution, which of the following would occur?

    1. Water will move out of the RBC.

    2. RBC will hemolyze.

    3. RBC will crenate.

    4. Water will enter the RBC.

    A) 1 and 3 only

    B) 2 and 3 only

    C) 1 and 2 only

    D) 3 and 4 only

    E) 2 and 4 only

    12) Which of the following 
    best
     describes osmosis?

    A) active transport of water across the cell membrane

    B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration

    C) movement of water into a solute

    D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively permeable membrane. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy

    13) Osmotic pressure

    A) forces water to move toward the higher solute concentration.

    B) forces water to move across a semipermeable membrane.

    C) can be opposed by hydrostatic pressure.

    D) increases as solute concentration increases.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    14) Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as red blood cell bursting is to ________.

    A) crenation; hemolysis

    B) lysis; crenation

    C) hypotonic; isotonic

    D) isotonic; hypotonic

    E) isotonic; hypertonic

    15) Identify the mismatched pair.

    A) receptor proteins — bind with enzymes

    B) channel proteins — provide passageway for ions

    C) recognition proteins — identify self

    D) carrier proteins — provide transport

    E) enzymes — speed up chemical reactions

    16) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol and the suspended

    A) microvilli.

    B) nucleolus.

    C) enzymes.

    D) organelles.

    E) cilia.

    17) The process of forming mRNA is called

    A) replication.

    B) transcription.

    C) translation.

    D) ribolation.

    E) auscultation.

    18) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called

    A) replication.

    B) transcription.

    C) translation.

    D) mitosis.

    E) auscultation.

    19) As each codon arrives at the active site of a ribosome, it attracts another molecule containing the anticodon. This molecule is called

    A) DNA.

    B) mRNA.

    C) rRNA.

    D) tRNA.

    E) RER.

    20) The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the

    A) cytoplasm.

    B) gene.

    C) codon.

    D) anticodon.

    E) polypeptide itself.

    21) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that

    A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.

    B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.

    C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply.

    D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.

    E) some cells are older than others.

    22) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps?

    1. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles.

    2. Exocytosis

    3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles.

    4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face.

    5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.

    A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3

    B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4

    C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2

    D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2

    E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5

    23) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum 
    except

    A) storage and release of calcium ions.

    B) modification of protein.

    C) synthesis of steroid hormones.

    D) synthesis of triglycerides.

    E) detoxification of drugs.

    24) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is 
    false
    ?

    A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.

    B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis.

    C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.

    D) The mitochondria require carbon dioxide and produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation.

    E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell’s ATP.

    25) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is 
    false
    ?

    A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER.

    B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER.

    C) It produces lysosomes.

    D) It supplies new membrane components.

    E) It produces secretory vesicles.

    26) Peroxisomes

    A) contain enzymes that break down hydrogen peroxide.

    B) absorb and break down fatty acids, generating hydrogen peroxide in the process.

    C) are produced from other peroxisomes.

    D) are more abundant in cells with higher metabolic rates.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    27) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8).

    1. mitochondrion 5. intracellular transport

    2. centriole 6. liquid in cell

    3. endoplasmic reticulum 7. provides cell energy

    4. cytosol 8. aids the formation of the spindle apparatus

    A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5

    B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7

    C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6

    D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8

    E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7

    28) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for

    A) drug and toxin neutralization.

    B) lipid synthesis.

    C) modification of new proteins.

    D) shipping molecules to the Golgi apparatus.

    E) All of the answers are correct. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    29) Microtubules have which of the following functions?

    A) They form structural components of organelles.

    B) They move chromosomes during cell division.

    C) They provide a mechanism for changing the cell shape.

    D) Molecular motors move along them.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    30) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?

    A) ribosomal endoplasmic reticulum

    B) proteosomes reticulum

    C) raised endoplasmic reticulum

    D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

    E) rough endoplasmic reticulum

    31) Renewal or modification of the cell membrane is a function of the

    A) microtubules.

    B) mitochondria.

    C) rough endoplasmic reticulum.

    D) ribosomes.

    E) Golgi apparatus.

    32) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the

    A) ribosomes.

    B) rough ER.

    C) smooth ER.

    D) Golgi apparatus.

    E) mitochondria.

    33) Microfilaments

    A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins.

    B) control the consistency of cytoplasm.

    C) with myosin, produce cell movement.

    D) consist of the protein called actin.

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    34) The organelles and the watery component of the cell together is called

    A) cytosol.

    B) protoplasm.

    C) extracellular fluid.

    D) interstitial fluid.

    E) cytoplasm.

    35) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane.

    A) enables ions to pass

    B) forms enzymes

    C) affects membrane permeability

    D) anchors the phospholipids

    E) All of the answers are correct.

    36) The study of tissues is called

    A) cytology.

    B) toxicology.

    C) micrology.

    D) histology.

    E) mycology.

    37) An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the basal surface.

    A) apical

    B) pinnacle

    C) topical

    D) crest

    E) apogeal

    38) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction.

    A) Bindins

    B) Adhesions

    C) Connexins

    D) Attachons

    E) Tieons

    39) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as

    A) perithelium.

    B) myothelium.

    C) intrathelium.

    D) endothelium.

    E) mesothelium.

    40) Gland cells produce

    A) mesenchyme.

    B) antibodies.

    C) secretions.

    D) phagocytes.

    E) fibers.

    41) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure?

    A) salivary glands

    B) sebaceous glands

    C) mucous glands

    D) sweat glands

    E) gastric glands

    42) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.

    A) epicrine

    B) eccrine

    C) holocrine

    D) apocrine

    E) endocrine

    43) The viscous component of connective tissue is called. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) basal layer.

    B) ground substance.

    C) matrix.

    D) lymph.

    E) plasma.

    44) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as

    A) collagen.

    B) cartilage.

    C) chondroitin.

    D) matrix.

