Category: Nursing

  • NSG6020 Final Exam

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 1

    A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

    A) Infectious

    B) Inflammatory

    C) Hematologic

    D) Traumatic

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    Question 2

    A 35-year-old archaeologist comes to your office (located in Phoenix, Arizona) for a regular skin check-up. She has just returned from her annual dig site in Greece. She has fair skin and reddish-blonde hair. She has a family history of melanoma. She has many freckles scattered across her skin. From this description, which of the following is not a risk factor for melanoma in this patient?

    A) Age

    B) Hair color

    C) Actinic lentigines

    D) Heavy sun exposure

    Question 3

    A 15-year-old high school sophomore and her mother come to your clinic because the mother is concerned about her daughter’s weight. You measure her daughter’s height and weight and obtain a BMI of 19.5 kg/m2. Based on this information, which of the following is appropriate?

    A) Refer the patient to a nutritionist and a psychologist because the patient is anorexic.

    B) Reassure the mother that this is a normal body weight.

    C) Give the patient information about exercise because the patient is obese.

    D) Give the patient information concerning reduction of fat and cholesterol in her diet because she is obese.

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 4

    A middle-aged man comes in because he has noticed multiple small, blood-red, raised lesions over his anterior chest and abdomen for the past several months.They are not painful and he has not noted any bleeding or bruising. He is concerned this may be consistent with a dangerous condition. What should you do?

    A) Reassure him that there is nothing to worry about.

    B) Do laboratory work to check for platelet problems.

    C) Obtain an extensive history regarding blood problems and bleeding disorders.

    D) Do a skin biopsy in the office.

    Question 5

    Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a “lump on his back” over his scapula. It has been there for about a year and is getting larger. He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion. He worries this may be cancer. When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

    A) An enlarged lymph node

    B) A sebaceous cyst

    C) An actinic keratosis

    D) A malignant lesion

    Question 6

    A patient comes to you for the appearance of red patches on his forearms that have been present for several months. They remain for several weeks. He denies a history of trauma. Which of the following is likely?

    A) Actinic keratoses

    B) Pseudoscars

    C) Actinic purpura

    D) Cherry angiomas

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 7

    A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with fever, headache, and neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of meningococcal meningitis. Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn’t been. Which of the following physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?

    A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck supple with full range of motion

    B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck with paraspinous muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right

    C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to palpation, unable to perform range of motion

    D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc margins, neck supple with full range of motion

    Question 8

    A 58-year-old gardener comes to your office for evaluation of a new lesion on her upper chest. The lesion appears to be “stuck on” and is oval, brown, and slightly elevated with a flat surface. It has a rough, wartlike texture on palpation. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    A) Actinic keratosis

    B) Seborrheic keratosis

    C) Basal cell carcinoma

    D) Squamous cell carcinoma

    Question 9

    A patient presents for evaluation of a cough. Which of the following anatomic regions can be responsible for a cough?

    A) Ophthalmologic

    B) Auditory

    C) Cardiac

    D) Endocrine

    Question 10

    A 72-year-old retired truck driver comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation of hearing loss. He has noticed some decreased ability to hear what his wife and grandchildren are saying to him. He admits to lip-reading more. He has a history of noise exposure in his young adult years: He worked as a sound engineer at a local arena and had to attend a lot of concerts. Based on this information, what is the most likely finding regarding his hearing acuity?

    A) Loss of acuity for middle-range sounds

    B) Increase of acuity for low-range sounds

    C) Loss of acuity for high-range sounds

    D) Increase of acuity for high-range sounds

    Question 11

    Mrs.Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears in various locations. Each lesion lasts for many minutes. What most likely accounts for this rash?

    A) Insect bites

    B) Urticaria, or hives

    C) Psoriasis

    D) Purpura

    Question 12

    A new mother is concerned that her child occasionally “turns blue.” On further questioning, she mentions that this is at her hands and feet. She does not remember the child’s lips turning blue. She is otherwise eating and growing well. What would you do now?

    A) Reassure her that this is normal

    B) Obtain an echocardiogram to check for structural heart disease and consult cardiology

    C) Admit the child to the hospital for further observation

    D) Question the validity of her story

    Question 13

    An 89-year-old retired school principal comes for an annual check-up. She would like to know whether or not she should undergo a screening colonoscopy. She has never done this before. Which of the following factors should not be considered when discussing whether she should go for this screening test?

    A) Life expectancy

    B) Time interval until benefit from screening accrues

    C) Patient preference

    D) Current age of patient

    Question 14

    You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma. Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs?

    A) A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

    B) A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

    C) A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution

    D) A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 15

    A 79-year-old retired banker comes to your office for evaluation of difficulty with urination; he gets up five to six times per night to urinate and has to go at least that often in the daytime. He does not feel as if his bladder empties completely; the strength of the urinary stream is diminished. He denies dysuria or hematuria. This problem has been present for several years but has worsened over the last 8 months. You palpate his prostate. What is your expected physical examination finding, based on this description?

    A) Normal size, smooth

    B) Normal size, boggy

    C) Enlarged size, smooth

    D) Enlarged size, boggy

    Question 16

    A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years. It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure. On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails. What would account for these findings?

    A) Eczema

    B) Pityriasis rosea

    C) Psoriasis

    D) Tinea infection

    Question 17

    A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

    A) Infection

    B) Inflammation

    C) Allergic

    D) Vascular

    Question 18

    A 68-year-old retired farmer comes to your office for evaluation of a skin lesion. On the right temporal area of the forehead, you see a flattened papule the same color as his skin, covered by a dry scale that is round and feels hard. He has several more of these scattered on the forehead, arms, and legs.Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    A) Actinic keratosis

    B) Seborrheic keratosis

    C) Basal cell carcinoma

    D) Squamous cell carcinoma

    Question 19

    An 8-year-old girl comes with her mother for evaluation of hair loss. She denies pulling or twisting her hair, and her mother has not noted this behavior at all. She does not put her hair in braids. On physical examination, you note a clearly demarcated, round patch of hair loss without visible scaling or inflammation. There are no hair shafts visible. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    A) Alopecia areata

    B) Trichotillomania

    C) Tinea capitis

    D) Traction alopecia

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 20

    A 19-year-old construction worker presents for evaluation of a rash. He notes that it started on his back with a multitude of spots and is also on his arms, chest, and neck. It itches a lot. He does sweat more than before because being outdoors is part of his job. On physical examination, you note dark tan patches with a reddish cast that has sharp borders and fine scales, scattered more prominently around the upper back, chest, neck, and upper arms as well as under the arms. Based on this description, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    A) Pityriasis rosea

    B) Tinea versicolor

    C) Psoriasis

    D) Atopic eczema

    Question 21

    Which of the following booster immunizations is recommended in the older adult population?

    A) Tetanus

    B) Diphtheria

    C) Measles

    D) Mumps

    Question 22

    A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?

    A) Musculoskeletal

    B) Reproductive

    C) Urinary

    D) Endocrine

    Question 23

    Ms.Whiting is a 68 year old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else. She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them. What should you do?

    A) Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

    B) Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

    C) Ask how she acquired them.

    D) Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

    NSG6020 Final Exam Question 24

    You have recently returned from a medical missions trip to sub-Saharan Africa, where you learned a great deal about malaria. You decide to use some of the same questions and maneuvers in your “routine” when examining patients in the midwestern United States. You are disappointed to find that despite getting some positive answers and findings, on further workup, none of your patients has malaria except one, who recently emigrated from Ghana. How should you next approach these questions and maneuvers?

    A) Continue asking these questions in a more selective way.

    B) Stop asking these questions, because they are low yield.

    C) Question the validity of the questions.

    D) Ask these questions of all your patients.

    Question 25

    On routine screening you notice that the cup-to-disc ratio of the patient’s right eye is 1:2. What ocular condition should you suspect?

    A) Macular degeneration

    B) Diabetic retinopathy

    C) Hypertensive retinopathy

    D) Glaucoma

    Question 26

    Mrs.Hill is a 28-year-old African-American with a history of SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus). She has noticed a raised, dark red rash on her legs. When you press on the rash, it doesn’t blanch. What would you tell her regarding her rash?

    A) It is likely to be related to her lupus.

    B) It is likely to be related to an exposure to a chemical.

    C) It is likely to be related to an allergic reaction.

    D) It should not cause any problems.

    Question 27

    A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven’t worked as well and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what is the most likely pathologic process?

    A) Infectious

    B) Neoplastic

    C) Degenerative

    D) Traumatic

    Question 28

    A 28-year-old patient comes to the office for evaluation of a rash. At first there was only one large patch, but then more lesions erupted suddenly on the back and torso; the lesions itch. On physical examination, you note that the pattern of eruption is like a Christmas tree and that there are a variety of erythematous papules and macules on the cleavage lines of the back. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    A) Pityriasis rosea

    B) Tinea versicolor

    C) Psoriasis

    D) Atopic eczema

    Question 29

    Which of the following changes are expected in vision as part of the normal aging process?

    A) Cataracts

    B) Glaucoma

    C) Macular degeneration

    D) Blurring of near vision

    Question 30

    You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold. What would you do next?

    A) Conclude this is caused by a cultural practice.

    B) Conclude this finding is most likely secondary to trauma.

    C) Look for information from family and records regarding any problems which occurred 3 months ago.

    D) Ask about dietary intake. NSG6020 Final Exam

  • Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses for iHuman Case.

    Use this week’s iHuman case titled “Jack Baldwin VE” and create a SOAP note with a treatment plan (located at the bottom of the SOAP note.

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    Provide a subjective, objective, assessment, and plan (SOAP) note on this patient and your treatment plan using the SOAP note template. Remember to keep the patient’s identity private; use the minimal amount of information possible to get the idea across. Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    Provide a reference for your treatment plan (in APA format). The reference may come from a journal, a book, etc.

    Cite all sources using APA format.

    Include three differential diagnoses and support your diagnoses with supporting literature.

     

     

    Episodic SOAP Note
    Sample

     

    Note: For purposes of this sample SOAP note comments on what is required for each section have been left in place. You would not leave these in an official SOAP note.

     

    Name:
      K. P.

    Date:
    09/03/20xx

    Time: 0800

    Age:
    34

    Sex:
    Male

    SUBJECTIVE

    CC:  

     

    “I have a burning red rash on my back.”

     

    Reason given by the patient for seeking medical care “in quotes”

    HPI:  

    34 year old male presents to office with a linear vesicular rash to the right side of his back. Patient states he began to feel a tingling and burning sensation to the area approximately 48 hours age, and then blisters appeared 24 hours ago. Patients states he now feels a constant sharp, burning pain in the area. He states the patin is often as 8 or 10 out of 10 severity. He complains of generalized malaise and reports a low grade fever no higher than 100.1 F. The pain worsens with touch and movement. Patient has been controlling pain with Tylenol 650 mg PO and he states it helps moderately. Patient reports having chicken pox when he was age 5.

    Describe the course of the patient’s illness, including when it began, character of symptoms, location where the symptoms began, aggravating or alleviating factors; pertinent positives and negatives, other related diseases, past illnesses, surgeries or past diagnostic testing related to present illness.

    Medications:
    (list with reason for med )

     

    Benicar 10 mg PO daily for HTN

     

    PMH

     

    Allergies:
     NKDA  
    Medication Intolerances:
    None

     

    Chronic Illnesses/Major traumas:
    Patient has a significant history for hypertension
    Chronic Health Problems:

    1. HTN (401.1) – controlled

     

    Hospitalizations/Surgeries:
    None

     

    Other: 

    Immunizations:
    Up to date on all immunizations. Flu shot in October 2012 and plans to get the Flu vaccine this year. Tetanus booster vaccine in 2010.

     

    Environmental hazards:
    Patient denies any environmental hazards.

     

    Safety meaures:
    Patient states “I always wear my seatbelt”.

     

    Exercise and leisure:
    Walks occasionally for exercise.

     

    Sleep:
    Denies any issues with sleeping.

     

     

    Diet:
    Drinks one cup of coffee a day, otherwise drinks water or tea. 24-hour recall: Breakfast – bacon and eggs with a black coffee; Lunch – ham sandwich with tea; Dinner – salad with steak.

     

    “Have you every been told that you have:  Diabetes, HTN, peptic ulcer disease, asthma, lung disease, heart disease, cancer, TB, thyroid problems or kidney disease or psychiatric diagnosis.”

    Family History

     

    No pertinent family history reported.

     

    Does your mother, father or siblings have any medical or psychiatric illnesses?  Anyone diagnosed with: lung disease, heart disease, htn, cancer, TB, DM, or kidney disease.

     

    Social History

     

    No relevant social history; denies use of tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.

     

    Education level, occupational history, current living situation/partner/marital status, substance use/abuse, ETOH, tobacco, marijuana.  Safety status

     

    ROS

    General 

    Reports pain and rash on the right side of back. Otherwise no complaints at this time.

     

    Weight change, fatigue, fever, chills, night sweats,  energy level

    Cardiovascular

     

     

    Chest pain, palpitations, PND, orthopnea, edema

     

    Skin

    Complains of rash to middle of right side of back.

    Complains of sharp, burning pain to the area. Denies bruising or other abnormalities to skin, hair, or nails.

    Delayed healing, rashes, bruising, bleeding or skin discolorations, any changes in lesions or moles

    Respiratory

     

     

     

     

    Cough
    , wheezing, hemoptysis, dyspnea, pneumonia hx, TB

    Eyes

     

    Corrective lenses, blurring, visual changes of any kind

    Gastrointestinal

     

    Abdominal pain, N/V/D, constipation, hepatitis, hemorrhoids, eating disorders, ulcers, black tarry stools

    Ears

     

    Ear pain, hearing loss, ringing in ears, discharge

     

    Genitourinary/Gynecological

     

    Urgency, frequency burning, change in color of urine. Contraception, sexual activity, STDS’    Fe: last pap, breast, mammo, menstrual complaints, vaginal discharge, pregnancy hx;Male: prostate,

    PSA, urinary complaints

    Nose/Mouth/Throat

     

    Sinus problems, dysphagia, nose bleeds or discharge, dental disease, hoarseness, throat pain

    Musculoskeletal

     

    Back pain, joint swelling, stiffness or pain, fracture hx, osteoporosis

    Breast

     

    SBE, lumps, bumps or changes

    Neurological

     

    Syncope, seizures, transient paralysis, weakness, paresthesias, black out spells

     

     

    Heme/Lymph/Endo

    Complains fo generalized malaise. Denies any heat or cold intolerance, thyroid enlargement or tenderness, unexpected weight changes, or abnormal distribution in body hair.

     

    HIV status, bruising, blood transfusion hx, night sweats, swollen glands, increase thirst, increase hunger, cold or heat intolerance

    Psychiatric

     

     

     

     

     

    Depression, anxiety, sleeping difficulties, suicidal ideation/attempts, previous dx

    OBJECTIVE

    Weight:
    182 lbs
           BMI:
    24.0

    Temp:
    99.2 F

    BP:
    122/84 (left arm)

    Height:
    6’1”

    Pulse:
    82 per minute

    Resp:
    18, O2 sat 100% on RA

    General Appearance

    34 year old white male who appears his stated age. He is not in distress. He makes eye contact and responds to questions appropriately. Alert and oriented X3, well groomed, well nourished and hydrated. Patient is appropriately dressed and cooperative in regards to all aspects of the examination.

     

    Healthy appearing adult female in no acute distress. Alert and oriented; answers questions appropriately. Slightly somber affect at first, then brighter later.

    Skin

    Rash present to mid-back on the right side at location of 6
    th
    rib, bright red, linear form, with vesicular type blisters present. Blisters intact, no exudate or crusting present. Approximately 7 inches in length. Does not cross midline. No other lesions, bruises, or suspicious moles present. No nail pitting or clubbing.

     

    Skin is brown, warm, dry, clean and intact. No rashes or lesions noted.

    HEENT

     

    Head is normocephalic, atraumatic and without lesions; hair evenly distributed. Eyes:  PERRLA. EOMs intact. No conjunctival or scleral injection. Ears: Canals patent. Bilateral TMs pearly grey with positive light reflex; landmarks easily visualized. Nose: Nasal mucosa pink; normal turbinates. No septal deviation.

    Neck: Supple. Full ROM; no cervical lymphadenopathy; no occipital nodes. No thyromegaly or nodules.

    Oral mucosa pink and moist. Pharynx is nonerythematous and without exudate. Teeth are in good repair
    .

    Cardiovascular

    PMI noted at 5
    th
    ICS MCL. RRR, S1 and S2 present. No S3, S4, murmurs, or bruits noted. No palpable thrills, lifts, or heaves.

     

    S1, S2 with regular rate and rhythm. No extra sounds, clicks, rubs or murmurs. Capillary refill 2 seconds. Pulses 3+ throughout. No edema.

    Respiratory

    Summetrical thoracis expansion. A:P / 2:1. Tactile fremitus equal bilaterally. Resonance noted to all fields with percussion. Clear to auscultation with no adventitous sounds bilaterally.

     

    Symmetric chest wall. Respirations regular and easy; lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally
    .