    E) scaffold.

    45) The watery fluid component of blood is called

    A) hemosol.

    B) liquid elements.

    C) formed elements.

    D) hemoplasm.

    E) plasma.

    46) In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine.

    A) plasma

    B) mast

    C) mesenchymal

    D) gland

    E) goblet

    47) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial fluid, and

    A) synovial fluid.

    B) urine.

    C) sweat.

    D) lymph.

    E) serous fluid.

    48) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called

    A) plasma.

    B) lymph.

    C) blood.

    D) humoral fluid.

    E) plasmin fluid.

    49) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and

    A) lymphocytes.

    B) platelets.

    C) phagocytes.

    D) plasma cells.

    E) mast cells.

    50) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies.

    A) T cells

    B) B cells

    C) plasma cells

    D) immunocytes

    E) phagocytes

    51) Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) leukocytes.

    B) lymphocytes.

    C) erythrocytes.

    D) thrombocytes.

    E) immunocytes.

    52) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.

    A) leukocytes

    B) lymphocytes

    C) chondrocytes

    D) erythrocytes

    E) mesenchymal cells

    53) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?

    A) mesenchymal

    B) fibrous

    C) elastic

    D) hyaline

    E) articular

    54) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of matrix around chondrocytes is called ________ growth.

    A) appositional

    B) intrasitional

    C) transitional

    D) transformational

    E) interstitial

    55) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.

    A) appositional

    B) intrasitional

    C) transitional

    D) transformational

    E) interstitial

    56) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.

    A) fasciae

    B) aponeuroses

    C) organ capsules

    D) cutaneous layers

    E) body membranes

    57) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the

    A) lamina densa.

    B) basal lamina.

    C) areolar lamina.

    D) lamina propria.

    E) mucina lamina.

    58) Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity as a result of liver or kidney disease, malnutrition, or heart failure is known as. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) edema.

    B) ischemia.

    C) inflammation.

    D) ascites.

    E) infarction.

    59) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.

    A) muscle cells

    B) neurons

    C) transmitter cells

    D) teleocytes

    E) neuroglia

    60) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.

    A) Nurse cells

    B) Neuroglia

    C) Neurons

    D) Nurturons

    E) Nutrient cells

    61) The body’s first tissue response to any injury is

    A) fever.

    B) inflammation.

    C) bleeding.

    D) shivering.

    E) All the above.

    62) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are called

    A) keloids.

    B) scabs.

    C) blisters.

    D) scars.

    E) pus.

    63) Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration.

    A) imprudent

    B) non-sense

    C) impractical

    D) vacuous

    E) insensible

    64) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called

    A) cadmium.

    B) carotene

    C) hemoglobin.

    D) keratin.

    E) melanin.

    65) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum

    A) corneum.

    B) lucidum.

    C) granulosum.

    D) spinosum.

    E) basale.

    66) Myosatellite cells are found in association with ________ muscle.

    A) skeletal

    B) smooth

    C) cardiac

    D) involuntary

    E) both smooth and cardiac

    67) All of the following are true of neurons 
    except
     that

    A) when mature, they lose the ability to divide.

    B) they conduct a nervous impulse.

    C) they are composed of a cell body and axon.

    D) they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.

    E) they are separated from one another by synapses.

    68) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the 
    least
     likely in the region of the injury?

    A) increase in basophils

    B) increase in histamine

    C) increase in blood flow

    D) cold, pale skin

    E) swelling

    69) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large volume of fluid ground substance and adipocytes and mast cells fibers. This tissue would most likely have come from the. Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers.

    A) inner wall of a blood vessel.

    B) lungs.

    C) spleen.

    D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle.

    E) bony socket of the eye.

    70) The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the

    A) dermis.

    B) superficial fascia.

    C) deep fascia.

    D) subcutaneous layer.

    E) subserous fascia.

    71) The three categories of connective tissues are

    A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.

    B) epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.

    C) glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.

    D) connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.

    E) areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.

    72) Two classes of macrophages include

    A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes.

    B) mast cells and basophils.

    C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages.

    D) neutrophils and eosinophils.

    E) microphages and adipocytes.

    73) Tissues that provide strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many directions are

    A) all connective tissues proper.

    B) elastic and hyaline cartilage.

    C) dense irregular connective tissues.

    D) reticular connective tissues.

    E) dense regular connective tissues.

    74) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways 
    except

    A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones.

    B) supporting epithelia.

    C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.

    D) cushioning and stabilizing.

    E) filling spaces between organs.

    Anatomy Physiology Questions and answers

  • Effective communication essay assignment

    Effective communication essay assignment Homework # 5

    Read Chapter 6 & 7

    1. Discuss the importance of effective communication in the personal relationship, the therapeutic relationship, and the relationship within the interprofessional health-care team.

    2. What similarities and differences can you identify among the above interactions?

    3. Explain the concept of congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication.

    4. There are many pitfalls to electronic communication. Identify a situation in which an electronic form of communication may result in a miscommunication. What other method of communication would have been more effective?

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    5. How have you seen ISBAR used during your clinical experiences? effective communication essay assignment.

    6- Develop a hand-off report for yourself. Include items that you believe are pertinent for safe and effective nursing care. Refer to the information in the chapter for creating this report form. Using the information from the chapter, determine the effectiveness of the system currently in use on your unit for communicating shift-to-shift reports.

    7-Dr. Roberts comes into the nurses’ station demanding, “Where are Mr. Adams’s lab reports? I ordered these stat, and they’re not here! Who’s responsible for this patient?” How would you, as the nurse, respond?

    8-Explain the concept of accountability in delegation. What are the legal ramifications of accountability in delegation?

    9. Dennie and Elias arrive in the unit for the 7:00 p.m. to 7:00 a.m. shift. Both nurses completed orientation 4 weeks ago. They find that they will be the only two RNs on the floor that night. There is a census of 48 clients. The remaining staff consists of two NAPs/UAPs and one LPN. What are the responsibilities of the RN, NAP/UAP, and LPN? Can Dennie and Elias effectively delegate client care tasks and care safely for all 48 clients? Use the Delegation Tree to make your decisions.

    10. Discuss the differences between direct delegation and indirect delegation. effective communication essay assignment.

    1. You have to observe delegation procedures in your assigned unit:

    A-What considerations does the RN take into account when delegating patient care?

    2-You have to look at the unit census and prioritize the patient care:

    A- Give the rationale foryour choices.

    3.Answer the following questions during your clinical experiences:

    a. What specific tasks did your patients require that you might have been able to delegate?

    b. How effective was your nurse/preceptor in delegating tasks to others?

    c. How did your nurse/preceptor ensure that the tasks were completed safely and appropriately? effective communication essay assignment

  • SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper

    SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper

    SLMC Budget Development – The objectives of the SLMC Budget Development assignment entail the (a) identification and articulation of fundamental concepts of budget-development stratagems involving the cardiac unit at Saint Louis Medical Center (SLMC) that encompasses appraising variance analyses as they extend to the nursing budgets within healthcare organizations (CO 2); (b) formulation of a revenue-and-expense budget regarding a nursing unit inside a healthcare organization (CO 1); and (c) communicating the resultant information in a succinct, concise and scholarly manner.

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    SLMC Budget Development Requirements:

    This paper will … graded on quality of information, use of citations, use of standard English grammar, sentence structure, and organization, based on the required components.

    Create this assignment using Microsoft Word, which is the required format for all Chamberlain documents. You can tell that the document is saved as an MS Word document because it will end in 
    .docx
    . SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper.

    Submit the paper to the appropriate CCN Dropbox by 11:59 p.m. MT on Sunday of the week due. Any questions about this paper may be discussed in the weekly Q & A Discussion topic.

    The length of the paper is to be 
    no greater than three pages, excluding title page and reference page
    . Extra pages 
    will not
     … read by the instructor and 
    will not
     count toward your grade.

    APA format (6
    th
     edition) is … in this assignment, including a title page and a reference page. Use APA level 1 headings for the organizational structure of this assignment. Remember that the introduction does not carry a heading that labels it as a level heading in APA format. The first part of your paper is ….. the introduction. See the APA manual for details. SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper. See the resource in Doc Sharing called Guidelines for Writing Professional Papers. Use the suggested format and headings to organize your assignment:

    Include an introduction (do not label it as a heading in APA format)

    Identify steps to develop a budget

    Analysis of sample budget development

    Strategies to improve budget development

    Supporting evidence

    Conclusion

     Preparing the SLMC Budget Development Paper:

    As the nurse executive of a healthcare organization, you were provided a sample budget for the cardiac unit at SLMC. You must analyze the proposed budget and make recommendations to improve the development of the budget. Evidence will … used to support your strategies.

    Clearly introduce your budget-development assignment in the introduction paragraph, including a sentence that states the purpose of your paper. SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper.

    Clearly articulate the steps you would take, as the nurse executive, to develop a budget for your cardiac unit at SLMC.

    … analyze the proposed sample budget developed for the cardiac unit at SLMC.

    Clearly articulate your strategies to improve the budget development for the cardiac unit at SLMC.

    Include of a minimum of three sources of scholarly, empirical evidence that support your budget strategies.

    Provide conclusion statements for your overall assignment content.

    The paper will be a length of 
    three pages maximum
    , excluding title and reference page(s).

    Title and reference page(s) must be in APA format (6
    th
     edition).

    Use 12-point Times New Roman font and one-inch margins on all sides of the SLMC Budget Development paper. SLMC Budget Development Essay Paper.

  • World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda

    World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda

    To Prepare:

    Review the World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda and select one global health issue to focus on for this Assignment.

    Select at least one additional country to compare to the U.S. for this Assignment.

    Reflect on how the global health issue you selected is approached in the U.S. and in the additional country you selected. World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda.

    Review and download the Global Health Comparison Matrix provided in the Resources.

    The Assignment: (1- to 2-page Global Health Comparison Matrix; 1-page Plan for Social Change)

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    Part 1: Global Health Comparison Matrix

    Focusing on the country you selected and the U.S., complete the Global Health Comparison Matrix. Be sure to address the following:

    Consider the U.S. national/federal health policies that have been adapted for the global health issue you selected from the WHO global health agenda. Compare these policies to the additional country you selected for study.

    Explain the strengths and weaknesses of each policy.

    Explain how the social determinants of health may impact the global health issue you selected. Be specific and provide examples.

    Using the WHO’s Organization’s global health agenda as well as the results of your own research, analyze how each country’s government addresses cost, quality, and access to the global health issue selected. World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda.

    Explain how the health policy you selected might impact the health of the global population. Be specific and provide examples.

    Explain how the health policy you selected might impact the role of the nurse in each country.

    Explain how global health issues impact local healthcare organizations and policies in both countries. Be specific and provide examples.

    Part 2: A Plan for Social Change

    Reflect on the global health policy comparison and analysis you conducted in Part 1 of the Assignment and the impact that global health issues may have on the world, the U.S., your community, as well as your practice as a nurse leader. World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda.

    In a 1-page response, create a plan for social change that incorporates a global perspective or lens into your local practice and role as a nurse leader.

    Explain how you would advocate for the incorporation of a global perspective or lens into your local practice and role as a nurse leader.

    Explain how the incorporation of a global perspective or lens might impact your local practice and role as a nurse leader.

    Explain how the incorporation of a global perspective or lens into your local practice as a nurse leader represents and contributes to social change. Be specific and provide examples. World Health Organization’s (WHO) global health agenda

  • Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

    Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

    1.   A 38-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital due to a lesion in her right breast, and a painful lump and nipple discharge from the left breast. The physician places a percutaneous needle localization device in the right breast under ultrasound guidance, excises the right breast lesion, and then excises the lactiferous duct fistula in the left breast. What CPT codes should be assigned?