    Gastrointestinal

     

    Abdomen obese; BS active in all 4 quadrants. Abdomen soft, non-tender. No hepatosplenomegaly
    .

    Breast

     

    Breast is free from masses or tenderness, no discharge, no dimpling, wrinkling or discoloration of the skin
    .

    Genitourinary/ Gynecological

     

    Bladder is non-distended; no CVA tenderness. External genitalia reveals coarse pubic hair in normal distribution; skin color is consistent with general pigmentation. No vulvar lesions noted. Well estrogenized. A small speculum was inserted; vaginal walls are pink and well rugated; no lesions noted. Cervix is pink

     

    and nulliparous. Scant clear to cloudy drainage present. On bimanual exam, cervix is firm. No CMT.

    Uterus is antevert and positioned behind a slightly distended bladder; no fullness, masses, or tenderness. 

    No adnexal masses or tenderness. Ovaries are non-palpable.

    (Male:  both testes palpable, no masses or lesions, no hernia, no uretheral discharge. )

    (Rectal as appropriate:  no evidence of hemorrhoids, fissures, bleeding or masses—Males: prostrate is smooth, non-tender and free from nodules, is of normal size, sphincter tone is firm).

    Musculoskeletal

     

    Full ROM seen in all 4 extremities as patient moved about the exam room.

    Neurological 

     

    Speech clear. Good tone. Posture erect. Balance stable; gait normal.

    Psychiatric

     

    Alert and oriented. Dressed in clean slacks, shirt and coat. Maintains eye contact. Speech is soft, though clear and of normal rate and cadence; answers questions appropriately. Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    Lab Tests

    None

     

    Urinalysis – pending

    Urine culture – pending

    Wet prep – pending

     

    Special Tests

    None

     

     Diagnosis

     Differential Diagnosis

    o    1- Herpes zoster without mention of complication (053.9) o     2- Rash and other nonspecific skin eruption (782.1) o     3- Other malaise and fatigue (780.79)

     

    Presumptive Diagnosis o         1- Herpes zoster without mention of complication (053.9)

     

     

    Plan/Therapeutics

                            o    Plan:

    § 
    Diagnois:
    Herpes zoster without mention of complication (053.9)

    § 
    Further testing:
    None

    § 
    Medication
    :  Valtrex 1000 mg PO q8h X 7 days

    § 
    Education
    : Continue using Tylenol 650 mg PO to manage pain. Limit Tylenol to less than 4 g per day. May also place a cool compress to area to ease pain. Vesicles may burst and then crust over. Thepain should ease within two to three days. It may take up to six weeks for the raash to completely heal. Monitor for s/s of infection (increased redness, fever, pain, or purulent, fould smelling drainage). Advise that a person sho has never had chicken pox may contract chicken pos by exposure to the shingles rash. Avoid contact with infants, children, pregnant women, and adults who have never had chicken pox, until blisters are completely dry. It is also important to avoid people with weakened immune systems. It is possible to have shingles flair up again in the future. Stress and a lowered immune system may precipitate a flair up. You can protect your immune system with a healthy lifestyle, and keeping your stress at manageable levels can reduce your chances of getting shingles and other

    Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    illnesses.

    § 
    Non-medication treatments:
    Maintain adequate hydratin b continuing to drink 68 glasses of water a day. Continue participating in workout regimen.

    § 
    Return to clinic:
    RTC in one week if pain persists or s/s of infection occur. Overwise, PRN.

     

     Evaluation of  patient encounter

    Evaluate your patient encounter here.

     

    Please note that your SOAP note has several areas that have required information.  The HPI is one of them.  The HPI must include:

    History of Present Illness:
      “O-P-Q-R-S-T” questions

    Onset 
    and
     
    circumstances of 
    Occurrence 
    of symptom(s)

    Provocative
     and 
    Palliative
     factors

    Quality
     and/or 
    Quantity
     of symptom

    Region
     of body and
    Radiation
     to other areas

    Severity
     of symptom (0 to 10 scale, if applicable) and associated 
    Symptoms

    Time 
    (duration) and 
    Temporal
     associations (what is going on when symptom occurs

    In addition, “normal” is not acceptable you must describe what you are seeing.  I know that normal is used in charting–but you are learning and so you are required to do the ideal and the ideal is describing what you see and completing a total ROS on every patient. Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

     

     

    Week 7 I Human Soap note

    Patient’s Initials: J.B.

    Age: 50years old

    Sex: Male

    Date: 02/06/20xx

     Subjective

    Chief Complaint (CC): “severe left groin pain for 6 hours”

    HPI: Mr. Baldwin is a 50-year old male who experienced the sudden onset of severe pain in his left groin radiating to his testicles after moving a refrigerator 6 hours ago. The pain is severe, constant, and feels “like something is tearing inside.” He is nauseated, has vomited once but denies dysuria, hematuria, back/leg pain, numbness, or weakness. The physical exam is significant for tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, and severe pain in a swollen left groin. Tenderness is appreciated in the left inguinal canal; the scrotum is swollen on the left side; the testicles are normal in size and nontender to palpation.

    Past Medical History

    Allergies: NKDA

    Medications: Lisinopril 10mg by mouth daily

    Surgical History and Procedure: None

    Chronic Illness/Major Traumas: Hypertension I10 (“ICD-10 Code Lookup”, 2016)

    Kidney stone 20.0 (“ICD-10 Code Lookup”, 2016)

     

    Family History

    Father: Hypertension, CAD, prostate cancer

    Mother: Hypothyroidism, breast cancer

    Siblings: None

    Social History Marital status/personal support system: Married x 20 years without kid. Housing: Condominium Occupation: Accountant Tobacco use: Smokes 1 ppd; Alcohol: 1 to 2 drinks/day; History of: narcotic abuse (Percocet) Sexual history: Monogamous Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    .
    Review of Systems

    General (-) Fatigue, (-) weight loss, (-) chills, (-) fever, (-) night sweats, (-) change in energy level

    Skin (-) delayed healing, (-) rashes, (-) bruising, (-) bleeding or skin discolorations, (-) any changes in lesions or moles

    Eyes(-) Corrective lenses, (-) blurring, (-) change in vision Ears (-) ear pain, (-) hearing loss, (-) discharge Nose/Mouth, Throat (-) Sinus problems, (-) dysphagia, (-) nose bleeds or discharge, (-)dental disease, (-) hoarseness, (-) throat pain

    Heme/Lymph/Endo (-) HIV, (-) blood transfusion hx (-), cold intolerance, (-) bruising, (-) night sweats, (-) increase hunger/thirst

    Cardiovascular (-) chest pain, (-) palpitations, (-) edema, (-) PND, (-) orthopnea Respiratory (-) cough, (-) wheeze, (-) hemoptysis, (-) dyspnea, (-)  pneumonia hx, (-) TB

    Gastrointestinal (-) Abdominal pain, (+) Nausea, (+) vomiting, diarrhea(-),  (-) constipation, (-) hepatitis, (-) hemorrhoids, (-)eating disorders, (-) ulcers, (-) black tarry stools

    Genitourinary/Gynecological: (-) urgency, (-) frequency, (-) hesitancy, (-) dysuria, (-) hematuria (+) sexual activity, (-) STDS

    Rectal Denies any bleeding or pain Musculoskeletal (-) back pain, (-) swelling of joints, (-) fracture history Neurological Denies weakness or numbness, (-) headache, (-) Syncope, (-) seizures, (-) transient paralysis, (-) weakness, (-) paresthesias, (-) black out spells

    Psychiatric (-) depression, (-) anxiety, (-) sleeping difficulties, (-) suicidal ideation/attempts, (-) previous dx

    Objective

    Weight:  180.0 lbs.                BMI:   24.4                 Temp: 99 (Oral)       BP: 170/94

    Height:  6’0”                          Pulse: 130bmp (tachycardia)                     RR: 18bpm, oxygen saturation is 98%, RA.

    General Appearance: A healthy appearing adult male with acute distress. He is well-groomed, fit, and cheerful, he is alert and orientedx4, can answer any question by himself..

    Skin: Warm, diaphoresis, (-) Delayed healing, (-) rashes, (-) bruising, (-) bleeding or skin discolorations, (-)any changes in lesions or moles No

    HEENT: Head is normocephalic, atraumatic and without lesions; hair evenly distributed. Eyes: PERRLA. EOMs intact. No conjunctival or scleral injection. Ears: Canals patent. Bilateral TMs pearly grey with positive light reflex; landmarks easily visualized. Nose: Nasal mucosa pink; normal turbinates. No septal deviation. Neck: Supple. Full ROM; no cervical lymphadenopathy; no occipital nodes. No thyromegaly or nodules. Oral mucosa pink and moist. Pharynx is nonerythematous and without exudate. Teeth are in good repair.

    Lymph Nodes: Deferred

    Carotids: (-) JVD, (-) bruits

    Cardiovascular: Tachycardia, S1, S2 with regular rate and rhythm. No extra sounds, clicks, rubs or murmurs. Capillary refill 2 seconds. Pulses 3+ throughout. No edema.

    Respiratory: Symmetric chest wall. Respirations regular and easy; lungs clear to auscultation bilaterally.

    Gastrointestinal: Abdomen flat; BS hyper active in all 4 quadrants. Abdomen soft, non-tender. No hepatosplenomegaly.

    Genitourinary: Bladder is non-distended; no CVA tenderness. The left groin region is visibly swollen and indurated to palpation. Right side normal. There is tenderness within the left inguinal canal; right inguinal canal normal. The scrotum is swollen on left side. The testicles are normal in size and nontender to palpation. Normal penile shaft, without lesions or discharge. External genitalia reveals coarse pubic hair in normal distribution; skin color is consistent with general pigmentation.No uretheral discharge. Rectal as appropriate: no evidence of hemorrhoids, fissures, bleeding or masses. Prostrate is smooth, non-tender and free from nodules, is of normal size, sphincter tone is firm. Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

    Musculoskeletal: Full ROM seen in all 4 extremities as patient moved about the exam room.

    Neurological: Speech clear. Good tone. Posture erect. Balance stable; gait normal.

    Psychiatric: Alert and oriented to person only. Dressed in clean slacks, shirt and coat. Maintains eye contact. Speech is soft, though clear and of normal rate and cadence; can’t answer questions appropriately.

     

    Lab result

    White blood cells (WBCs)

    19500

    mm3

    4,000-10,000

    Red Blood Cell Count (RBC)

    5.0

    million/µl

    4.5-5.9(♂), 4.0-5.2(♀), adults

    Hemoglobin (Hgb)

    14.2

    g/dl

    14-18(♂), 12-16(♀), adults

    Hematocrit (Hct)

    45

    %

    42-54(♂), 37-47(♀), adults

    Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

    92

    fl

    82-103, adults

    Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)

    30

    µm3

    26-34, adults

    Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

    33

    %

    30-37, adults

    Platelets (thrombocytes)

    310

    k/dL

    150-399, adults

    Red cell distribution width (RDW)

    13.0

    %

    11.5-14.5, adults

    Neutrophils

    73

    %

    46-78, adult

    Lymphocytes

    24

    %

    18-52, adult

    Monocytes

    1

    %

    3-10, adult

    Eosinophils

    1

    %

    0-6, adult

    Basophils

    1

    %

    0-3, adult

    Segmented neutrophils

    71

    %

    36-72, adult

    Band Cells

    2

    %

    0-6, adult

    Color

    light amber

    Interpreted by physician

    Clarity

    clear

    clear

    Odor

    normal

    slightly nutty

    pH

    5.1

    4.5-8

    Protein

    1

    mg/dL

    0-8

    Specific gravity

    1.013

    1.002-1.030

    Osmolarity

    > 400

    mOsm/L

    >400

    Leukocyte esterase

    negative

    negative

    Nitrites

    negative

    0

    Ketones

    negative

    negative

    Bilirubin

    negative

    negative

    Blood (heme)

    negative

    negative

    Urobilinogen

    1.0

    EU/dL

    0.2-1.0

    Crystals

    none

    Interpreted by physician

    Casts

    none

    hyaline casts/lpf

    0-4

    Glucose, urine

    negative

    negative

    White blood cells (WBCs)

    0-1

    hpf

    0-5

    Red blood cells (RBCs)

    0-1

    hpf

    0-5

    Red blood cell casts

    none

    none

    SQEP

    none

    lpf

    <5 Bacteria negative negative on spun specimen Creatinine 7 5-19 Occult blood negative negative   Name Value Units Reference Range Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/L 135-145 Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/L 3.5 to 5.1 Chloride (Cl-) 99 mmol/L 95-102(1mo-adult), 91-118(1d-1mo) Carbon dioxide, total (CO2) 25 mmol/L 22-29(15y-adult), 20-28(1y-15y) Glucose (BG/Glu) 85 mg/dL 70-110(fasting), 70-200(non-fasting) Urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL 8-21(15y-adult), 5-18(1mo-15y) Creatinine (Cr) 0.8 mg/dL 0.6-1.3(♂), 0.5-1.1(♀) Calcium (Ca2+) 9.6 mg/dL 8.7-10.7(1 mo-adult), 8.7-11.9 *Anion Gap 17 mEq/L 10-20 [(Na+ – (Cl- + HCO3-)]   Scrotal ultrasound reveals the following: Loop of bowel in the left scrotum Normal blood flow to each testicle Normal testicular size bilaterally (Fischbach & Dunning, 2014). Diagnosis: Hernia inguinal K40 (“ICD-10 Code Lookup”, 2016) Evidenced by Inguinal or scrotal nonreducible mass with severe pain, vomiting, and constipation and scrotal ultrasound result (Fischbach & Dunning, 2014). Differential diagnosis Testicular torsion: sudden onset of pain which is exquisite tenderness; and a high-riding, horizontally displaced testis (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2015). Epididymitis: fever, Swelling and tenderness of the scrotum (usually located on one side), patient may get relief with elevation of scrotum, which is positive Prehn’s sign. The other symptoms include urethral discharge, dysuria, hematuria (Cash, 2014) Kidney Stone: Add Ct scan to determine the stone size, if the test of urine positive for renal calculi. Treatment of kidney stone includes: pain management such as ibuprofen (Motrin, Advil), Zofran 4mg every 6 hours as needed for controlling nausea/vomiting, helping with passing the stone by using Tamsulosin (Flomax) 0.4mg daily to ease urination (Buttaro, Trybulski & Bailey, 2013). Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples Plan of Care: Cancer-screening modalities for gender/age: prostate exam (Buttaro, Trybulski & Bailey, 2013). Recommend smoking cessation – patient not ready (Buttaro, Trybulski & Bailey, 2013). Fitness: encouraging increasing exercise (Buttaro, Trybulski & Bailey, 2013). Nutrition: recommending better choices when eats out (Buttaro, Trybulski & Bailey, 2013). Truss can be used to groin hernias. Educate patient to avoid heavy lifting, and gently reduce a groin hernia when the individual lies supine with hips flexed to relax the abdominal muscles (Cash, 2014). Surgery is an effective treatment, laparoscopy or through an open procedure or mesh repair depending the size of the hernia, and the onset of strangulation. It should be surgical intervention if patient get strangulated hernias (Cash, 2014). Schedule the patient to return to the office if fever, severe pain, or strangulation happens. Postoperative evaluation for hernia recurrences as needed (Cash, 2014).     References Buttaro, T., Trybulski, J., Bailey,P., & Sandberg-Cook, J. (2013). Primary care: A collaborative                practice (4rd ed.). St. Louis, Mo.: Mosby/Elsevier. Cash, J. C. (2014). Family Practice Guidelines, Third Edition, 3rd Edition. [South University]. Retrieved from https://digitalbookshelf.southuniversity.edu/#/books/9780826168757/ Fischbach, F. T., & Dunning, M. B. (2014). A manual of laboratory and diagnostic tests.                Philadelphia: Wolters Kluwer Health/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. Goolsby, M. J., & Grubbs, L. (2015).  Advanced assessment: Interpreting findings and formulating differential diagnoses . Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis Company. ICD-10 Code Lookup. (2016). In CMS.gov. Retrieved on November 21, 2016, from             https://www.cms.gov/medicare-coverage-database/staticpages/icd-10-code-lookup.aspx Jack Baldwin VE iHuman Episodic SOAP Note and Differential Diagnoses Examples

  • NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

    NSG 6020 Midterm Study Guide

     

    1.

    For which of the following patients would a comprehensive health history be appropriate?

    A)

    A new patient with the chief complaint of “I sprained my ankle”

    B)

    An established patient with the chief complaint of “I have an upper respiratory infection”

    C)

    A new patient with the chief complaint of “I am here to establish care”

    D)

    A new patient with the chief complaint of “I cut my hand” NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

     

    ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN, PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    2.

    Is the following information subjective or objective?

    Mr. M. has shortness of breath that has persisted for the past 10 days; it is worse with activity and relieved by rest.

    A)

    Subjective

    B)

    Objective

     

     

    3.

    Is the following information subjective or objective?

    Mr. M. has a respiratory rate of 32 and a pulse rate of 120.

    A)

    Subjective

    B)

    Objective

     

     

    4.

    The following information is recorded in the health history: “Patient denies chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.”

    Which category does it belong to?

    A)

    Chief complaint

    B)

    Present illness

    C)

    Personal and social history

    D)

    Review of systems

     

     

    5.

    A patient presents for evaluation of a sharp, aching chest pain which increases with breathing. Which anatomic area would you localize the symptom to?

    A)

    Musculoskeletal

    B)

    Reproductive

    C)

    Urinary

    D)

    Endocrine

     

     

    6.

    A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint pain. The pain is new, located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever. The patient denies a rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family history significant for rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following pathologic processes would be the most correct?

    A)

    Infectious

    B)

    Inflammatory

    C)

    Hematologic

    D)

    Traumatic

     

     

    7.

    A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for evaluation of a 3-week history of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and nonproductive cough. Which is the most likely pathologic process?

    A)

    Infection

    B)

    Inflammation

    C)

    Allergic

    D)

    Vascular

     

     

    8.

    You are seeing an elderly man with multiple complaints.  He has chronic arthritis, pain from an old war injury, and headaches.  Today he complains of these pains, as well as dull chest pain under his sternum.  What would the order of priority be for your problem list?

    A)

    Arthritis, war injury pain, headaches, chest pain

    B)

    War injury pain, arthritis, headaches, chest pain

    C)

    Headaches, arthritis, war injury pain, chest pain

    D)

    Chest pain, headaches, arthritis, war injury pain

     

     

    9.

    Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient–provider interview?

    A)

    Establish the agenda, negotiate a plan, establish rapport, and invite the patient’s story.

    B)

    Invite the patient’s story, negotiate a plan, establish the agenda, and establish rapport.

    C)

    Greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient’s story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient’s story, and negotiate a plan.

    D)

    Negotiate a plan, establish an agenda, invite the patient’s story, and establish rapport.

     

     

    10.

    Alexandra is a 28-year-old editor who presents to the clinic with abdominal pain. The pain is a dull ache, located in the right upper quadrant, that she rates as a 3 at the least and an 8 at the worst. The pain started a few weeks ago, it lasts for 2 to 3 hours at a time, it comes and goes, and it seems to be worse a couple of hours after eating. She has noticed that it starts after eating greasy foods, so she has cut down on these as much as she can. Initially it occurred once a week, but now it is occurring every other day. Nothing makes it better. From this description, which of the seven attributes of a symptom has been omitted?

    A)

    Setting in which the symptom occurs

    B)

    Associated manifestations

    C)

    Quality

    D)

    Timing

     

     

    11.

    A 23-year-old graduate student comes to your clinic for evaluation of a urethral discharge. As the provider, you need to get a sexual history. Which one of the following questions is inappropriate for eliciting the information?

    A)

    Are you sexually active?

    B)

    When was the last time you had intimate physical contact with someone, and did that contact include sexual intercourse?

    C)

    Do you have sex with men, women, or both?

    D)

    How many sexual partners have you had in the last 6 months?

     

     

    12.

    On a very busy day in the office, Mrs. Donelan, who is 81 years old, comes for her usual visit for her blood pressure.  She is on a low-dose diuretic chronically and denies any side effects.  Her blood pressure is 118/78 today, which is well-controlled.  As you are writing her script, she mentions that it is hard not having her husband Bill around anymore. What would you do next?

    A)

    Hand her the script and make sure she has a 3-month follow-up appointment.

    B)

    Make sure she understands the script.

    C)

    Ask why Bill is not there.

    D)

    Explain that you will have more time at the next visit to discuss this.

     

     

    13.

    When you enter your patient’s examination room, his wife is waiting there with him.  Which of the following is most appropriate?

    A)

    Ask if it’s okay to carry out the visit with both people in the room.

    B)

    Carry on as you would ordinarily.  The permission is implied because his wife is in the room with him.

    C)

    Ask his wife to leave the room for reasons of confidentiality.

    D)

    First ask his wife what she thinks is going on.

     

     

    14.

    You are performing a young woman’s first pelvic examination.  You make sure to tell her verbally what is coming next and what to expect.   Then you carry out each maneuver of the examination.  You let her know at the outset that if she needs a break or wants to stop, this is possible.  You ask several times during the examination, “How are you doing, Brittney?”  What are you accomplishing with these techniques?

    A)

    Increasing the patient’s sense of control

    B)

    Increasing the patient’s trust in you as a caregiver

    C)

    Decreasing her sense of vulnerability

    D)

    All of the above

     

     

    15.

    A 15-year-old high school sophomore and her mother come to your clinic because the mother is concerned about her daughter’s weight. You measure her daughter’s height and weight and obtain a BMI of 19.5 kg/m
    2
    . Based on this information, which of the following is appropriate?

    A)

    Refer the patient to a nutritionist and a psychologist because the patient is anorexic.

    B)

    Reassure the mother that this is a normal body weight.

    C)

    Give the patient information about exercise because the patient is obese.

    D)

    Give the patient information concerning reduction of fat and cholesterol in her diet because she is obese.

     

     

    16.

    A 25-year-old radio announcer comes to the clinic for an annual examination. His BMI is 26.0 kg/m
    2
    . He is concerned about his weight. Based on this information, what is appropriate counsel for the patient during the visit?

    A)

    Refer the patient to a nutritionist because he is anorexic.

    B)

    Reassure the patient that he has a normal body weight.

    C)

    Give the patient information about reduction of fat, cholesterol, and calories because he is overweight.

    D)

    Give the patient information about reduction of fat and cholesterol because he is obese.

     

     

    17.

    Common or concerning symptoms to inquire about in the General Survey and vital signs include all of the following except:

    A)

    Changes in weight

    B)

    Fatigue and weakness

    C)

    Cough

    D)

    Fever and chills

     

     

    18.

    You are beginning the examination of a patient. All of the following areas are important to observe as part of the General Survey except:

    A)

    Level of consciousness

    B)

    Signs of distress

    C)

    Dress, grooming, and personal hygiene

    D)

    Blood pressure

     

     

    19.

    Mrs. Lenzo weighs herself every day with a very accurate balance-type scale.  She has noticed that over the past 2 days she has gained 4 pounds.  How would you best explain this?

    A)

    Attribute this to some overeating at the holidays.

    B)

    Attribute this to wearing different clothing.

    C)

    Attribute this to body fluid.

    D)

    Attribute this to instrument inaccuracy.

     

     

    20.

    You are seeing an older patient who has not had medical care for many years.  Her vital signs taken by your office staff are: T 37.2, HR 78, BP 118/92, and RR 14, and she denies pain.  You notice that she has some hypertensive changes in her retinas and you find mild proteinuria on a urine test in your office.  You expected the BP to be higher.  She is not on any medications.  What do you think is causing this BP reading, which doesn’t correlate with the other findings?

    A)

    It is caused by an “auscultatory gap.”

    B)

    It is caused by a cuff size error.

    C)

    It is caused by the patient’s emotional state.

    D)

    It is caused by resolution of the process which caused her retinopathy and kidney problems.

     

     

    21.

    Mr. Garcia comes to your office for a rash on his chest associated with a burning pain.  Even a light touch causes this burning sensation to worsen.  On examination, you note a rash with small blisters (vesicles) on a background of reddened skin.  The rash overlies an entire rib on his right side.  What type of pain is this?

    A)

    Idiopathic pain

    B)

    Neuropathic pain

    C)

    Nociceptive or somatic pain

    D)

    Psychogenic pain

     

     

    22.

    A 50-year-old body builder is upset by a letter of denial from his life insurance company.  He is very lean but has gained 2 pounds over the past 6 months.  You personally performed his health assessment and found no problems whatsoever.  He says he is classified as “high risk” because of obesity.  What should you do next?

    A)

    Explain that even small amounts of weight gain can classify you as obese.

    B)

    Place him on a high-protein, low-fat diet.

    C)

    Advise him to increase his aerobic exercise for calorie burning.

    D)

    Measure his waist.

     

     

    23.

    A 32-year-old white female comes to your clinic, complaining of overwhelming sadness. She says for the past 2 months she has had crying episodes, difficulty sleeping, and problems with overeating. She says she used to go out with her friends from work but now she just wants to go home and be by herself. She also thinks that her work productivity has been dropping because she just is too tired to care or concentrate. She denies any feelings of guilt or any suicidal ideation. She states that she has never felt this way in the past. She denies any recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history consists of an appendectomy when she was a teenager; otherwise, she has been healthy. She is single and works as a clerk in a medical office. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father has had a history of mental illness. On examination you see a woman appearing her stated age who seems quite sad. Her facial expression does not change while you talk to her and she makes little eye contact. She speaks so softly you cannot always understand her. Her thought processes and content seem unremarkable.

    What type of mood disorder do you think she has?

    A)

    Dysthymic disorder

    B)

    Manic (bipolar) disorder

    C)

    Major depressive episode

     

     

    24.

    A 23-year-old ticket agent is brought in by her husband because he is concerned about her recent behavior. He states that for the last 2 weeks she has been completely out of control. He says that she hasn’t showered in days, stays awake most of the night cleaning their apartment, and has run up over $1,000 on their credit cards. While he is talking, the patient interrupts him frequently and declares this is all untrue and she has never been so happy and fulfilled in her whole life. She speaks very quickly, changing the subject often. After a longer than normal interview you find out she has had no recent illnesses or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Both her parents are healthy but the husband has heard rumors about an aunt with similar symptoms. She and her husband have no children. She smokes one pack of cigarettes a day (although she has been chain-smoking in the last 2 weeks), drinks four to six drinks a week, and smokes marijuana occasionally. On examination she is very loud and outspoken. Her physical examination is unremarkable.

    Which mood disorder does she most likely have?

    A)

    Major depressive episode

    B)

    Manic episode

    C)

    Dysthymic disorder

     

     

    25.

    Adam is a very successful 15-year-old student and athlete.  His mother brings him in today because he no longer studies, works out, or sees his friends.  This has gone on for a month and a half.  When you speak with him alone in the room, he states it “would be better if he were not here.”  What would you do next?

    A)

    Tell him that he has a very promising career in anything he chooses and soon he will feel better.

    B)

    Tell him that he needs an antidepressant and it will take about 4 weeks to work.

    C)

    Speak with his mother about getting him together more with his friends.

    D)

    Assess his suicide risk.

     

     

    26.

    You are speaking to an 8th grade class about health prevention and are preparing to discuss the ABCDEs of melanoma. Which of the following descriptions correctly defines the ABCDEs?

    A)

    A = actinic; B = basal cell; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

    B)

    A = asymmetry; B = irregular borders; C = color changes, especially blue; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

    C)

    A = actinic; B = irregular borders; C = keratoses; D = dystrophic nails; E = evolution

    D)

    A = asymmetry; B = regular borders; C = color changes, especially orange; D = diameter >6 mm; E = evolution

     

     

    27.

    You are beginning the examination of the skin on a 25-year-old teacher. You have previously elicited that she came to the office for evaluation of fatigue, weight gain, and hair loss. You strongly suspect that she has hypothyroidism. What is the expected moisture and texture of the skin of a patient with hypothyroidism?

    A)

    Moist and smooth

    B)

    Moist and rough

    C)

    Dry and smooth

    D)

    Dry and rough

     

     

    28.

    A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced.  She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age.  On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe.  Her sclerae are white.  To which area should your next questions be related?

    A)

    Diet

    B)

    Family history of liver diseases

    C)

    Family history of blood diseases

    D)

    Ethnicity of the child

     

     

    29.

    You are examining an unconscious patient from another region and notice Beau’s lines, a transverse groove across all of her nails, about 1 cm from the proximal nail fold.  What would you do next?

    A)

    Conclude this is caused by a cultural practice.

    B)

    Conclude this finding is most likely secondary to trauma.

    C)

    Look for information from family and records regarding any problems which occurred 3 months ago.

    D)

    Ask about dietary intake.

     

     

    30.

    Jacob, a 33-year-old construction worker, complains of a “lump on his back” over his scapula.  It has been there for about a year and is getting larger.  He says his wife has been able to squeeze out a cheesy-textured substance on occasion.  He worries this may be cancer.  When gently pinched from the side, a prominent dimple forms in the middle of the mass. What is most likely?

    A)

    An enlarged lymph node

    B)

    A sebaceous cyst

    C)

    An actinic keratosis

    D)

    A malignant lesion

     

     

    31.

    A young man comes to you with an extremely pruritic rash over his knees and elbows which has come and gone for several years.  It seems to be worse in the winter and improves with some sun exposure.  On examination, you notice scabbing and crusting with some silvery scale, and you are observant enough to notice small “pits” in his nails.  What would account for these findings?

    A)

    Eczema

    B)

    Pityriasis rosea

    C)

    Psoriasis

    D)

    Tinea infection

     

     

    32.

    Mrs. Anderson presents with an itchy rash which is raised and appears and disappears  in various locations.  Each lesion lasts for many minutes.  What most likely accounts for this rash?

    A)

    Insect bites

    B)

    Urticaria, or hives

    C)

    Psoriasis

    D)

    Purpura

     

     

    33.

    Ms. Whiting is a 68 year old who comes in for her usual follow-up visit. You notice a few flat red and purple lesions, about 6 centimeters in diameter, on the ulnar aspect of her forearms but nowhere else.  She doesn’t mention them. They are tender when you examine them.  What should you do?

    A)

    Conclude that these are lesions she has had for a long time.

    B)

    Wait for her to mention them before asking further questions.

    C)

    Ask how she acquired them.

    D)

    Conduct the visit as usual for the patient.

     

     

    34.

    Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?

    A)

    Scotomas

    B)

    Tinnitus

    C)

    Dysphagia

    D)

    Rhinorrhea

     

     

    35.

    A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    A)

    Ptosis

    B)

    Exophthalmos

    C)

    Ectropion

    D)

    Epicanthus

     

     

    36.

    A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. He denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    A)

    Dacryocystitis

    B)

    Chalazion

    C)

    Hordeolum

    D)

    Xanthelasma

     

     

    37.

    A 15-year-old high school sophomore presents to the emergency room with his mother for evaluation of an area of blood in the left eye. He denies trauma or injury but has been coughing forcefully with a recent cold. He denies visual disturbances, eye pain, or discharge from the eye. On physical examination, the pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light, with a visual acuity of 20/20 in each eye and 20/20 bilaterally. There is a homogeneous, sharply demarcated area at the lateral aspect of the base of the left eye. The cornea is clear. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

    A)

    Conjunctivitis

    B)

    Acute iritis

    C)

    Corneal abrasion

    D)

    Subconjunctival hemorrhage

     

     

    38.

    A sudden, painless unilateral vision loss may be caused by which of the following?

    A)

    Retinal detachment

    B)

    Corneal ulcer

    C)

    Acute glaucoma

    D)

    Uveitis

     

     

    39.

    Sudden, painful unilateral loss of vision may be caused by which of the following conditions?

    A)

    Vitreous hemorrhage

    B)

    Central retinal artery occlusion

    C)

    Macular degeneration

    D)

    Optic neuritis

     

     

    40.

    A light is pointed at a patient’s pupil, which contracts.  It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light.  Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon?

    A)

    Direct reaction

    B)

    Consensual reaction

    C)

    Near reaction

    D)

    Accommodation

     

     

    41.

    A patient is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye.  Which of the following is true?

    A)

    She obtains a 20% correct score at 100 feet.

    B)

    She can accurately name 20% of the letters at 20 feet.

    C)

    She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet.

    D)

    She can see at 100 feet what a normal person could see at 20 feet.

     

     

    42.

    A patient presents with ear pain.  She is an avid swimmer.  The history includes pain and drainage from the left ear. On examination, she has pain when the ear is manipulated, including manipulation of the tragus.  The canal is narrowed and erythematous, with some white debris in the canal.  The rest of the examination is normal.  What diagnosis would you assign this patient?

    A)

    Otitis media

    B)

    External otitis

    C)

    Perforation of the tympanum

    D)

    Cholesteatoma

     

     

    43.

    A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers.  The abnormal results are as follows:  bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left.  Which of the following is most likely?

    A)

    Otosclerosis of the left ear

    B)

    Exposure to chronic loud noise of the right ear

    C)

    Otitis media of the right ear

    D)

    Perforation of the right eardrum

     

     

    44.

    A college student presents with a sore throat, fever, and fatigue for several days.  You notice exudates on her enlarged tonsils.  You do a careful lymphatic examination and notice some scattered small, mobile lymph nodes just behind her sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally.  What group of nodes is this?

    A)

    Submandibular

    B)

    Tonsillar

    C)

    Occipital

    D)

    Posterior cervical

     

     

    45.

    A 21-year-old college senior presents to your clinic, complaining of shortness of breath and a nonproductive nocturnal cough. She states she used to feel this way only with extreme exercise, but lately she has felt this way continuously. She denies any other upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, gastrointestinal symptoms, or urinary tract symptoms. Her past medical history is significant only for seasonal allergies, for which she takes a nasal steroid spray but is otherwise on no other medications. She has had no surgeries. Her mother has allergies and eczema and her father has high blood pressure. She is an only child. She denies smoking and illegal drug use but drinks three to four alcoholic beverages per weekend. She is a junior in finance at a local university and she has recently started a job as a bartender in town. On examination she is in no acute distress and her temperature is 98.6. Her blood pressure is 120/80, her pulse is 80, and her respirations are 20. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are essentially normal. Inspection of her anterior and posterior chest shows no abnormalities. On auscultation of her chest, there is decreased air movement and a high-pitched whistling on expiration in all lobes. Percussion reveals resonant lungs.