    A.
     19129-RT, 19284-RT, 19122-LT   
    B.
     19125-RT, 19285-RT, 19112-LT   
    C.
    19127-RT, 19283-RT, 19132-LT   
    D.
     19122-RT, 19275-RT, 19142-LT

    2.   A 92-year-old female patient experiences difficulty hearing in her left ear. She is prescribed a BICROS hearing aid that she can wear behind the ear. What HCPCS code is assigned?

    A.
     V5250   
    B.
     V5320   
    C.
     V5220   
    D.
     V5240

     

    3.   A 57-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for a hip arthroscopy procedure. The patient is a normal healthy patient with no systemic disease. What CPT code should be assigned?

    A.
     01612-P1   
    B.
     01402-P1   
    C.
     01202-P1   
    D.
     01312-P1

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    4.   An 80-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with congestive heart failure. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?

    A.
     K15.0   
    B.
     L50.5   
    C.
     K52.9   
    D.
     I50.9

     

    5.   A 44-year-old female patient comes to the hospital for removal of a 4 cm malignant lesion from the arm. During the course of the procedure, the patient undergoes a 14 sq. cm adjacent tissue transfer from the right leg, as well as a 20 sq. cm split-thickness skin graft from the left arm. What CPT codes are assigned?

    A.
     14021, 15100-51   
    B.
     14045, 15400   
    C.
     14032, 15207   
    D.
     14044, 15350

     

    6.   A patient has a breast localization device placed through the skin using stereotactic guidance in order to treat two lesions. What codes would be assigned?

    A.
     19285, 19286   
    B.
     19287, 19288   
    C.
     19283, 19284   
    D.
     19296, 19297

     

    7.   A 19-year-old patient is diagnosed with acne vulgaris. The physician performs laser dermabrasion of the facial skin. What codes are assigned?

    A.
     L50.5, 0HB1XZZ   
    B.
     L70.0, 0HD1XZZ   
    C.
     L70.5, 0HA1XZZ   
    D.
     L70.6, 0HQ1XZZ

     

    8.   Implantation of a patient-activated cardiac event recorder is assigned to code

    A.
     33286.   
    B.
     33282.   
    C.
     33285.   
    D.
     33284.

     

    9.   A 27-year-old patient is diagnosed with a chalazion on the upper left eyelid, which is excised using an external approach. What ICD-10 diagnosis and procedure codes are assigned?

    A.
     H04.16, 08BQXZZ   
    B.
     H02.14, 08BTXZZ   
    C.
     H00.14, 08BPXZZ   
    D.
     H07.19, 08BRXZZ

     

    10.   A 77-year-old patient is diagnosed with an ear infection. She receives an injection of 40 mg of gentamicin sulfate. What HCPCS code should be assigned? Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

    A.
     J1452   
    B.
     J1472   
    C.
     J1675   
    D.
     J1580

     

    11.   A patient undergoes a transcanal labyrinthectomy. What code would be assigned?

    A.
     69930   
    B.
     69915   
    C.
     69955   
    D.
     69905

     

    12.   A 92-year-old patient is diagnosed with senile cataracts and bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. The physician performs a bilateral cataract extraction. What ICD-10 codes are reported?

    A.
     H27.9, H90.3, 08KJ3ZZ, 08MK3ZZ   
    B.
     H26.9, H90.3, 08EJ3ZZ, 08LK3ZZ   
    C.
    H25.9, H90.3, 08DJ3ZZ, 08DK3ZZ   
    D.
     H21.9, H90.3, 08PJ3ZZ, 08NK3ZZ

     

    13.   Mr. Oliver is an elderly gentleman who has been having problems with his vision for the previous three weeks. He is diagnosed with keratoconus, as well as hypertension with stage III chronic kidney disease, and diabetes mellitus, for which he takes long-term insulin. The anesthesiologist provided general anesthesia for this patient with severe systemic disease. After the administration of anesthesia, the surgeon performs an endothelial keratoplasty. Prior to performing the endothelial keratoplasty, the surgeon performs backbench preparation of the allograft. Code this scenario (including the anesthesiology service).

    A.
     65756, 65757, 00144-P3; H18.609, E11.65, R46.89, Z79.4   
    B.
     65754, 65727, 00134-P1; H18.609, E11.40, I12.9, N18.4, Z79.899   
    C.
     65756, 65757, 00144-P3; H18.609, E11.9, I12.9, N18.3, Z79.4   
    D.
     65757, 65787, 00142-P2; H18.229, E11.51, I12.0, N18.9

     

    14.   A 47-year-old female patient is seen for a worrisome lesion on the back of her hand. What ICD-10-CM code should be assigned? Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

    A.
     L94.9   
    B.
     L98.9   
    C.
     L91.5   
    D.
     L97.4

     

    15.   Breast reconstruction with transverse rectus with a TRAM flap would be assigned to code

    A.
     19370.   
    B.
     19342.   
    C.
     19369.   
    D.
     19316.

     

    16.   Ms. Nelson comes to the emergency room due to sustaining multiple lacerations after being pushed into a glass door during a physical altercation with her husband at a hotel. She sustained a 5 cm laceration on her right hand and a 7 cm cut on her neck. She also has a 5.0 benign lesion removed from her left arm. The physician performs a simple repair on the lacerations on her hand and neck. Code this scenario.

    A.
     11443, 12008-59; S61.209A, S31.652A, Y04.0XXA, W45.8XXA, V97.29XA   
    B.
    11422, 12007-59; S51.809A, S61.351A, W86.8XXA, Y04.0XXA   
    C.
     11409, 12005-59; S58.119A, S11.22XA, X19.XXXA, V95.13XA   
    D.
     11406, 12004-59; S61.401A, S11.90XA, Y04.0XXA, W45.8XXA, Y92.29

     

    17.   Biopsy of the lacrimal gland is assigned to code

    A.
     68520.   
    B.
     68811.   
    C.
     68815.   
    D.
     68510.

     

    18.   A patient comes to the emergency room complaining of lightheadedness and difficulty hearing. The physician examines her and determines that she has Ménière’s disease. The physician performs an endolymphatic sac decompression (excision of the right inner ear using an open approach). What ICD-10 diagnosis and procedure codes are assigned?

    A.
     H81.03, 09BF0ZZ   
    B.
     H83.03, 09BK0ZZ   
    C.
     H81.03, 09BD0ZZ   
    D.
     H82.03, 09BG0ZZ

     

    19.   A physician performs a biopsy of the cornea. What code should be assigned?

    A.
     65420   
    B.
     65410   
    C.
     65419   
    D.
     65415

     

    20.   Injection of contrast medium for dacryocystography is assigned to code

    A.
     68853.   
    B.
     68854.   
    C.
     68850.   
    D.
     68851.

    Advanced Coding: Integumentary/Cardiovascular/Sensory

  • HLT 490 Dissemination of Evidence

    HLT 490 Dissemination of Evidence

    In HLT 490 Topic 4, we will write on Dissemination of Evidence using the previous research-based assignments for the entire course. This paper will be referred to as Evidenced-Based Proposal paper and all you have to do is ORDER NOW!!

    Dissemination of Evidence 
    Details:

    The final capstone project is a culmination of the written research-based assignments completed throughout the course. Each written assignment contributes to the final Evidenced-Based Proposal paper. This is the fourth written assignment.

    Write a HLT 490 Dissemination of Evidence paper of 500-750 words in which you:

    Disseminate evidence: Summarize plans for disseminating evidence.

    Include which professional organizations, conferences, journals, or employers you would present your findings to.

    Include one professional publication or conference in your dissemination plan and explain why you chose this professional venue over another.

    Prepare this Dissemination of Evidence assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are required to submit this Dissemination of Evidence assignment to Turnitin. Please refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

    Dissemination of Evidence

    HLT 490 Topic 4 DQ 1

    Why is it important to disseminate evidence in nursing practice? What does it accomplish for the profession? HLT 490 Dissemination of Evidence.

    HLT 490 Topic 4 DQ 2

    Give an example of dissemination of evidence to influence health policy. Provide the Web address and analyze the evidence presented.

    HLT 490 Topic 5 DQ 1

    How has the capstone project integrated aspects from all of your program course work?

    HLT 490 Topic 5 DQ 2

    Why is it important to identify commonalities across several studies with regard to study findings and the types of patients to which study findings can be applied? HLT 490 Dissemination of Evidence.

  • NURS 6521 Final Exam

    NURS 6521 Final Exam

    Question 1 A patient asks the nurse practitioner about food sources such as soybeans and soy products. The nurse practitioner understands that these foods are considered

    A) phytoestrogens.

    B) monotherapy.

    C) taboo.

    D) inappropriate

    Question 2 A 12-year-old boy is being discharged from the hospital after major surgery. The boy will be taking two medications at home for an extended period. The nurse who is discharging the patient should provide medication teaching specifically to

    A) the mother regarding why the boy needs to take the medications.

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    B) both the boy and his mother regarding all medication issued.

    C) the boy by telling him not to worry about the medications and to take them as directed

    D) The mother and be sure to reinforce the need to force the medications, if her sondoes not want to take them

    Question 3 A 15-year-old boy who has been taking dextroamphetamine for the treatment of ADHD has been experiencing a depressed mood and a sense of hopelessness. He confides in the school nurse that he has begun taking his stepfather’s antidepressant to improve his mood. After immediately phoning the boy’s stepfather, the nurse learns that the drug in question is phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). The nurse should recognize that this combination of drugs creates a serious risk of what health problem?

    A) Cardiac dysrhythmia

    B) Hypertensive crisis

    C) Nephrotoxicity

    D) Hypokalemia

    Question 4 A child is admitted to the burn unit with second and third degree burns on both arms and part of his or her face. When administering topical medications to the burned areas, the nurse should

    A) cool the medication prior to administration.

    B) use sterile technique when applying the medication.

    C) allow the child to apply the medication if possible.

    D) use clean technique only when applying the medication.

    Question 5 A patient is being seen in the emergency department for a sprained ankle and is given a drug to relieve pain. When a second dose of the pain medication is given, the patient develops redness of the skin, itching, and swelling at the site of injection of the drug. The most likely cause of this response is

    A) a hepatotoxic response.

    B) an idiosyncratic response.

    C) a paradoxical response.

    D) an allergic response.

    Question 6 A 5-year-old boy needs an IM injection. The least painful and most effective injection site would be the

    A) deltoid muscle.

    B) rectus femoris muscle.

    C) ventrogluteal muscle.

    D) dorsogluteal muscle.

    Question 7 A patient reports to a clinic with complaints of breast tenderness, a right lumpy breast, and no breast discharge. The breast tenderness occurs primarily during her menstrual cycle. The nurse practitioner probably suspects NURS 6521 Final Exam

    A) breast cancer

    B) PMS

    C) pain in the heart

    D) cancerous breast tenderness

    Question 8 A 29-year-old woman who is morbidly obese has recently begun a comprehensive, medically-supervised program of weight reduction. Prior to adding dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) to her regimen, the patient should be questioned about her intake of

    A) alcohol.

    B) trans fat.

    C) caffeine.

    D) grapefruit juice.

    Question 9 A nurse is caring for a 10-year-old boy who complains of chronic headaches. His mother reports that she gives him Tylenol at least three times a day. Which of the following will the nurse work with the physician to evaluate?