    Which disorder of the thorax or lung does this best describe?

    A)

    Spontaneous pneumothorax

    B)

    Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

    C)

    Asthma

    D)

    Pneumonia

     

     

    46.

    A 62-year-old construction worker presents to your clinic, complaining of almost a year of chronic cough and occasional shortness of breath. Although he has had worsening of symptoms occasionally with a cold, his symptoms have stayed about the same. The cough has occasional mucous drainage but never any blood. He denies any chest pain. He has had no weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is significant for high blood pressure and arthritis. He has smoked two packs a day for the past 45 years. He drinks occasionally but denies any illegal drug use. He is married and has two children. He denies any foreign travel. His father died of a heart attack and his mother died of Alzheimer’s disease. On examination you see a man looking slightly older than his stated age. His blood pressure is 130/80 and his pulse is 88. He is breathing comfortably with respirations of 12. His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His cardiac examination is normal. On examination of his chest, the diameter seems enlarged. Breath sounds are decreased throughout all lobes. Rhonchi are heard over all lung fields. There is no area of dullness and no increased or decreased fremitus.

    What thorax or lung disorder is most likely causing his symptoms?

    A)

    Spontaneous pneumothorax

    B)

    Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

    C)

    Asthma

    D)

    Pneumonia

     

     

    47.

    A 68-year-old retired postman presents to your clinic, complaining of dull, intermittent left-sided chest pain over the last few weeks. The pain occurs after he mows his lawn or chops wood. He says that the pain radiates to the left side of his jaw but nowhere else. He has felt light-headed and nauseated with the pain but has had no other symptoms. He states when he sits down for several minutes the pain goes away. Ibuprofen, Tylenol, and antacids have not improved his symptoms. He reports no recent weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. He has a past medical history of high blood pressure and arthritis. He quit smoking 10 years ago after smoking one pack a day for 40 years. He denies any recent alcohol use and reports no drug use. He is married and has two healthy children. His mother died of breast cancer and his father died of a stroke. His younger brother has had bypass surgery. On examination you find him healthy-appearing and breathing comfortably. His blood pressure is 140/90 and he has a pulse of 80. His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S
    1
    and S
    2
    and no S
    3
    or S
    4
    . Further workup is pending.

    Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms?

    A)

    Angina pectoris

    B)

    Pericarditis

    C)

    Dissecting aortic aneurysm

    D)

    Pleural pain

     

     

    48.

    A 36-year-old teacher presents to your clinic, complaining of sharp, knifelike pain on the left side of her chest for the last 2 days. Breathing and lying down make the pain worse, while sitting forward helps her pain. Tylenol and ibuprofen have not helped. Her pain does not radiate to any other area. She denies any upper respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms. Her past medical history consists of systemic lupus. She is divorced and has one child. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has hypothyroidism and her father has high blood pressure. On examination you find her to be distressed, leaning over and holding her left arm and hand to her left chest. Her blood pressure is 130/70, her respirations are 12, and her pulse is 90. On auscultation her lung fields have normal breath sounds with no rhonchi, wheezes, or crackles. Percussion and palpation are unremarkable. Auscultation of the heart has an S
    1
    and S
    2
    with no S
    3
    or S
    4
    . A scratching noise is heard at the lower left sternal border, coincident with systole; leaning forward relieves some of her pain. She is nontender with palpation of the chest wall.

    What disorder of the chest best describes this disorder?

    A)

    Angina pectoris

    B)

    Pericarditis

    C)

    Dissecting aortic aneurysm

    D)

    Pleural pain

     

     

    49.

    A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson to you for evaluation. She noticed last week when he took off his shirt that his breastbone seemed collapsed. He seems embarrassed and tells you that it has been that way for quite awhile. He states he has no symptoms from it and he just tries not to take off his shirt in front of anyone. He denies any shortness of breath, chest pain, or lightheadedness on exertion. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is in sixth grade and just moved in with his grandmother after his father was deployed to the Middle East. His mother died several years ago in a car accident. He states that he does not smoke and has never touched alcohol. On examination you see a teenage boy appearing his stated age. On visual examination of his chest you see that the lower portion of the sternum is depressed. Auscultation of the lungs and heart are unremarkable.

    What disorder of the thorax best describes your findings?

    A)

    Barrel chest

    B)

    Funnel chest (pectus excavatum)

    C)

    Pigeon chest (pectus carinatum)

    D)

    Thoracic kyphoscoliosis

     

     

    50.

    A 55–year-old smoker complains of chest pain and gestures with a closed fist over her sternum to describe it.  Which of the following diagnoses should you consider because of her gesture?

    A)

    Bronchitis

    B)

    Costochondritis

    C)

    Pericarditis

    D)

    Angina pectoris

     

     

    51.

    Which of the following percussion notes would you obtain over the gastric bubble?

    A)

    Resonance

    B)

    Tympany

    C)

    Hyperresonance

    D)

    Flatness

     

     

    52.

    Which lung sound possesses the characteristics of being louder and higher in pitch, with a short silence between inspiration and expiration and with expiration being longer than inspiration?

    A)

    Bronchovesicular

    B)

    Vesicular

    C)

    Bronchial

    D)

    Tracheal

     

     

    53.

    When crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi clear with a cough, which of the following is a likely etiology?

    A)

    Bronchitis

    B)

    Simple asthma

    C)

    Cystic fibrosis

    D)

    Heart failure

     

     

    54.

    What is responsible for the inspiratory splitting of S
    2
    ?

    A)

    Closure of aortic, then pulmonic valves

    B)

    Closure of mitral, then tricuspid valves

    C)

    Closure of aortic, then tricuspid valves

    D)

    Closure of mitral, then pulmonic valves

     

     

    55.

    A 25-year-old optical technician comes to your clinic for evaluation of fatigue. As part of your physical examination, you listen to her heart and hear a murmur only at the cardiac apex. Which valve is most likely to be involved, based on the location of the murmur?

    A)

    Mitral

    B)

    Tricuspid

    C)

    Aortic

    D)

    Pulmonic

     

     

    56.

    You are screening people at the mall as part of a health fair. The first person who comes for screening has a blood pressure of 132/85. How would you categorize this?

    A)

    Normal

    B)

    Prehypertension

    C)

    Stage 1 hypertension

    D)

    Stage 2 hypertension

     

     

    57.

    You are conducting a workshop on the measurement of jugular venous pulsation. As part of your instruction, you tell the students to make sure that they can distinguish between the jugular venous pulsation and the carotid pulse. Which one of the following characteristics is typical of the carotid pulse?

    A)

    Palpable

    B)

    Soft, rapid, undulating quality

    C)

    Pulsation eliminated by light pressure on the vessel

    D)

    Level of pulsation changes with changes in position

     

     

    58.

    You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?

    A)

    Hypothyroidism

    B)

    Aortic stenosis, with pressure overload of the left ventricle

    C)

    Mitral stenosis, with volume overload of the left atrium

    D)

    Cardiomyopathy

     

     

    59.

    You are performing a cardiac examination on a patient with shortness of breath and palpitations. You listen to the heart with the patient sitting upright, then have him change to a supine position, and finally have him turn onto his left side in the left lateral decubitus position. Which of the following valvular defects is best heard in this position?

    A)

    Aortic

    B)

    Pulmonic

    C)

    Mitral

    D)

    Tricuspid

    NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

     

     

    60.

    You are concerned that a patient has an aortic regurgitation murmur. Which is the best position to accentuate the murmur?

    A)

    Upright

    B)

    Upright, but leaning forward

    C)

    Supine

    D)

    Left lateral decubitus

     

     

    61.

    Which of the following events occurs at the start of diastole?

    A)

    Closure of the tricuspid valve

    B)

    Opening of the pulmonic valve

    C)

    Closure of the aortic valve

    D)

    Production of the first heart sound (S
    1
    )

     

     

    62.

    Which is true of splitting of the second heart sound?

    A)

    It is best heard over the pulmonic area with the bell of the stethoscope.

    B)

    It normally increases with exhalation.

    C)

    It is best heard over the apex.

    D)

    It does not vary with respiration.

     

     

    63.

    Which of the following is true of jugular venous pressure (JVP) measurement?

    A)

    It is measured with the patient at a 45-degree angle.

    B)

    The vertical height of the blood column in centimeters, plus 5 cm, is the JVP.

    C)

    A JVP below 9 cm is abnormal.

    D)

    It is measured above the sternal notch.

     

     

    64.

    How much does cardiovascular risk increase for each increment of 20 mm Hg systolic and 10 mm Hg diastolic in blood pressure?

    A)

    25%

    B)

    50%

    C)

    75%

    D)

    100%

     

     

    65.

    In measuring the jugular venous pressure (JVP), which of the following is important?

    A)

    Keep the patient’s torso at a 45-degree angle.

    B)

    Measure the highest visible pressure, usually at end expiration.

    C)

    Add the vertical height over the sternal notch to a 5-cm constant.

    D)

    Realize that a total value of over 12 cm is abnormal.

     

     

    66.

    How should you determine whether a murmur is systolic or diastolic?

    A)

    Palpate the carotid pulse.

    B)

    Palpate the radial pulse.

    C)

    Judge the relative length of systole and diastole by auscultation.

    D)

    Correlate the murmur with a bedside heart monitor.

     

     

    67.

    Which of the following correlates with a sustained, high-amplitude PMI?

    A)

    Hyperthyroidism

    B)

    Anemia

    C)

    Fever

    D)

    Hypertension

     

     

    68.

    You are listening carefully for S
    2
    splitting.  Which of the following will help?

    A)

    Using the diaphragm with light pressure over the 2nd right intercostal space

    B)

    Using the bell with light pressure over the 2nd left intercostal space

    C)

    Using the diaphragm with firm pressure over the apex

    D)

    Using the bell with firm pressure over the lower left sternal border

     

     

    69.

    Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity  NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guidemurmur?

    A)

    It is moderately loud. NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

    B)

    It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest.

    C)

    It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest.

    D)

    It is associated with a “thrill.”

     

     

    70.

    A 44-year-old female comes to your clinic, complaining of severe dry skin in the area over her right nipple. She denies any trauma to the area. She noticed the skin change during a self-examination 2 months ago. She also admits that she had felt a lump under the nipple but kept putting off making an appointment. She does admit to 6 months of fatigue but no weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism. She does not have a history of eczema or allergies. She denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. On examination you find a middle-aged woman appearing her stated age. Inspection of her right breast reveals a scaly eczema-like crust around her nipple. Underneath you palpate a nontender 2-cm mass. The axilla contains only soft, moveable nodes. The left breast and axilla examination findings are unremarkable.

    What visible skin change of the breast does she have?

    A)

    Nipple retraction

    B)

    Paget’s disease

    C)

    Peau d’orange sign

     

     

    71.

    A 56-year-old female comes to your clinic, complaining of her left breast looking unusual. She says that for 2 months the angle of the nipple has changed direction. She does not do self-examinations, so she doesn’t know if she has a lump. She has no history of weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history is significant for high blood pressure. She smokes two packs of cigarettes a day and has three to four drinks per weekend night. Her paternal aunt died of breast cancer in her forties. Her mother is healthy but her father died of prostate cancer. On examination you find a middle-aged woman appearing older than her stated age. Inspection of her left breast reveals a flattened nipple deviating toward the lateral side. On palpation the nipple feels thickened. Lateral to the areola you palpate a nontender 4-cm mass. The axilla contains several fixed nodes. The right breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable.

    What visible skin change of the breast does she have?

    A)

    Nipple retraction

    B)

    Paget’s disease

    C)

    Peau d’orange sign

     

     

    72.

    A 23-year-old computer programmer comes to your office for an annual examination. She has recently become sexually active and wants to be placed on birth control. Her only complaint is that the skin in her armpits has become darker. She states it looks like dirt, and she scrubs her skin nightly with soap and water but the color stays. Her past medical symptoms consist of acne and mild obesity. Her periods have been irregular for 3 years. Her mother has type 2 diabetes and her father has high blood pressure. The patient denies using tobacco but has four to five drinks on Friday and Saturday nights. She denies any illegal drug use. On examination you see a mildly obese female who is breathing comfortably. Her vital signs are unremarkable. Looking under her axilla, you see dark, velvet-like skin. Her annual examination is otherwise unremarkable.

    What disorder of the breast or axilla is she most likely to have?

    A)

    Peau d’orange

    B)

    Acanthosis nigricans

    C)

    Hidradenitis suppurativa

     

     

    73.

    A 40-year-old mother of two presents to your office for consultation. She is interested in knowing what her relative risks are for developing breast cancer. She is concerned because her sister had unilateral breast cancer 6 years ago at age 38. The patient reports on her history that she began having periods at age 11 and has been fairly regular ever since, except during her two pregnancies. Her first child arrived when she was 26 and her second at age 28. Otherwise she has had no health problems. Her father has high blood pressure. Her mother had unilateral breast cancer in her 70s. The patient denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. She is a family law attorney and is married. Her examination is essentially unremarkable.

    Which risk factor of her personal and family history most puts her in danger of getting breast cancer?

    A)

    First-degree relative with premenopausal breast cancer

    B)

    Age at menarche of less than 12

    C)

    First live birth between the ages of 25 and 29

    D)

    First-degree relative with postmenopausal breast cancer

     

     

    74.

    How often, according to American Cancer Society recommendations, should a woman undergo a screening breast examination by a skilled clinician?

    A)

    Every year

    B)

    Every 2 years

    C)

    Every 3 years

    D)

    Every 4 years

     

     

    75.

    Which of the following is most likely benign on breast examination?

    A)

    Dimpling of the skin resembling that of an orange

    B)

    One breast larger than the other

    C)

    One nipple inverted

    D)

    One breast with dimple when the patient leans forward

     

     

    76.

    A 77-year-old retired bus driver comes to your clinic for a physical examination at his wife’s request. He has recently been losing weight and has felt very fatigued. He has had no chest pain, shortness of breath, nausea, vomiting, or fever. His past medical history includes colon cancer, for which he had surgery, and arthritis. He has been married for over 40 years. He denies any tobacco or drug use and has not drunk alcohol in over 40 years. His parents both died of cancer in their 60s. On examination his vital signs are normal. His head, cardiac, and pulmonary examinations are unremarkable. On abdominal examination you hear normal bowel sounds, but when you palpate his liver it is abnormal. His rectal examination is positive for occult blood. NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

    What further abnormality of the liver was likely found on examination?

    A)

    Smooth, large, nontender liver

    B)

    Irregular, large liver

    C)

    Smooth, large, tender liver

     

     

    77.

    A 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. It began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. It hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. She has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. She has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. She denies any other recent illness or injuries. Her past medical history is unremarkable. She denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. On examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. She is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. Her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. Her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells.

    What type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?

    A)

    Kidney pain (from pyelonephritis)

    B)

    Ureteral pain (from a kidney stone)

    C)

    Musculoskeletal pain

    D)

    Ischemic bowel pain

     

     

    78.

    Chris is a 20-year-old college student who has had abdominal pain for 3 days. It started at his umbilicus and was associated with nausea and vomiting. He was unable to find a comfortable position. Yesterday, the pain became more severe and constant. Now, he hesitates to walk, because any motion makes the pain much worse. It is localized just medial and inferior to his iliac crest on the right. Which of the following is most likely?

    A)

    Peptic ulcer

    B)

    Cholecystitis

    C)

    Pancreatitis

    D)

    Appendicitis

     

     

    79.

    Which is the proper sequence of examination for the abdomen?

    A)

    Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

    B)

    Inspection, percussion, palpation, auscultation

    C)

    Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

    D)

    Auscultation, percussion, inspection, palpation

     

     

    80.

    Mr. Patel is a 64-year-old man who was told by another care provider that his liver is enlarged. Although he is a life-long smoker, he has never used drugs or alcohol and has no knowledge of liver disease. Indeed, on examination, a liver edge is palpable 4 centimeters below the costal arch. Which of the following would you do next?

    A)

    Check an ultrasound of the liver

    B)

    Obtain a hepatitis panel

    C)

    Determine liver span by percussion

    D)

    Adopt a “watchful waiting” approach

     

     

    81.

    Cody is a teenager with a history of leukemia and an enlarged spleen. Today he presents with fairly significant left upper quadrant pain. On examination of this area a rough grating noise is heard. What is this sound?

    A)

    It is a splenic rub.

    B)

    It is a variant of bowel noise.

    C)

    It represents borborygmi.

    D)

    It is a vascular noise.

     

     

    82.

    You are palpating the abdomen and feel a small mass. Which of the following would you do next?

    A)

    Ultrasound

    B)

    Examination with the abdominal muscles tensed

    C)

    Surgery referral

    D)

    Determine size by percussion

     

     

    83.

    Mr. Maxwell has noticed that he is gaining weight and has increasing girth. Which of the following would argue for the presence of ascites?

    A)

    Bilateral flank tympany

    B)

    Dullness which remains despite change in position

    C)

    Dullness centrally when the patient is supine

    D)

    Tympany which changes location with patient position

     

     

    84.