    A) Renal function

    B) Hepatic function

    C) Respiratory function

    D) Cardiac function

    Question 10 A 21-year-old female has a history of irregular menses. She recently became sexually active, and would like to begin taking oral contraceptives (OCs). The nurse practitioner recognizes that most likely this patient would benefit from taking which category of OCs.

    A) Monophasic

    B) Triphasic OC

    C) Ortho Tri-Cyclen

    D) Biphasic OC

    Question 11 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric medicine unit has conducted a medication reconciliation of a recently-admitted patient. In light of the fact that the child takes methylphenidate (Ritalin), the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?

    A) Anxiety

    B) Respiratory depression

    C) Obesity

    D) ADHD

    Question 12 A nurse working in a cancer center is preparing to administer medication to a 5-year-old child. The nurse will calculate the drug dosage by using

    NURS 6521 Final Exam

    A) body surface area.

    B) weight.

    C) age in months.

    D) age in years.

    Question 13 A 13-year-old female took a weight loss drug that activated the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse expect?

    A) Decreased myocardial contraction

    B) Decreased heart rate

    C) Increased cardiac conduction

    D) Increased intranodal conduction time

    Question 14 A 6-month-old child has developed skin irritation due to an allergic reaction. He has been prescribed a topical skin ointment. The nurse will consider which of the following before administering the drug?

    A) That the infant’s skin has greater permeability than that of an adult

    B) That there is less body surface area to be concerned about

    C) That there is decreased absorption rates of topical drugs in infants

    D) That there is a lower concentration of water in an infant’s body compared with an adult

    Question 15 A nurse is providing patient education to a 13-year-old girl who was just diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the patient will alert the nurse that special instructions regarding insulin are necessary?

    A) “I walk two blocks to school every day.”

    B) “I am on the middle school track team.”

    C) “We live in a two-story house.”

    D) “My mother is going to give me my insulin.”

    Question 16 A nurse who provides care on a pediatric unit of a hospital is aware that the potential for harm as a result of drug errors is higher among infants and children than adults. This fact is primarily due to

    A) the inability of infants and children and describe symptoms of adverse drug reactions.

    B) increased body surface area relative to body volume in infants and children.

    C) increased heart rate and subsequently rapid drug distribution among infants and children.

    D) immature liver and kidney function in infants and children.

    Question 17 A nurse practitioner orders 150 mg of oral fluconazole for a patient with vulvovaginal candidiasis. The patient should expect to take medication

    A) for 20 days.

    B) once a day.

    C) every day until the infection is gone.

    D) for 30 days.

    Question 18 To which of the following patients would a medication nurse most likely administer caffeine as part of the treatment plan?

    A) A preterm neonate who has apnea

    B) A 34-year-old woman with a diagnosis of gastric ulcerations

    C) A school-age child with severe ADHD

    D) A 52-year-old man with narcolepsy

    NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 19 A nurse works at a weight management clinic. To which of the following overweight patients could the nurse safely administer dextroamphetamine?

    A) A 38-year-old Caucasian woman with glaucoma

    B) A 60-year-old African-American man who experiences angina

    C) A 48-year-old Caucasian man who has adult-onset diabetes

    D) A 28-year-old African-American woman with hyperthyroidism

    Question 20 A 3-year-old boy has developed otitis media and requires antibiotics. In order to increase the chance that the boy will take his prescribed medication, the nurse should

    A) teach the boy about the fact that he will feel much better after he takes his medications.

    B) have the mother hold the child firmly and sooth him while the drugs are administered.

    C) offer a choice between liquid and chewable medications, if possible.

    D) insert a central intravenous line.

    Question 21 The recommended treatment for trichomoniasis is

    A) Flagyl.

    B) Diflucan.

    C) Meclizine.

    D) Amoxicillan

    Question 22 A school nurse has been teaching high school students about the risks associated with marijuana use. However, the nurse has been met with considerable skepticism on the part of students, most of whom believe that marijuana is a benign drug. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse provide?

    A) “Most people don’t know that marijuana can be just as addictive as heroin or cocaine over time.”

    B) “Marijuana can easily interact with other drugs and cause potentially fatal reactions.”

    C) “Every year, thousands of Americans end up in emergency departments with marijuana overdoses.”

    D) “Smoking marijuana is just as bad, or worse, for your lungs as smoking cigarettes.”

    Question 23 A nurse is going to administer medication to an infant using a medicine dropper. The best method is to open the child’s mouth by gently squeezing the cheeks and placing the drops

    A) at the back of the mouth.

    B) in the buccal pouch.

    C) under the tongue.

    D) on top of the tongue.

    Question 24 A nurse is obtaining baseline physical data from a 7-year-old patient who is to be started on dextroamphetamine for ADHD. After obtaining vital signs, height, and weight, the nurse will prepare the patient for an

    A) electrocardiogram (ECG).

    B) electromyelogram (EMG).

    C) electroencephalogram (EEG).

    D) electrophysiologic study (EPS).

    Question 25 A 10-year-old boy is taking dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine) daily for ADHD. At each clinic visit, the nurse’s priority assessment would be

    A) height and weight.

    B) Vision.

    C) body temperature.

    D) blood pressure.

    NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 26 A 7-year-old child has been taking tetracycline for a bacterial infection. The nurse will be sure to inform the parents that this drug could cause

    A) orange-tinged urine.

    B) staining of permanent teeth.

    C) sleep deprivation.

    D) deep muscle pain.

    Question 27 A nurse is administering drugs to a 10-year-old child who has multiple health problems.The child is underweight and is on a special diet.Which of the following will the nurse consider when planning for the best absorption of the prescribed drugs? (Select all that apply.)

    A) Age

    B) Weight

    C) Disease process

    D) Diet

    E) Route of administration

    ACDE

    Question 28 The clinical nurse educator who oversees the emergency department in a children’s hospital has launched an awareness program aimed at reducing drug errors. What measure addresses the most common cause of incorrect doses in the care of infants and children?