    Which of the following is consistent with obturator sign?

    A)

    Pain distant from the site used to check rebound tenderness

    B)

    Right hypogastric pain with the right hip and knee flexed and the hip internally rotated

    C)

    Pain with extension of the right thigh while the patient is on her left side or while pressing her knee against your hand with thigh flexion

    D)

    Pain that stops inhalation in the right upper quadrant

     

     

    85.

    A 57-year-old maintenance worker comes to your office for evaluation of pain in his legs. He has smoked two packs per day since the age of 16, but he is otherwise healthy. You are concerned that he may have peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following is part of common or concerning symptoms for the peripheral vascular system?

    A)

    Intermittent claudication

    B)

    Chest pressure with exertion

    C)

    Shortness of breath

    D)

    Knee pain

     

     

    86.

    You are a student in the vascular surgery clinic. You are asked to perform a physical examination on a patient with known peripheral vascular disease in the legs. Which of the following aspects is important to note when you perform your examination?

    A)

    Size, symmetry, and skin color

    B)

    Muscle bulk and tone

    C)

    Nodules in joints

    D)

    Lower extremity strength

     

     

    87.

    You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 3?

    A)

    0

    B)

    3+

    C)

    2+

    D)

    1+

     

     

    88.

    A 77-year-old retired nurse has an ulcer on a lower extremity that you are asked to evaluate when you do your weekly rounds at a local long-term care facility. All of the following are responsible for causing ulcers in the lower extremities except for which condition?

    A)

    Arterial insufficiency

    B)

    Venous insufficiency

    C)

    Diminished sensation in pressure points

    D)

    Hypertension

     

     

    89.

    Asymmetric BPs are seen in which of the following conditions?

    A)

    Coronary artery disease

    B)

    Congenital narrowing of the aorta

    C)

    Diffuse atherosclerosis

    D)

    Vasculitis, as seen in systemic lupus erythematosus

     

     

    90.

    When assessing temperature of the skin, which portion of your hand should be used?

    A)

    Fingertips

    B)

    Palms

    C)

    Backs of fingers

    D)

    Ulnar aspect of the hand

     

     

    91.

    A patient presents with claudication symptoms and diminished pulses.  Which of the following is consistent with chronic arterial insufficiency?

    A)

    Pallor of the foot when raised to 60 degrees for one minute

    B)

    Return of color to the skin within 5 seconds of allowing legs to dangle

    C)

    Filling of the veins of the ankles within 10 seconds of allowing the legs to dangle

    D)

    Hyperpigmentation of the skin

     

     

    92.

    A 32-year-old white male comes to your clinic, complaining of aching on the right side of his testicle. He has felt this aching for several months. He states that as the day progresses the aching increases, but when he wakes up in the morning he is pain-free. He denies any pain with urination and states that the pain doesn’t change with sexual activity. He denies any fatigue, weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. His past medical history is unremarkable. He is a married hospital administrator with two children. He notes that he and his wife have been trying to have another baby this year but have so far been unsuccessful despite frequent intercourse. He denies using tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. His father has high blood pressure but his mother is healthy. On examination you see a young man appearing his stated age with unremarkable vital signs. On visualization of his penis, he is circumcised with no lesions. He has no scars along his inguinal area, and palpation of the area shows no lymphadenopathy. On palpation of his scrotum you feel testes with no discrete masses. Upon placing your finger through the right inguinal ring you feel what seems like a bunch of spaghetti. Asking him to bear down, you feel no bulges. The left inguinal ring is unremarkable, with no bulges on bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable.

    What abnormality of the scrotum does he most likely have?

    A)

    Hydrocele

    B)

    Scrotal hernia

    C)

    Scrotal edema

    D)

    Varicocele

     

     

    93.

    A 15-year-old high school football player is brought to your office by his mother. He is complaining of severe testicular pain since exactly 8:00 this morning. He denies any sexual activity and states that he hurts so bad he can’t even urinate. He is nauseated and is throwing up. He denies any recent illness or fever. His past medical history is unremarkable. He denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. His parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young teenager lying on the bed with an emesis basin. He is very uncomfortable and keeps shifting his position. His blood pressure is 150/100, his pulse is 110, and his respirations are 24. On visualization of the penis he is circumcised and there are no lesions and no discharge from the meatus. His scrotal skin is tense and red. Palpation of the left testicle causes severe pain and the patient begins to cry. His prostate examination is unremarkable. His cremasteric reflex is absent on the left but is normal on the right.  By catheter you get a urine sample and the analysis is unremarkable. You send the boy with his mother to the emergency room for further workup.

    What is the most likely diagnosis for this young man’s symptoms?

    A)

    Acute orchitis

    B)

    Acute epididymitis

    C)

    Torsion of the spermatic cord

    D)

    Prostatitis

     

     

    94.

    Which of the following conditions involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be returned?

    A)

    Phimosis

    B)

    Paraphimosis

    C)

    Balanitis

    D)

    Balanoposthitis

     

     

    95.

    You are examining a newborn and note that the right testicle is not in the scrotum.  What should you do next?

    A)

    Refer to urology

    B)

    Recheck in 6 months

    C)

    Tell the parent the testicle is absent but that this should not affect fertility

    D)

    Attempt to bring down the testis from the inguinal canal

     

     

    96.

    Frank is a 24-year-old man who presents with multiple burning erosions on the shaft of his penis and some tender inguinal adenopathy.  Which of the following is most likely?

    A)

    Primary syphilis

    B)

    Herpes simplex

    C)

    Chancroid

    D)

    Gonorrhea

     

     

    97.

    A 30-year-old paralegal analyst comes to your clinic, complaining of a bad-smelling vaginal discharge with some mild itching, present for about 3 weeks. She tried douching but it did not help. She has had no pain with urination or with sexual intercourse. She has noticed the smell increased after intercourse and during her period last week. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of one spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is married and has one child. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died from a heart disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. On examination of the perineum there are no lesions noted. On palpation of the inguinal nodes there is no lymphadenopathy. On speculum examination a thin gray-white discharge is seen in the vault. The pH of the discharge is over 4.5 and there is a fishy odor when potassium hydroxide (KOH) is applied to the vaginal secretions on the slide. Wet prep shows epithelial cells with stippled borders (clue cells).

    What type of vaginitis best describes her findings?

    A)

    Trichomonas vaginitis

    B)

    Candida vaginitis

    C)

    Bacterial vaginosis

    D)

    Atrophic vaginitis

     

     

    98.

    A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1 week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently sexually active and has had no burning with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing woman. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 4.1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae.

    What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?

    A)

    Trichomonas vaginitis

    B)

    Candida vaginitis

    C)

    Bacterial vaginosis

    D)

    Atrophic vaginitis

     

     

    99.

    A 55-year-old married homemaker comes to your clinic, complaining of 6 months of vaginal itching and discomfort with intercourse. She has not had a discharge and has had no pain with urination. She has not had a period in over 2 years. She has no other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of removal of her gallbladder. She denies use of tobacco, alcohol, and illegal drugs. Her mother has breast cancer and her father has coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, and Alzheimer’s disease. On examination she appears healthy and has unremarkable vital signs. There is no lymphadenopathy with palpation of the inguinal nodes. Visualization of the vulva shows dry skin but no lesions or masses. The labia are somewhat smaller than usual.  Speculum examination reveals scant discharge and the vaginal walls are red, dry, and bleed easily. Bimanual examination is unremarkable. The KOH whiff test produces no unusual odor and there are no clue cells on the wet prep.

    What form of vaginitis is this patient most likely to have?

    A)

    Trichomonas vaginitis

    B)

    Candida vaginitis

    C)

    Bacterial vaginosis

    D)

    Atrophic vaginitis

     

     

    100.

    A 28-year-old married clothing sales clerk comes to your clinic for her annual examination. She requests a refill on her birth control pills. Her only complaint is painless bleeding after intercourse. She denies any other symptoms. Her past medical history consists of two spontaneous vaginal deliveries. Her past six Pap smears have all been normal. She is married and has two children. Her mother is in good health and her father has high blood pressure. On examination you see a young woman appearing healthy and relaxed. Her vital signs are unremarkable and her head, eyes, ears, throat, neck, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. Visualization of the perineum shows no lesions or masses. Speculum examination shows a red mass at the os. On taking a Pap smear the mass bleeds easily. Bimanual examination shows no cervical motion tenderness and both ovaries are palpated and nontender.

    What is the most likely diagnosis for the abnormality of her cervix?

    A)

    Carcinoma of the cervix

    B)

    Mucopurulent cervicitis

    C)

    Cervical polyp

    D)

    Retention cyst

     

     

    101.

    A 23-year-old waitress comes to your clinic complaining of severe pelvic pain radiating to her right side. The pain began yesterday and is getting much worse. She has had no burning with urination and denies any recent sexual activity. She has no nausea, vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, fever, or vaginal discharge. Her last period was 3 to 4 weeks ago. Her past medical history consists of severe acne, depression, and mild obesity. She has had no surgeries. She broke up with her boyfriend 6 months ago and denies dating anyone else. She smokes one pack of cigarettes a day, drinks three to four beers two to three times a week, and denies any illegal drug use. Her mother is diabetic and her father has coronary artery disease. On examination you see a mildly obese female in moderate distress. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 90. She is afebrile. On auscultation she has active bowel sounds. She has no rebound or guarding in any abdominal quadrant. Speculum examination shows no lesions on the cervix and no discharge or bleeding from the os. During the bimanual examination she has no cervical motion tenderness, but her right adnexal area is swollen and tender. A urine analysis is normal and the urine pregnancy test is pending.

    What disorder of the adnexa is most likely the diagnosis?

    A)

    Ovarian cyst

    B)

    Tubal pregnancy

    C)

    Pelvic inflammatory disease

     

     

    102.

    Which of the following represents metrorrhagia?

    A)

    Fewer than 21 days between menses

    B)

    Excessive flow

    C)

    Infrequent bleeding

    D)

    Bleeding between periods

     

     

    103.

    Abby is a newly married woman who is unable to have intercourse because of vaginismus.  Which of the following is true?

    A)

    This is most likely due to lack of lubrication.

    B)

    This is most likely due to atrophic vaginitis.

    C)

    This is most likely due to pressure on an ovary.

    D)

    Psychosocial reasons may cause this condition.

     

     

    104.

    Which of the following is true of the HPV vaccine?

    A)

    Ideally it should be administered within 3 years of first intercourse.

    B)

    It covers against almost every HPV type.

    C)

    It can be used as adjuvant therapy in cervical cancer.

    D)

    It can protect against anogenital lesions.

     

     

    105.

    A 42-year-old house painter comes to your clinic, complaining of pain with defecation and profuse bleeding in the toilet after a bowel movement. He was in his usual state of health until 2 weeks ago, when he was injured in a car accident. After the accident he began taking prescription narcotics for the pain in his shoulder. Since then he has had very few bowel movements. His stool is hard and pebble-like. He states he has always been “regular” in the past, with easy bowel movements. His diet has not changed but he states that he is exercising less since the accident. His past medical history includes hypertension and he is on a low-dose diuretic. He has had no other chronic illnesses or surgeries. He has a family history of hypertension, coronary heart disease, and diabetes but no cancer. He is divorced and has three children. He smokes two packs of cigarettes per day and quit drinking more than 10 years ago. He has had no recent weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. On examination he appears muscular and healthy; he is afebrile. His blood pressure is 135/90 with a pulse of 80. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. He is wearing a sling on his left arm. On observation of his anus you find a swollen bluish ovoid mass that appears to contain a blood clot. Digital rectal examination is extremely painful for the patient. No other mass is palpated within the anus or rectum.

    What disorder of the anus is this patient likely to have?

    A)

    Anal fissure

    B)

    External hemorrhoid

    C)

    Anorectal cancer

    D)

    Internal hemorrhoid

     

     

    106.

    A 60-year-old coach comes to your clinic, complaining of difficulty starting to urinate for the last several months. He believes the problem is steadily getting worse. When asked he says he has a very weak stream and it feels like it takes 10 minutes to empty his bladder. He also has the urge to go to the bathroom more often than he used to. He denies any blood or sediment in his urine and any pain with urination. He has had no fever, weight gain, weight loss, or night sweats. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure treated with medications. He does not smoke but drinks a six pack of beer weekly. He has been married for 35 years. His mother died of a myocardial infarction in her 70s and his father is currently in his 80s with high blood pressure and arthritis. On examination you see a mildly obese male who is alert and cooperative. His blood pressure is 130/70 with a heart rate of 80. He is afebrile and his cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are normal. On visualization of the anus you see no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination reveals a smooth, enlarged prostate. No discrete masses are felt. There is no blood on the glove or on guaiac testing. An analysis of the urine shows no red blood cells, white blood cells, or bacteria.

    What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is this most likely to be?

    A)

    Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

    B)

    Prostatitis

    C)

    Prostate cancer

    D)

    Anorectal cancer

     

     

    107.

    A 45-year-old African-American minister comes to your clinic for a general physical examination. He has not been feeling very well for about 3 months, including night sweats and a chronic low-grade fever of 100 to 101 degrees. He denies any upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, nausea, constipation, diarrhea, blood in his stool, or urinary tract symptoms. He has had some lower back pain. He has a past history of difficult-to-control high blood pressure and high cholesterol. He has had no surgeries in the past. His mother has diabetes and high blood pressure. He knows very little about his father because his parents divorced when he was young. He knows his father died in his 50s, but he is unsure of the exact cause. The patient denies smoking, drinking, or drug use. He is married and has three children. On examination he appears his stated age and is generally fit. His temperature is 99.9 degrees and his blood pressure is 160/90. His head, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also normal. On visualization of the anus there is no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the otherwise normal posterior surface of the prostate. Examination of the scrotum and penis are normal. Laboratory results are pending.

    What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is mostly likely in this case?

    A)

    Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

    B)

    Prostatitis

    C)

    Prostate cancer

    D)

    Anorectal cancer

     

     

    108.

    Which is true of the pectinate or dentate line?

    A)

    It is a palpable landmark.

    B)

    It demarcates the areas supplied by the central nervous system from the peripheral nervous system.

    C)

    It is the border between the anal canal and the rectum.

    D)

    It is not visible on proctoscopic examination.

     

     

    109.

    Which is a sign of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

    A)

    Weight loss

    B)

    Bone pain

    C)

    Fever

    D)

    Nocturia

     

     

    110.

    Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the following?

    A)

    Lubrication

    B)

    Waiting for the sphincter to relax

    C)

    Explaining what the patient should expect with each step before it occurs

    D)

    All of the above

     

     

    111.

    An elderly woman with dementia is brought in by her daughter for a “rectal mass.”  On examination you notice a moist pink mass protruding from the anus, which is nontender.  It is soft and does not have any associated bleeding.  Which of the following is most likely?

    A)

    Rectal prolapse

    B)

    External hemorrhoid

    C)

    Perianal fistula

    D)

    Prolapsed internal hemorrhoid

     

     

    Based on the diagrams above, name one organ you might expect to palpate in each of the 7 anatomical areas noted.

    Epigastric______________________________

    Umbilical______________________________

    Suprapubic____________________________

    RUQ__________________________________

    LUQ__________________________________

    RLQ__________________________________

    LLQ___________________________________

     

    Based on the diagram above, name the cardiac structure you would be evaluating at each point, and where it is located.

     

    Cardiac Structure_______________________ at ________ICS

    Cardiac Structure_______________________ at ________ICS

    Cardiac Structure_______________________ at ________ICS

    Cardiac Structure_______________________ at ________ICS

    Cardiac Structure_______________________ at ________ICS

    NSG 6020 Midterm Exam Study Guide

  • NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment

    NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your HISTORY collection, describe two missed questions and your understanding of why they were important to collect for this case history. Use specific references from your text to explain.

    In taking the history I did not ask about previous surgeries.  I should have asked if the patient had a history of any surgeries including if they had a history of appendectomy, or cholecystectomy previously.  This might help to eliminate potential causes and differential diagnoses that would be moot.  Another thing I missed was whether the patient had had any recent travel out of the country.  While this question is not as important, different countries could bring some unusual differential diagnoses into consideration depending on the location of travel.  According to Bates, taking a complete history is important to consider all possible differential diagnoses (Bickley, 2017). NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment.

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    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your PHYSICAL EXAM collection, describe two errors in your exam performance or documentation. Use specific references from your text to explain the importance of these findings in correct assessment of this client.

    When assessing this client, I did not perform a urine analysis.  This would be needed to give a complete picture of how the renal system is working and rule out problems that may cause abdominal pain (Bickley, 2017).  I also did not palpate and perform the needed exams to rule out or confirm appendicitis as the text mentions.  There are several positions and muscle stretches that can be performed that may eliminate or highlight pain if peritoneal inflammation is present.  These pieces of the physical exam can and should be evaluated when appendicitis or cholecystitis is suspected (Bickley, 2017). NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment.

     

    Based on your performance on the PHYSICAL EXAM collection, describe one key finding that you included in your list and describe a specific physical exam that you can perform at the point-of-care to further evaluate the finding. Use specific references from your text.