    A) Having nurses check their math calculations with a colleague before administering a drug.

    B) Ensuring that a full assessment takes place no more than 30 minutes before giving a drug.

    C) Recording drug administration in both the nurse’s notes and the medication administration record (MAR)

    D) Avoiding intravenous administration of drugs whenever possible.

    Question 29 A 15-year-old boy has been diagnosed with bone cancer after several months of fatigue and pain. What question should the nurse include in an assessment when trying to minimize the potential for adverse drug reactions?

    A) “Do you ever use alcohol or drugs?”

    B) “How much do you weigh?”

    C) “On a scale of zero to ten, what level of pain is acceptable to you?”

    D) “Did Tylenol or other over-the-counter pain remedies ever relieve your pain?”

    Question 30 A 35-year-old woman is on a weight-loss program and is to begin taking sibutramine (Meridia). After baseline physical data are obtained, the nurse will assess the patient’s childbearing potential. The nurse will inform the patient that during sibutramine therapy she should

    A) abstain from sex.

    B) obtain a pap smear .

    C) use adequate contraception.

    D) take a pregnancy test every month.

    Question 31 A 16-year-old boy is prescribed cromolyn sodium nasal spray to treat a nasal allergy. To maximize the therapeutic effects of the drug, which of the following will the nurse include in instructions to the patient?

    A) Take the drug on a full stomach

    B) Avoid high noise levels

    C) Take the drug for one full week before coming in contact with allergens

    D) Drink plenty of fluids.

    Question 32 A 19-year-old patient reports to a clinic with vaginal discharge with a foul odor. A microscopic exam reveals trichomonas vaginalis.The nurse practitioner is aware that

    A) trichomoniasis is an incurable disease.

    B) trichomoniasis discharge is typically thin and clear.

    C) asymptomatic women are diagnosed with trichomoniasis by a routine pap smear.

    D) it is unusual to have an odor with trichomoniasis

    Question 33 A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a minor ailment and is to be administered medications at home for 2 weeks. The child lives with his mother, grandmother, and four other children between the ages of 14 months and 7 years. The home health nurse is asked to assess the home environment to determine if it is appropriate for the child to take his medication at home. Which of the following will have the greatest impact on the nurse’s assessment?

    A) The mother and grandmother’s understanding about the drugs

    B) How clean the house is

    C) The health status of the other children

    D) Where the medications will be stored

    NURS 6521 Final Exam Question 34 A nurse is having difficulty administering a bitter drug to a 5-year-old child. The nurse should

    A) have the parent gently force the child’s mouth open.

    B) give the drug in a pill form.

    C) involve the child in a play therapy session, and then tell the child that the medicine is candy.

    D) offer the child a flavored ice chip or ice pop prior to administering the drug.

    Question 35 A 22-year-old woman has given birth to an infant who exhibits the signs and symptoms of maternal cocaine use during pregnancy.These signs and symptoms are a result of what pathophysiological effect of opioid use during pregnancy?

    A) Changes in blood chemistry as a result of nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

    B) Impaired maternal nutrition as a result of drug use

    C) Vasoconstriction leading to reduced placental blood flow

    D) Hypoxia as a result of a prolonged second stage of labor

    Question 36 A preterm neonate received caffeine for the treatment of apnea.The nurse should monitor the neonate for which of the following?

    A) Bloody stools

    B) Bradycardia

    C) Constipation

    D) Hypoglycemia

    Question 37 A 30-year-old man with a BMI of 59 has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. In light of the man’s lack of success with weight loss programs in the past, his care provider has prescribed sibutramine (Meridia). What instructions should the nurse consequently provide to this patient?

    A) “Take this drug once each day on an empty stomach.”

    B) “It’s best to take a dose of sibutramine after each meal.”

    C) “This drug will help you to lose weight without having to exercise or change your normal diet.”

    D) “Take a dose when you feel like you are tempted to binge on food.”

    Question 38 A nurse practitioner orders a single dose of 2 g Metronidazole orally. How many milligrams will the patient receive in one dose?

    A) 1000 mg

    B) 2000 mg

    C) 3000 mg

    D) 4000 mg

    Question 39 A nurse is explaining to the parents of a 6-year-old child suffering from angina why nitroglycerin patches for chest pain would not be appropriate. Which of the following will the nurse include in an explanation?

    A) A child has an erratic blood flow from an immature peripheral circulation, which increases drug absorption, causing an increase in adverse effects.

    B) A child’s gastric pH is decreased, causing less of the drug to be absorbed from the subcutaneous skin, therefore producing more adverse effects.

    C) A child has a greater body surface area, creating greater permeability resulting in an increase in absorption of topical agents, which may result in more adverse effects.

    D) A child has a smaller body surface area, resulting in an increase in topical absorption, which can cause more adverse effects.

    Question 40 An immunocompromised 7-year-old child was recently discharged home with a peripherally-inserted central line (PIC line) for home antibiotic therapy. He has now been brought to the emergency department by his mother and father with signs and symptoms of line sepsis.Upon questioning, the mother states that she has been removing the PIC dressing daily and washing the site with warm water and a cloth. What nursing diagnosis is most appropriate in this situation?

    A) Caregiver Role Strain

    B) Ineffective Family Therapeutic Regimen Management

    C) Delayed Growth and Development

    D) Knowledge Deficit

    NURS 6521 Final Exam

  • middle range Nursing Theories: Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE)

    middle range Nursing Theories: Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE)

    Write a 1,000-1,250 word paper examining how the Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE) structure translates into nursing practice based on one of the middle range theories that has been formulated or derived from your preferred conceptual model of nursing. Translate and apply the selected theory to nursing practice using actual examples. Evaluate the theory using the CTE steps below:

    1. Evaluation of the conceptual-theoretical-empirical linkages.

    2. Evaluation of the selected theory.

    3. Evaluation of the empirical indicators.

    4. Evaluation of research findings.

    5. Evaluation of the utility and soundness of the practice theory.

    middle range Nursing Theories: Conceptual – Theoretical – Empirical (CTE)

  • HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    HSM 330 Course Project Outline Week 3

    Electronic Health Records Assignment Paper: Course Project Outline is due this week.