    According to Goolsby, there are several exams that you can perform point of care to identify appendicitis.  These include Rovsing’s sign and a CT scan.  While I would choose the CT scan to visualize the area and confirm the diagnosis, this cannot always be done point of care.  Rovsing’s sign can be.  Simply position the patient on his/her back, press deeply on the RLQ of the patient and evaluate for referred pain in the LLQ upon quick release (Goolsby, 2015) NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment.

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your ASSESSMENT identification of problem categories, choose one missed/incorrect category and use specific references from your text to explain the importance of this category in arriving at correct differential diagnoses for this client.

    During my assessment of the patient I missed the positive Psoas sign.  I palpated the abdomen however I did not maneuver the patient to elicit this or any other sign definitive for appendicitis.  According to Goolsby, there are several signs that can be used for identification of appendicitis or peritoneal inflammation.  Some examples include Rovsing’s sign, Psoas sign, Murphy’s sign, Heel strike, or Obturator’s sign (Goolsby, 2015).  Goolsby describes several ways to induce symptoms if a patient has appendicitis.

     

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your ASSESSMENT of differential diagnoses, describe one incorrect/missed differential diagnosis and use specific references from your text to support the inclusion of the diagnosis for this client. NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment.

    One diagnosis I missed was that of pancreatitis.  I considered Peptic ulcer disease as well as small bowel obstruction, however because of the specific location of the pain I did not consider it.  I think the absence of nausea, vomiting or diarrhea was very unusual given the complaint of gastrointestinal pain.  While pancreatitis can cause significant pain, I was unaware that according to our textbook, rebound tenderness is often common in the epigastric area with acute pancreatitis (Bickley, 2017).

    References

    Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2017). Bates’ guide to physical examination and history taking (12th ed.). Philadelphia, PA: Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott, Williams and Wilkins

    Goolsby, M. J. & Grubbs, L. (2015). Advanced Assessment: Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses (3rd ed.). Philadelphia, PA: F. A. Davis Company NSG 6020 wk 5 discussion HISTORY collection Assessment

  • nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

    nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

    Discussion Question 1

    Asking Racheal about breast lumps or discharge is a question I missed. Although she did not have nipple discharge, it is important to ask because most nipple discharge is caused by a benign medical condition. However, discharge can sometime be symptoms of some forms of breast cancer. Nipple discharge along with a lump or mass in the breast can be a sign of cancer (Goolsby, Grubbs, 2014).

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    Discussion Question 2

    I learned that completing a head to toe physical exam is not always warranted and can be frustrating for the patient. Research shows that most diagnoses are made from history alone than physical examination. For example, palpating and examining the legs or feet of a patient with complaints of breast lumps can be frustrating to the patient. Another error was not obtaining a complete set of vital signs on the patient. I was not able to read the blood pressure accurately or get a pulse due to lack of knowledge of using the virtual blood pressure cuff. Vital signs show how well our body is functioning and is a key indicator during a physical exam. I will review the tutorial to improve my skills on maneuvering on Ihuman. nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion.

    Discussion Question 3

    One key finding was the two palpable right breast lumps that was found during a breast examination. Performing a proper breast exam is important due to the patient’s self and family history. This is done by using the pads of the middle 3 fingers of one hand, press downward using a circular motion. During the breast exam it is important to apply steady pressure. This will allow palpation of three levels which include: superficial, medium, and chest wall (Bickley, 2016). Clinical breast exams and breast self-awareness are important methods of early breast cancer detection and should be performed along with mammography (Goolsby, Grubbs, 2014). All three of these methods provide complete breast cancer screening.

    Discussion Question 4

    I had a hard time fully understanding how to work this program. However, once the summary review occurred at the end and I was able to see it all together and it made sense. One category I missed was her history of atypical ductal hyperplasia.  Having this indication is imperative since it has been almost 3 years since follow up and she did not have a recheck post biopsy which was specified in her past medical history.  Although atypical ductal hyperplasia is benign, it increases the chance of breast cancer (Buttaro, Trybulski, Polgar-Bailey, & Sandberg-Cook, 2017). With a first degree relative with a history of breast cancer the patient is at a higher risk of developing breast cancer.

    Discussion Question 5

    I did not identify fibroadenoma as a differential diagnosis. Occurring mostly in women between the age of 15 and 35, fibroadenoma are solid, noncancerous breast lumps (Buttaro et al., 2017). A fibroadenoma is painless, moves easily when touched and can feel firm, rubbery, or hard. Fibroadenoma are usually well-defined shape. Healthcare providers should stress the importance of patients communicating new lump or change in breast tissue to their healthcare provider.

     

    Reference

    Bickley, L.S. (2016). Bates’ Pocket Guide to Physical Examination and History Taking (8th

    Ed.). Philadephia, PA: Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins. ISBN: 9781496338488

    Buttaro, T., Trybulski, J., Polgar-Bailey, P., & Sandberg-Cook, J. 2017. Primary nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

    Care: A Collaborative Practice, 5th Edition. [South University]. Retrieved fromhttps://digitalbookshelf.southuniversity.edu/#/books/9780323355018/cfi/6/8!/4/2/6/4@0:0

    Goolsby, M., Grubbs, L. (2015). Advanced Assessment: Interpreting Findings and

    Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company. ISBN: 9780803643635

     

     

    E,

    You did an excellent job on your discussion post. I missed Fibroadenomas as a differential diagnosis too! Cyst are most common in women aged 35 to 50 years old, however fibroadenomas are seen more often in adolescents and young women (Buttaro, Trybulski, Polgar-Bailey, Sandberg-Cook, 2017). Fibroadenomas are the most common benign solid lesion of the female breast and are usually painless, well defined, and freely movable. In fact, ninety percent of breast masses are caused by benign lesions such as cyst, fibroadenomas, and fibrocystic changes (Buttaro et. al, 2017). Diagnostic mammography and ultrasonography are usually the initial tests for a palpable mass in women older than thirty-five years old. Management of a patient with breast masses is administered by the patient’s clinical history, findings, and the patients age. (Buttaro et. al, 2017).

    Reference

    Buttaro, T., Trybulski, J., Polgar-Bailey, P., & Sandberg-Cook, J. 2017. Primary

    Care: A Collaborative Practice, 5th Edition. [South University]. Retrieved fromhttps://digitalbookshelf.southuniversity.edu/#/books/9780323355018/cfi/6/8!/4/2/6/4@0:0

    S,

    Good job on your discussion post. I missed the swollen lymph nodes during Rachel’s physical examination. The lymph nodes are essential to the lymphatic drainage system and provide filtration of foreign substances through the action of lymphocytes, monocytes, and macrophages. There are over six hundred lymph nodes exist in the human body. Lymph nodes enlarge due to many factors such as but are not limited to an allergy or hypersensitivity to drug or environmental pollutants, tissue injury, and autoimmune diseases. Lymph nodes should be characterized by size, firmness, tenderness, and mobility. It should be note that breast changes especially with axillary adenopathy can be threatening and needs further investigation.

    Reference

    Buttaro, T., Trybulski, J., Polgar-Bailey, P., & Sandberg-Cook, J. 2017. Primary

    Care: A Collaborative Practice, 5th Edition. [South University]. Retrieved fromhttps://digitalbookshelf.southuniversity.edu/#/books/9780323355018/cfi/6/8!/4/2/6/4@0:0

     

     

    RH is a 42-year-old female who presents with two self-detected breast lumps.  She had a breast biopsy three years ago that identified atypical ductal hyperplasia.  Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at 48.  Other pertinent information includes weight loss of 11 pounds over the last three months.

    Discussion Question 1

    One of the questions I miss was Do you have any breast lump or discharge? It is important to ask because most nipple discharge is either normal or caused by a benign medical condition. There are instances, though, when discharge from the breast may be a symptom of some forms of breast cancer. This likelihood is greater if your nipple discharge is accompanied by a lump or mass within the breast or if you have had an abnormal mammogram (Goolsby, Grubbs, 2014). Another question I miss is Have you had any trauma to your breast? This is important because we can differentiate any problems related to breast trauma. A breast injury can result in breast contusion (bruises), pain, and tenderness.

    Discussion Question 2

    One of my errors was not to do a complete physical exam. It is said that over 80% of diagnoses are made on history alone, a further 5-10% on examination and the remainder on investigation. Whether this adage is true or not may be open to debate but it is clear that history and examination skills remain at the very core of clinical practice. Another error was not to palpate all lymph nodes. Lymph nodes can increase in size in a number of conditions. Infections, cancer, and many immune diseases can affect lymph cells and cause an enlargement of lymph nodes (Goolsby, Grubbs, 2014). Enlarged lymph nodes are often the first sign of lymphoma, a cancer of lymph cells. But all enlarged nodes are not lymphoma.

    Discussion Question 3

    One key finding was the two palpable right breast lumps. An specific physical exam I can do is a breast examination. Breast exams are best performed soon after your menstrual period ends, because your breasts will not be as tender and swollen as during your period. This makes it easier to detect any unusual changes. Clinical exams and breast self-awareness are important methods of early breast cancer detection and should be performed along with mammography (Goolsby, Grubbs, 2014). All three of these methods provide complete breast cancer screening.

    Discussion Question 4

    None missed.

    Discussion Question 5

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    ASSESSMENT
     of differential diagnoses, describe one incorrect/missed differential diagnosis and use specific references from your text to support the inclusion of the diagnosis for this client.

    I miss breast lipoma. Breast lipomas have many features that RH was experiencing.  Unilateral, painless, mobile mass were symptoms that were consistent with lipomas.  Her history of weight loss with axillary lymphadenopathy ruled out this diagnosis.  Breast cancer was my leading diagnosis because of the presence of a first-degree relative with breast cancer, prior diagnosis of atypical ductal hyperplasia, recent weight loss and axillary lymphadenopathy.

    Reference

    Goolsby, M., Grubbs, L. (2014). Advanced Assessment: Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company. VitalBook file. nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

     

     

    I miss breast lipoma. Breast lipomas have many features that RH was experiencing.

    Unilateral, painless, mobile mass were symptoms that were consistent with lipomas.

    Her

    history of weight loss with axillary lymphadenopathy ruled out this diagnosis.

    Breast cancer

    was my leading diagnosis because of the presence of a first-degree relative with breast cancer,

    prior diagnosis of atypical ductal hyperplasia, recent weight loss and axillary

    lymphadenopathy.

    Reference

    Goolsby, M., Grubbs, L. (2014). Advanced Assessment: Interpreting Findings and

    Formulating Differential Diagnoses, 3rd Edition. F.A. Davis Company. VitalBook file nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

    Discussion Question 1

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    HISTORY
     collection, describe two missed questions and your understanding of why they were important to collect for this case history. Use specific references from your text to explain.

    Two questions that I did not ask specifically were: Do you now or have you had cancer, and do you drink alcohol? If so, what do you drink and how many drinks per day? I found in the textbook that these questions are important due to modifiable and non-modifiable risk factors of breast cancer. One non-modifiable risk factor of breast cancer is a personal history of breast cancer or lobular carcinoma in situ. A modifiable risk factor of breast cancer alcohol ingestion (Bickley, 2017, p.425).

    Discussion Question 2

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    PHYSICAL EXAM
    collection, describe two errors in your exam performance or documentation. Use specific references from your text to explain the importance of these findings in correct assessment of this client nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion.

    I did not percuss or palpate the patient’s abdomen. Dull areas of percussion suggest an underlying mass or enlarged organ. This assessment could have revealed an enlarged liver if malignancy were an issue. Deep palpitation can also identify any masses (Brickley, 2017, p.473).

    Discussion Question 3

    Based on your performance on the 
    PHYSICAL EXAM
     collection, describe one key finding that you included in your list and describe a specific physical exam that you can perform at the point-of-care to further evaluate the finding. Use specific references from your text.

    The key finding included in my list was the two lumps in the patient’s right breast. One specific physical exam that can be performed at the point of care to further evaluate the finding is a clinical breast exam. During this exam you inspect skin changes, symmetry, contours, and retraction in four different views. These views are with arms at sides, arms over head, arms pressed against hips, and leaning forward. nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion. You also palpate the breasts during the exam. Palpation should be done in the rectangular area extending from the clavicle to the bra line, and from the midsternal line to the posterior axillary line and well into the axilla ensuring the tail of the breast is examined. The patient should be in the supine position for this portion of the exam. During the exam, any nipple discharge present is noted (Brickley, 2017).

    Discussion Question 4

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    ASSESSMENT
     identification of problem categories, choose one missed/incorrect category and use specific references from your text to explain the importance of this category in arriving at correct differential diagnoses for this client.

    I didn’t identify the patient’s decreased appetite and unintentional weight loss of 11 pounds. On looking at the patient’s last visit three years ago, her weight is stated as 148 pounds and, on her visit today, her weight is 149 pounds, so this was not on my mind. It has been three years since her last visit, so she may have had some fluctuations in between. Many conditions, including cancer, can make you feel less hungry. Cancer can have this effect by changing your metabolism, the way your body turns food into energy (WebMD Medical Reference, 2017). This would make the missed category important in reaching the correct differential diagnosis. nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion.

    Discussion Question 5

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    ASSESSMENT
     of differential diagnoses, describe one incorrect/missed differential diagnosis and use specific references from your text to support the inclusion of the diagnosis for this client.

    I did not specifically include fibroadenoma as a differential diagnosis. This should have been included because fibroadenomas are usually smooth, mobile, and nontender (Brickley, 2017, p. 423). This is very similar to the description given by the patient.

     

    Bickley, L. (2017). 
    Bates’ guide to physical examination and history taking
    . (12th ed.) [South University]. Retrieved from 
    https://digitalbookshelf.southuniversity.edu/#/books/9781496354709/

    WebMD Medical Reference. (2017). How to spot early warning signs of cancer. Retrieved from
    https://www.webmd.com/cancer/cancer-early-warning-signs#1

    Amanda,

    I didn’t notice that I missed auscultating the abdominal arteries, but I did as well. This is something that I will have to practice. I understand the importance of this step, but it is not something that I have done often in practice. Auscultation for abdominal bruits is a phase of the abdominal examination. Bruits are swishing sounds heard over major arteries most often during systole. The area over the aorta, both renal arteries. and the iliac arteries should be examined carefully for bruits (Goldberg, n.d.). We will continue to improve our assessment skills! Good job!

    Goldberg, C. (n.d.). Abdominal exam. Retrieved from
    https://meded.ucsd.edu/clinicalmed/pe_abdominalexam.pdf

    Mary,

    I had a hard time navigating ihuman and almost missed the atypical ductal hyperplasia also. I did find it in the PMH section eventually. Atypical ductal hyperplasia (ADH) is a high-risk benign lesion found in approximately 1–10% of breast biopsies and associated with a variable incidence of carcinoma after surgical excision (Latronico et al., 2018). This information makes me think the patient was not educated properly on the severity of this finding. She states it has been six months since she first found these two lumps and just kept missing appointments. I feel that if she had known that ADH was associated with incidence of carcinoma she might not have waited so long to have it seen about. What are your thoughts?

    Latronico, A., Nicosia, L., Faggian, A., Abbate, F., Penco, S., Bozzini, A., & … Cassano, E. (2018). Atypical ductal hyperplasia: Our experience in the management and long term clinical follow-up in 71 patients. 
    The Breast
    , 
    37
    1-5. doi:10.1016/j.breast.2017.10.003 nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

     

    NSG 6020 Week 1 Discussion Assignment Latest SU

    Assignment 2: Discussion Questions

    The discussion assignment provides a forum for discussing relevant topics for this week based on the course competencies covered .

    For this assignment, go to the
    Discussion Area
    and post a response to one question in the
    Discussion Area .
    You may respond to your classmates’ postings for either question .

    To support your work, use your course and text readings and also use the South University Online Library .As in all assignments, cite your sources in your work and provide references for the citations in APA format.

    Start reviewing and responding to the postings of your classmates as early in the week as possible .Respond to at least two of your classmates’ initial postings .Participate in the discussion by asking a question, providing a statement of clarification, providing a point of view with a rationale, challenging an aspect of the discussion, or indicating a relationship between two or more lines of reasoning in the discussion .Cite sources in your responses to other classmates

    Discussion Question 1

    Evidence-based practice will be the cornerstone of your advanced practice career .Choose a health disease process that is common in the adult population and post your choice to the discussion question area with the title “Health Disease Choice .” If a health disease is posted, pick another one so that there will be a discussion on a variety of health disease processes . nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion

    Once you have decided on your topic, research two evidence-based articles .Cite your references in APA format .Do not look for less common and seldom-seen diseases; instead, look for the typical problems that you anticipate seeing in your practice as an advanced practice nurse .On the basis of the literature search and adult disease process, also discuss what parts of the complete health history would be essential in understanding a patient’s current health state and work-up completed to date .

    Discussion Question 2

    Differential diagnoses must be considered before choosing a final diagnosis .What criteria must be met before a final diagnosis can be made? Give an example of three differential diagnoses for a patient who complains of a sore throat .Support your differential diagnoses with a brief statement of reason .You do not have to have a final diagnosis for this patient; just work up the differential diagnoses .This is a common complaint for many patients nsg 6020 Health assessment week 1 discussion .

  • Sampling theory & generalizability in nursing research essay

    Sampling theory & generalizability in nursing research essay

    Describe sampling theory and provide examples to illustrate your definition. Discuss generalizability as it applies to nursing research.

    BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Sampling theory is the study of the relationship between a given population and portion picked randomly as a representation of the whole population (McNiff & Petrik, 2018). Sampling theory can be considered biased since the researcher is picking the population group they want to study. An example of sampling is when the researcher takes a group of individuals such as smokers and start them on nicotine patches to see if helps smokers quit smoking. Sampling theory & generalizability in nursing research essay.

    Generalizability is the extension of research findings or conclusion made from sample during a research large population(Polit, 2018). As the example previously stated in the text the researcher is generalizing the smoking population that nicotine patches will help with smoking cessation when it probably won’t help everyone.  Sampling theory & generalizability in nursing research essay. The healthcare field care is sometimes based on generalization due to medications that work for most people to manage ailments, however some medical institutions are trying to push for individualize careplans for patients.

    References:

    McNiff, P & Petrik, M. (2018). 
    Nursing research: Understanding methods for best practice.
    Retrieved from https://lc.gcumedia.com/nrs433v/nursing-research-understanding-methods-for-best-practice/v1.1

     

    Polit, D. F. (2010, July 03). Generalization in quantitative and qualitative research: Myths and strategies. Retrieved May 17, 2019, from https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0020748910002063 Sampling theory & generalizability in nursing research essay

  • NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion

    NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion

    Discussion Question 1

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your HISTORY collection, describe two missed questions and your understanding of why they were important to collect for this case history. Use specific references from your text to explain
    .

    BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    First question I failed to ask Mr. Hall was whether he have had any treatment for his cough. It is always important to ask about self-treatment patient may have tried and the response. Determine what the patient has done to minimize the symptoms including whether he has altered normal activity or taken any medication prescribed or OTC(Goolsby and Grubbs, p.207). Second question was whether he has had a cough like this one before. The quality of symptoms is important. For cough the potential qualities includes whether the cough is mild and tickling or sharp and paroxysmal, it is also necessary to determine the exact location to the symptoms and whether patient has noticed any radiation to other sites and how it relates to respiration (Goolsby and Grubbs, pag 207) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion

    Discussion Question 2

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your PHYSICAL EXAM collection, describe two errors in your exam performance or documentation. Use specific references from your text to explain the importance of these findings in correct assessment of this client.

     

    I did not auscultate the anterior and posterior chest in the correct order. Auscultation is the most important technique to assess air flow through the tracheobronquial tree. According to (Bickley. 2017). Using patter from percussion should be follow to auscultate moving from one side to the other and comparing symmetric areas of the lungs. Listen to at least one full breast in each location. I did not document right the adventitious sound heard when assessing Mr. Hall’s right lung NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion. The correct documentation should be coarsed crackles, which are somewhat louder, lower in pitch, while fine crackles are soft, high pitch(Brickley.2017)

    Discussion Question 3

    Based on your performance on the PHYSICAL EXAM collection, describe one key finding that you included in your list and describe a specific physical exam that you can perform at the point-of-care to further evaluate the finding. Use specific references from your text.

     

    I found out that the patient had coarse crackles in his right lung during the auscultation of the breath sounds. According to Bickley (2017), the origin of coarse crackles is at the period of early inspiration. Then they proceed during the biphasic period through the expiration with a specific popping sound. Their characteristic feature is that the change in a body position does not cause any variation in the crackles and they can be heard in all lung regions. Fine crackles last for a shorter period of time and have higher frequency. Besides, coarse crackles get to the mouth, and they disappear or transform while coughing. Having obtained this result, I used it as a finding that indicated pneumonia as a diagnosis. NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion. Goolsby (2014) claimed that consolidation caused by the increase in breath sounds throughout the peripheral regions of lungs can indicate having pneumonia. According to Bickley (2017), the reason for crackles may be either lung parenchyma abnormalities, in particular pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, atelectasis, interstitial lung disease, heart failure, or problems with the airways, in particular bronchiectasis, bronchitis, or other ones.

     

    Discussion Question 4

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your ASSESSMENT identification of problem categories, choose one  missed/incorrect category and use specific references from your text to explain the importance of this category in arriving at correct differential diagnoses for this client.

     

    I did not indicate Crackles in the RLL in my differential diagnosis although I noted it during the physical assessment. This abnormal finding is important as it implies having diagnostic testing and obligatory follow-up. The non-musical sounds of crackles may be of different types: early inspiratory, biphasic, or late. The patient had a characteristic popping sound for coarse crackles, which was evident on his physical anterior and posterior assessment and RLL (Bickley et al., 2017). The cause of coarse crackles can be gas boluses which pass through opening and closing airways. It is a symptom in the patients who have bronchiectasis, COPD, heart failure, pneumonia, or asthma (Bickley et al., 2017) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

     

    Discussion Question 5

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your ASSESSMENT of differential diagnoses, describe one incorrect/missed differential diagnosis and use specific references from your text to support the inclusion of the diagnosis for this client
    .

     

    I missed Pneumonia community acquired as an important differential diagnosis. Pneumonia involve inflammation and consolidation of lung tissues. It’s broadly categorized by whether if occurs outside the hospital(Community adquired pneumonia), or within the hospital(Nosocomial, or hospital adquired pneumonia).The symptoms of pneumonia are quite varied. Usually the patient complaint of cough associated with fever, malaise, shaking chills, rigor and chest discomfort. Abnormal vital signs include tachycardia and tachypnea and fever. There is uneven fremitus and the area over the consolidation percusses dull. On auscultation there are bronchial breath sound, often with crackles.(Goolsby and Grubbs. P. 214) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

     

    Discussion 2

    Discussion Question 1

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    HISTORY
     collection, describe two missed questions and your understanding of why they were important to collect for this case history. Use specific references from your text to explain.

    The first question I missed was “Has there been any change in your cough over time?” The importance of this question is related to the duration of the length of the time the patient has been experiencing the cough.  An acute cough is a cough that lasts up to three weeks, a subacute cough lasts three to eight weeks, and a chronic cough lasts eight weeks or longer (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014).  The second question that I missed asking was “Have you ever had a cough like this before?”  This question is important to ask to determine history of present illness in the patient (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.  It is important to determine whether the patient has experienced this illness before and if so, which treatment was performed and if it was effective or not.

    Discussion Question 2

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    PHYSICAL EXAM
     collection, describe two errors in your exam performance or documentation. Use specific references from your text to explain the importance of these findings in correct assessment of this client.

    One of the errors I made in my physical exam was failing to inspect the eyes.  Inspecting this patient’s eyes is important because of the important information that can be revealed through this exam.  An eye exam can show systemic conditions, local bacterial infections, or ocular infections such as cytomegalovirus retinitis (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014).   The secont exam I failed to complete is inspecting the head.  This is of particular importance for this patient as patients who have HIV frequently have lipodystrophy.  Lipodystrophy is when fat is redistributed as a secondary occurrence to antiretroviral therapy.  This HIV-related lipodystrophy presents in two ways: lipohypertrophy and lipoatrophy.  Lipohypertrophy is the excess accumulation of local fat tissue and lipoatrophy is the loss of local fat tissue.  A head inspection can reveal if this is occurring (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

    Discussion Question 3

    Based on your performance on the 
    PHYSICAL EXAM
     collection, describe one key finding that you included in your list and describe a specific physical exam that you can perform at the point-of-care to further evaluate the finding. Use specific references from your text.

    One of the physical exams that I performed was inspecting the mouth and pharynx.  This particular exam reveals information such as head trauma and general neurological status (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014).  It can also reveal issues such as a sore throat and swollen tonsils (Goolsby & Grubbs, 2014).  Examining the oral mucosa will also be done during an oral exam.  This indicates various signs of health, including hydration or dehydration.  Cyanosis around the oral area can indicate a decreased level of oxygenation, so this can also be noted at this time (Bickley, et al., 2017). NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

     

    Discussion Question 4

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    ASSESSMENT
     identification of problem categories, choose one missed/incorrect category and use specific references from your text to explain the importance of this category in arriving at correct differential diagnoses for this client.

    Unfortunately, I left out the history of hypertension in this patient when assessing my patient.  This is important to include, especially when assessing the orthostatic blood pressure drop.  Orthostatic blood pressure is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mm Hg or drop in diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mm Hg within 3 minutes of standing (Bickley, et al., 2017) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

    Discussion Question 5

    Based on your performance and the expert feedback in your 
    ASSESSMENT 
    of differential diagnoses, describe one incorrect/missed differential diagnosis and use specific references from your text to support the inclusion of the diagnosis for this client.

    One diagnosis I missed was autoimmune disorder.  Many autoimmune disorders manifest in pulmonary manners.  Symptoms may include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest pain, fever, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, skin lesions, unintended weight loss.  Three examples of autoimmune disorders are sarcoidosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Grubbs & Goolsby, 2014) NSG 6020 Week 3 Discussion.

  • Ethical Dilemma Essay – Medical Law And Ethics Module One

    Ethical Dilemma Essay – Medical Law And Ethics Module One

    Create a possible ethical dilemma relating to your chosen field. 
    (which is Healthcare Administration)
     For example: You are a Medical Assistant and your supervising physician consistently asks you to perform procedures that you are not trained for. Or, you are a Medical Biller and your supervisor has asked you to overbill certain procedures because the clinic that you work for is in financial trouble. Using the 
    7 Step Decision Making Model
    , apply the facts of your dilemma. ethical dilemma essay – Medical Law And Ethics Module One.

    Summary of the Situation:

    BUY A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    The Seven-Step Decision Model

    Determine the facts by asking the following questions.

    What do we need to know?

    Who is involved in the situation?

    Where does the ethical situation take place?

    When does it occur?

    Define the precise ethical issue.

    For example, is it a matter of fairness, justice, morality, or individual rights?

    III. Identify the major principles, rules, and values. ethical dilemma essay – Medical Law And Ethics Module One

    For example, is this a matter of integrity, quality, respect for others, or profit?

    Specify the alternatives.

    List the major alternative courses of action, including those that represent some form of compromise. This may be a choice between simply doing or not doing something.

    Compare values and alternatives.

    Determine if there is one principle or value, or a combination of principles and values, that is so compelling that the proper alternative is clear.

    Assess the consequences.

    Identify short-term, long-term, positive, and negative consequences for the major alternatives. The short-term gain or loss is often overridden when long-term consequences are considered. This step often reveals an unanticipated result of major importance.

    VII. Make a decision.

    The consequences are balanced against one’s primary principles or values. Always double-check your decision. ethical dilemma essay – Medical Law And Ethics Module One

  • NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Nursing Education Seminar I

    Course Description

    This course prepares nurse educators to deliver instruction within clinical, professional, and academic settings with

    specific emphasis on effective methods of facilitating learning and fostering critical thinking skills in diverse student

    populations. Students apply instructional strategies and methods grounded in evidence-based practice and learning

    theory and engage in the selection of appropriate strategies to facilitate learning. Students also consider the effective

    integration of technology and simulation into teaching practice. Students complete 50 direct care practicum hours to

    integrate advanced nursing knowledge and skills into practice. Practicum/field experience hours: 50. Prerequisite:

    NUR-643E.

    Pre-Requisites

    ORDER A PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    NUR-643E.

    Co-Requisites

    None

    NUR-646E

    C Course Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Herrman, J. (2015). Creative teaching strategies for the nurse educator(2nd ed.). Philadelphia, PA: F.A. Davis.

    ISBN-13: 9780803644687 (available as print text only)

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Description:

    page 2 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    Shellenbarger, T. (2018). Clinical nurse educator competencies: Creating an evidence-based practice for academic

    clinical nurse educators. Alphen aan den Rijn, Netherlands: Wolters Kluwer. ISBN-13: 9781975104269 (available as

    print text only)

    Learning Environment Observation

    Description:

    During your professional career as a nurse educator, you will be asked to teach in various learning environments;

    including traditional classroom, online, and clinical.

    For the assignment in Topic 5 you will be asked to complete a classroom observation.

    The classroom can be a traditional or clinical setting and be directed at students, nurses, or patients.

    Typhon Website: Access NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Description:

    See the attached document and follow the steps to initiate your Typhon account. If you have difficulty, utilize the

    tutorial videos on the home page.

    Grand Canyon University requires you to use the Typhon Student Tracking System to log and document clinical hours

    and patient case logs for all clinical courses.

    You will complete the case logs after each clinical experience.

    http://www.typhongroup.net/gcu

    T Topic 1: Role of the Nurse Educator in Various Settings

    Description

    Objectives:

    Identify the teaching role expectations and competencies that define the scholarly nursing position.

    Explore different educational forums to understand the importance of professional nursing

    educators.

    Explore the historical development of the role of nurse educators.

    Formulate practicum goals to meet identified learning needs.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Read Chapter 1 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Description:

    page 3 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    Read Chapters 1 and 6 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators.

    A Day in the Life of a Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Read “A Day in the Life of a Nurse Educator,” by Brunt from Ohio Nurses Review (2014).

    Nurse Educator Core Competencies

    Description:

    Read “Nurse Educator Core Competencies,” found on the National League for Nursing website to complete the

    assignment.

    Nurse Educator Electronic Portfolio

    Description:

    Review the “Nurse Educator Electronic Portfolio” resource to the complete the topic assignment.

    T Tasks

    Practicum Goals

    Description:

    This assignment requires your collaboration with the course faculty and practicum preceptor early on

    to establish goals for successful completion of your practicum requirements.

    Develop a 250-500-word narrative for completing your practice hours and how objectives will be met.

    Include the following in your narrative:

    Five practicum goals that relate to course objectives, course deliverables, your personal and

    professional development needs, and your practicum setting.

    A proposed schedule to meet your goals and the 50 required practicum hours you must

    accumulate during this course NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I.

    A description of any challenges you expect to encounter, and strategies to help you overcome

    these challenges.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the

    Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become

    familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please refer to the directions in the

    Student Success Center.

    Pre-Practicum Preceptor, Faculty, and Student Conferences

    Description:

    page 4 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    Prior to starting practicum hours, students are required to arrange a conference with their preceptors

    to review the course objectives and discuss the proposed practicum experience.

    Students and preceptors will attest to meeting by signing the “Practicum Preceptor, Faculty, and

    Student conference” form and submitting it to the instructor in LoudCloud during the first week of

    class for approval of the proposed experiences.

    Nurse Educator Electronic Portfolio

    Description:

    For this program, you will be creating a working electronic portfolio that can be utilized when trying to

    obtain a position as a nurse educator. The electronic portfolio will encompass several artifacts from

    your practicum courses. Use the “Nurse Educator Electronic Portfolio,” resource to guide you in

    collecting the required artifacts for this. You will submit the completed electronic portfolio in

    NUR-665E.

    Topic 1 DQ 1

    Description:

    Compare the difference between a traditional faculty role versus the online faculty role. How are the

    expectations different for each role? What steps will you need to prepare to be successful in each?

    Topic 1 DQ 2

    Description:

    Referring to the National League of Nursing’s (NLN) Nurse Educator Competencies, choose one

    competency and describe how you will achieve this competency in your nurse educator role.

    T Topic 2: Learning Theory and Educational Philosophies NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Description

    Objectives:

    Apply learning theories and teaching philosophies to provide structure for the learning process.

    Apply theory to teaching practices to support the ability to effectively teach utilizing evidence-based

    support.

    Evaluate learning theories and educational philosophies to develop effective learning environments.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    page 5 of 19

    Review Chapter 1 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    Read Chapter 2 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic Clinical

    Nurse Educators.

    T Tasks

    Teaching Philosophy Statement

    Description:

    The purpose of this assignment is to develop your personal teaching philosophy statement. This will

    be included in your e-portfolio to be submitted at the end of this course.

    Begin by researching a developed teaching philosophy and use the information to shape your own

    philosophy.

    In 250-500 words, develop a personal teaching philosophy statement that includes your beliefs on

    the purpose of education, how students learn, how your beliefs facilitate learning, the role of the

    nurse educator, and how you plan to implement this philosophy to grow as an educator as you seek

    to integrate the nurse educator competencies into your professional practice.

    APA style is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become

    familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

    Topic 2 DQ 1

    Description:

    Select two nursing theories and explain how they can be applied in nursing education. How can the

    theories aid in your teaching practices including clinical or patient specific experiences?

    Topic 2 DQ 2

    Description:

    Search the literature and find an example of a research study that uses an educational theory in a

    nursing education study. Does the study appear to use the theory appropriately? How does the

    research contribute to understanding of the theory? Be sure to cite the article.

    T Topic 3: Individualized Student Learning

    page 6 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    Description

    Objectives:

    Classify student types, learning styles, and learning style frameworks.

    Discover the importance of learning needs in a diversified student population.

    Evaluate teaching strategies useful for understanding and addressing the learning needs of diverse

    student populations NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Read Chapter 5 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    Read Chapter 3 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic Clinical

    Nurse Educators.