    • Submit a 1 to 2 page outline with the researched references you will be using to write the Course Project.

    Preview:

    Purpose: To define what an electronic health record is and specify an actual solutions package that best represents an effective and efficient electronic health record, including its key features and software functions….. HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    HSM 330 Application Paper Week 5

    Topic: Research electronic health record functionality standards or certification. Write a paper describing how you would incorporate your findings into the EHR selection and decision-making process. Sources include the HL7 EHR Functional Model, ONC certification criteria and other organizations offering EHR certification.

    Preview:

    …There are also some hospitals that use electronic health records, but because of using different standards in record keeping, the same problems occur. At the same time, there are hospital units that do not readily share patient information as they consider these data as proprietary information, thus, there is no need for them to share their patient data. But considering the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA), the government has…

    Electronic Health Records Assignment Paper

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    HSM 330 Application Paper Week 6

    Topic: Research the HIMSS Davies Award winners. Review the case study for one of them. Compare their experience with the learning from this course.

    Preview:

    …The vision of HIMSS is the promotion and advancement of the “best use of information and management systems for the betterment of health care” (Collins, 2010, p. 3), while the mission is “to lead change in the healthcare information and management systems field through knowledge sharing, advocacy, collaboration, innovation, and community affiliations” (Collins, 2010, p. 3). The Davies Awards was named in honor of…

    Electronic Health Records Assignment Paper

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    HSM 330 Course Project Week 7

    This longer written project is designed to give you the opportunity to select an electronic health record, identifying and discussing its key features. As part of this project, you will research your chosen software’s functions and how it works. The paper should critically analyze your findings. Specifically, the paper should offer the following information and address the following issues.

    • Name of the product

    • Uses of the product

    • Integration with other information systems

    • User friendliness of data entry and data retrieval

    HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    • Benefits of this particular software over similar types of software

    • The implementation process you would use to implement the EHR

    • Other issues as identified by your instructor

    Electronic Health Records Assignment Paper Milestones

    The name of the software you’ve chosen as the course project topic must be submitted in Week 1. (required)

    A content outline for your paper is due by Week 3, indicating how you plan to address the above criteria, and the primary sources of information you will use. (required)

    Feedback on your topic selection and project outline will be provided by the instructor.

    The completed project is due by the end of Week 7. (required)

    Preview:

    Electronic health records[1], or EHRs, are digital versions of a patient’s hospital and medical records. They contain specific information pertaining a patient’s medical history, including laboratory results, diagnoses, and medication, among others. These secure information are shared among other EHRs, thus, are updated on real-time, making data…

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    HSM 330 Midterm Exam: Electronic Health Records Assignment Paper

    (TCO 1) Which statement best describes the acronym EHR? (Points : 10)

    Chosen by the IOM, carried forward by HL7 and CCHIT; most comprehensive term

    Used to describe systems based on document imaging or systems implemented in physicians’ offices HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    A standalone system that analyzes a large volume of aggregated data

    Coined by the IOM; designed to support users by providing accessibility to complete links to medical knowledge and other aids

    (TCO 2) Which statement listed below is incorrect? (Points : 10)

    Comprehensive EHRs enable full generation of a printable chart negating need for EDMS

    EDMS implementations require process improvement and change management

    Hybrid record issues largely can be overcome by EDMS

    Paper and other digital documents can be accommodated in an ED/CM system

    (TCO 3) EDMS would enable which of the following change to occur in an HIM department: (Points : 10)

    Change record retention schedule to one year

    Eliminate transcription

    Reduce coding errors

    Shift release of information to point of service

    (TCO 4) Which law called for the standards to support e-prescribing?. (Points : 10)

    HIPAA (1996)

    TEFRA (1982)

    MMA (2003)

    There is no law but several state statutes cover this.

    (TCO 5) Who is most responsible for ensuring physician adoption of an EHR in a hospital? (Points : 10)

    EHR project manager

    Executive leadership

    Nurses

    Physician champion

    (TCO 6) What is the primary difference between a closed and an open system? (Points : 10)

    Closed systems are designed for use in secure environments whereas the open system can operate in any environment

    Closed systems do not interact with the environment while open systems are influenced by the environment.

    A closed system is for internal use only while the open system works with the Internet.

    A closed system costs money whereas the open system is free.

    (TCO 7) An EHR is more like a program than a project because the EHR: (Points : 10)

    Has a high cost HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment

    Has no clear beginning and end

    Represents a change

    Requires great attention to detail

    (TCO 1) As discussed in the textbook, describe some of the consumer awareness and perceptions of the EHR? (Points : 20)

    In this case, the term “consumers” pertains to both healthcare consumers and clinicians who will be using the EHR systems. Initially, there was hesitation on the veracity of EHR systems primarily because of…

    (TCO 2) Not every vendor that supports HIS has developed a repository structure that is sufficiently robust to integrate both discrete data and images. What alternatives do hospitals have in this situation? Please Explain? (Points : 20)

    In this case, use of a presentation layer will prove to be a useful tool for hospitals. A presentation layer is “software that provides screen layout, data capture, and retrieval functionality, and operates on the…

    (TCO 3) What is a template-based entry? Describe the pros and cons of a template-based entry? (Points : 20)

    Template-based entry is a combination of “free text and structured data entry” (p. 397) because on the clinician’s part, before he or she..

    (TCO 4) Describe the following abbreviations: EDMS, RFID, HL7? (Points : 20)

    EDMS

    Electronic document management systems, or EDMS, is a software system that is used to… HSM 330 Electronic Health Records Essay Assignment