    College Success: A Fresh Look at Differentiated Instruction and Other Student-Centered

    Strategies

    Description:

    Read “College Success: A Fresh Look at Differentiated Instruction and Other Student-Centered Strategies,” by

    Lightweis, from College Quarterly (2013).

    Differentiation Through Blended Learning

    Description:

    Read “Differentiation Through Blended Learning,” by Kleber, from Leadership (2015).

    The Learning Environment and Learning Styles: A Guide for Mentors

    Description:

    Read “The Learning Environment and Learning Styles: A Guide for Mentors,” by Vinales, from British Journal of

    Nursing (2015).

    T Tasks

    page 7 of 19

    1.

    2.

    SBAR Clinical Log

    Description:

    Complete the “SBAR Clinical Log” to document your total clinical hours completed to date, a

    description of observations and tasking completed, and additional comments regarding your

    practicum Experience. You will also complete the “SBAR,” section of the form related to a patient you

    have assessed during your clinical experience thus far.

    Topic 3 DQ 1

    Description:

    Discuss an experience working with a diverse patient or student population or students with

    diverse learning needs. Using evidence-based literature, develop a strategy to increase the

    success of these students in a classroom setting.

    Topic 3 DQ 2

    Description:

    Do you think it is practical and relevant to use a learning style inventory with patients or students in

    your selected area of education? Support your response with literature.

    T Topic 4: Student Diversity and Engagement Practices

    Description

    Objectives:

    Prepare optimal instructional plans for the diversity of the student nurse population.

    Describe educational laws that impact student diversity and instruction.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Review Chapter 5 and read Chapter 6 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    page 8 of 19

    Review Chapter 3 and read Chapters 4 and 6 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based

    Practice for Academic Clinical Nurse Educators.

    Translation of Knowledge and Skills from Controlled Learning Environment to Clinical Practice

    Description:

    Read “Translation of Knowledge and Skills from Controlled Learning Environment to Clinical Practice,” by Ali and

    Manokre, from International Journal of Nursing Education (2016).

    T Tasks

    Midterm Preceptor-Faculty-Student Conference and Evaluation

    Description:

    Complete the Preceptor-Faculty-Student Conference and Evaluation, including applicable

    signatures for each preceptor.

    Midterm Clinical Evaluation

    Description:

    The clinical faculty will contact the preceptor by phone and review the midterm clinical competencies. The preceptor

    will perform a midterm clinical evaluation with the clinical faculty. The clinical faculty will input the evaluation via the

    Typhon system.

    Students will access the completed preceptor evaluations in Typhon under the tab for “EASI: Evaluation and Survey

    Instrument” and print out the completed evaluation, sign it, and upload the signed evaluation into LoudCloud.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the

    expectations for successful completion.

    Topic 4 DQ 1

    Description:

    What culture and diversity issues have you experienced when working with current student or

    patient populations? What strategies do nurse educators use to bridge culture and diversity

    barriers? How do these strategies aim to create a positive learning environment

    Topic 4 DQ 2

    Description:

    Choose an experience from your clinical practicum that demonstrates engagement and teaching

    strategies utilized to teach clinical experience in other education setting. How could you implement

    engagement or teaching strategies with learning theories to teach students or patients about the

    experience in a didactic or online classroom?

    page 9 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    T Topic 5: Teaching Strategies

    Description

    Objectives:

    Maintain and manage the learning environment for optimal student or patient outcomes.

    Establish an environment that promotes student participation and engagement.

    Prepare for a variety of learning environments, including online, traditional, and clinical.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Read Chapter 4 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    Read Chapter 5 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic Clinical

    Nurse Educators.

    Translation of Knowledge and Skills From Controlled Learning Environment to Clinical Practice

    Description:

    Review “Translation of Knowledge and Skills From Controlled Learning Environment to Clinical Practice,” by Ali and

    Manokore fromInternational Journal of Nursing Education (2016).

    Managing the Higher Education Classroom

    Description:

    Read “Managing the Higher Education Classroom,” by Clark, from Radiologic Technology (2017).

    Undergraduate Nursing Students’ Experience Related to Their Clinical Learning Environment

    and Factors Affecting to Their Clinical Learning Process

    Description:

    Read “Undergraduate Nursing Students’ Experience Related to Their Clinical Learning Environment and Factors

    Affecting to Their Clinical Learning Process,” by Burcu, Ordin, and Yilmaz, from Nurse Education in Practice (2018).

    Stress Triggers in the Educational Environment From the Perspective of Nursing Students

    Description:

    page 10 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    Read “Stress Triggers in the Educational Environment From the Perspective of Nursing Students,” by Domingues,

    Devos, Edison Luiz, Leda, Tomaschewski-Barle,. Lerch, and Ramos, from Texto & Contexto Enfermagem,(2018).

    Effective Learning Environments Observation Tool (ELEOT)

    Description:

    Use the “Effective Learning Environments Observation Tool (ELEOT),” to complete the assignment.

    ELEOT Reference Guide

    Description:

    Use the “ELEOT Reference Guide,” to assist in completing the assignment.

    T Tasks

    Learning Environment Observation

    Description:

    During your professional career as a nurse educator, you will be asked to teach in various learning

    environments; including traditional classroom, online, and clinical.

    The purpose of this assignment is to provide knowledge of establishing an environment that

    promotes student participation, engagement, and optimal student outcomes.

    The classroom can be a traditional or clinical setting and be directed at students, nurses, or

    patients.

    Using the “ELEOT Reference Guide” complete the “Effective Learning Environments Observation

    Tool (ELEOT).”

    Write a 500-750 word summary of the observation. Include the following in your summary.

    Discuss the results of the ELEOT.

    Discuss how the instructor maintained and managed the learning environment.

    Discuss the various engagement and learning strategies that were used and how they could

    be implemented in different learning environments including traditional and non-traditional

    environments.

    Discuss how you could implement some these strategies into your own classroom.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the

    Student Success Center.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to

    become familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please refer to the directions in the

    Student Success Center.

    Topic 5 DQ 1

    Description:

    page 11 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    Consider a time as a student, in which you experienced a positive learning environment. What

    made the experience a quality learning environment? Why? Support your choice with current

    literature.

    Topic 5 DQ 2

    Description:

    In nursing, there are several diverse “physical learning environments.” Describe three strategies a

    nursing faculty utilizes to ensure a positive student learning experience within a variety of settings.

    T Topic 6: Facilitating Critical Thinking and Active Learning

    Description

    Objectives:

    Identify how to develop effective teaching strategies based on individual teaching style.

    Develop teaching strategies for multiple learning styles.

    Apply Bloom’s taxonomy to formulate learning objectives.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Review Chapter 5 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Description:

    Review Chapter 4 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice

    for Academic Clinical Nurse Educators.

    Using Innovative Teaching Strategies to Improve Outcomes in a Pharmacology Course

    Description:

    Read “Using Innovative Teaching Strategies to Improve Outcomes in a Pharmacology Course,” by

    Thomas and Schuessler, from Nursing Education Perspectives (2016).

    Bringing Learning to Light: Innovative Instructional Strategies for Teaching Infection Control to

    Nursing Students

    page 12 of 19

    Description:

    Read “Bringing Learning to Light: Innovative Instructional Strategies for Teaching Infection Control

    to Nursing Students,” by Wiles, Rose, Curry-Lourenco, and Swift, from Nursing Education

    Perspectives (2015).

    Evidenced-Based Teaching Strategies that Facilitate Transfer of Knowledge Between Theory

    and Practice: What are Nursing Faculty Using?

    Description:

    Read ” Evidenced-Based Teaching Strategies that Facilitate Transfer of Knowledge Between

    Theory and Practice: What are Nursing Faculty Using?,” by Culyer, Love Jatulis, Cannistraci, and

    Brownell, from Teaching and Learning in Nursing(2018).

    T Tasks

    SBAR Clinical Log

    Description:

    Complete the “SBAR Clinical Log” to document your total clinical hours completed to date, a

    description of observations and tasking completed, and additional comments regarding your

    practicum Experience. You will also complete the “SBAR,” section of the form related to a patient

    you have assessed during your clinical experience thus far.

    Topic 6 DQ 1

    Description:

    Choose three teaching strategies that you feel the most comfortable using. Explain why you think

    you are most comfortable with this strategy? Discuss how you think these teaching strategies are

    classified according to Bloom’s Revised Taxonomy.

    Topic 6 DQ 2

    Description:

    Choose an experience from your clinical practicum that you feel comfortable teaching. Using

    Bloom’s Revised Taxonomy, “insert objective writing resource,” and the teaching strategies

    learned in this topic, create three learning objectives for the topic you chose. Provide feedback on

    your classmates’ objectives as your discussion response NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I.

    T Topic 7: Learning Environment

    Description

    page 13 of 19

    1.

    2.

    Objectives:

    Apply knowledge of teaching strategies for critical thinking.

    Demonstrate teaching strategies to promote active learning.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Review Chapters 4 and 5 and read Chapter 2, 3, and 6 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the

    Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    Read Chapter 9 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice

    for Academic Clinical Nurse Educator.

    The Use and Effectiveness of Active Learning Methods in Nursing and Health Professions

    Education: A Literature Review.

    Description:

    Read “The Use and Effectiveness of Active Learning Methods in Nursing and Health Professions

    Education: A Literature Review,” by Waltz, Jenkins, and Han, from Nurse Education Prespectives

    (2014).

    Think Like a Nurse: A Critical Thinking Initiative

    Description:

    Read “Think Like a Nurse: A Critical Thinking Initiative,” by Ward and Morris, from ABNF Journal,

    (2016).

    The Doorway Assessment: Reducing Anxiety and Promoting Critical Thinking in Nursing

    Students

    Description:

    Read “The Doorway Assessment: Reducing Anxiety and Promoting Critical Thinking in Nursing

    Students,” by Foley, from America Nurse Today (2016).

    Visual Literacy: Images of Nurses and Nursing

    page 14 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    5.

    6.

    Description:

    Review the “Visual Literarcy: Images of Nurses and Nursing,” sample lesson plan to assist you in

    completing the topic assignment.

    NATCEP Daily Lesson Plan

    Description:

    Review “NATCEP Daily Lesson Plan,” from the Pennsylvania Department of Education, to assist

    you in completing the topic assignment.

    How Formative Assessment Helps Nursing Students Succeed in the Classroom

    Description:

    Read “How Formative Assessment Helps Nursing Students Succeed in the Classroom,” by

    Lippincott Nursing Education, found on the Nursing Education Blog, (2017).

    T Tasks

    Benchmark -Nurse Educator Lesson Plan

    Description:

    As a nurse educator, you will be responsible for creating effective lessons for various settings.

    Choose a teaching and learning experience from your clinical setting. You may use the clinical

    experience from your Topic 4 discussion response.

    Based on the experience you chose, use the engagement, student learning, and creating effective

    learning environment strategies that you have learned in this course to develop a lesson plan on

    similar content for two additional settings (such as an asynchronous online session and teaching a

    nursing student in the clinical setting, etc.). Use the lesson plan examples found in the topic materials

    to assist you in creating your lesson outlines.

    This assignment will be used as an artifact for your electronic portfolio at the end of the course.

    Include the following in your outline:

    Lesson Objectives

    Timeframe and target environment

    Three to four teaching strategies-based on Evidence-Based Practice.

    Activities

    A summary of the types of assessments you would use in your lesson and why?

    Provide rationale for the teaching strategies you implemented into each lesson and why they

    differ.

    Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA Style Guide, located in the

    Student Success Center NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I.

    page 15 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become

    familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

    This assignment benchmarks the following competency:

    Master of Science in Nursing with an Emphesis in Education

    6.1: Apply instructional strategies grounded in evidence-based practice and learning theory that meet

    the unique needs of learners in diverse environments.

    Topic 7 DQ 1

    Description:

    How can nurse educators encourage critical thinking, clinical reasoning, and clinical judgement in

    clinical education and the traditional classroom or clinical setting? How can you differentiate these

    instruction pieces for various educational or clinical settings?

    Topic 7 DQ 2

    Description:

    What are common barriers when teaching critical thinking skills? What strategies can nursing

    educators use to better promote critical thinking skills in students?

    T Topic 8: Teaching With Evidence-Based Practices (EBP), Technology, and

    Simulation

    Description

    Objectives:

    Identify methods to stay current with new technology and EBPs.

    Utilize theory and EBPs to develop effective learning environment.

    Outline the impact of new technology in the classroom to improve dissemination of material and

    address different types of learning styles.

    S Study Materials

    Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

    Description:

    Read Chapter 7 in Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator.

    Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice for Academic

    Clinical Nurse Educators

    Description:

    page 16 of 19

    1.

    2.

    3.

    4.

    5.

    Read Chapter 7 in Clinical Nurse Educator Competencies: Creating an Evidence-Based Practice

    for Academic Clinical Nurse Educators.

    Undergraduates: Infusing Technology Into a Nursing Curriculum

    Description:

    Read ” Undergraduates: Infusing Technology Into a Nursing Curriculum,” by Villaran and

    Matcharadaze, from Nursing Informatics Today (2014).

    Enhancing Utility and Understanding of Evidence Based Practice Through Undergraduate Nurse

    Education

    Description:

    Read “Enhancing Utility and Understanding of Evidence Based Practice Through Undergraduate

    Nursing Education,” by Briggs, Carlisle, Lewis, Reid, and Scott, from BMC Nursing (2017).

    Tactics for Teaching Evidence-Based Practice: Improving Self-Efficacy in Finding and Appraising

    Evidence in a Master’s Evidence-Based Practice Unit

    Description:

    Read “Tactics for Teaching Evidence-Based Practice: Improving Self-Efficacy in Finding and

    Appraising Evidence in a Master’s Evidence-Based Practice Unit,” by Chang and Levin, from

    Worldviews on Evidence Based Nursing (2014).

    T Tasks

    Final Clinical Evaluation

    Description:

    Please make sure that all current hours have been entered into Typhon and your preceptor has

    approved all your current hours. This must be done prior to submitting your Final Clinical Evaluation.

    The preceptor will complete the “Final Clinical Evaluation” form. Instructor discretion may vary

    the due date depending on student’s clinical practicum experience.

    Review the evaluation with your preceptor.

    The preceptor will sign electronically in Typhon. The student will then pull this evaluation from

    Typhon and submit to the classroom

    The student must submit a signed copy to the classroom.

    Unsigned submissions or those not submitted appropriately do not meet completion criteria

    and may result in loss of points and/or failure of the course.

    This is a pass/fail assignment. Failure to successfully complete this assignment will result in failure of

    the course.

    This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become

    familiar with the expectations for successful completion.

    APA style is not required, but solid academic writing is expected.

    You are not required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite.

    page 17 of 19

    Final Preceptor, Faculty, and Student Conference and Evaluation

    Description:

    Complete the “Preceptor-Faculty-Student Conference and Evaluation” resource including

    applicable signatures for each preceptor.

    Clinical Evaluation of Preceptor by Student

    Description:

    Evaluate your preceptor using “Evaluation of Clinical Preceptor by Student” form.

    Although this is an ungraded submission, it is a requirement for course completion.

    Typhon Screen Shot

    Description:

    You are required to submit 50 hours to be approved by the preceptor and the faculty.

    Take a screen shot of your Typhon log and submit in assignment dropbox. Faculty will confirm your

    screen shot with Typhon. http://www.typhongroup.net/gcu NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

    Topic 8 DQ 1

    Description:

    Identify two to three new learning technologies in nursing education. As a nurse educator, discuss

    how you would incorporate these technologies into the curriculum?

    Topic 8 DQ 2

    Description:

    How can educator’s best assess student’s learning needs and match those needs with innovative

    teaching technologies? Discuss the role of evaluating evidence and best practices when selecting

    new technologies to integrate into the learning environment.

    Grade Scale

    Final Grade Column

    page 18 of 19

    Letter Grade GPA Value Minimum (%) Maximum (%)

    A 4.0 97.0 100.0

    A- 3.7 93.0 96.99

    B+ 3.3 89.0 92.99

    B 3.0 85.0 88.99

    B- 2.7 81.0 84.99

    C+ 2.3 78.0 80.99

    C 2.0 76.0 77.99

    F 0.0 0.02 75.99

    I 0.0 0.0 0.01

    Grade Categories

    Assignments (%) Points Percentile

    Midterm Preceptor-Faculty-Student Conference and

    Evaluation 20.0 —

    Final Clinical Evaluation 120.0 —

    Practicum Goals 25.0 —

    SBAR Clinical Log 75.0 —

    Teaching Philosophy Statement 75.0 —

    Typhon Screen Shot 30.0 —

    Midterm Clinical Evaluation 75.0 —

    SBAR Clinical Log 75.0 —

    Learning Environment Observation 100.0 —

    Pre-Practicum Preceptor, Faculty, and Student

    Conferences 20.0 —

    Benchmark -Nurse Educator Lesson Plan 125.0 —

    Final Preceptor, Faculty, and Student Conference and

    Evaluation 20.0 —

    Discussion Question (%) Points Percentile

    Topic 8 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 2 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 5 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 7 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 1 DQ 1 5.0 —

    page 19 of 19

    Topic 8 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 6 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 3 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 4 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 3 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 2 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 4 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 7 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 5 DQ 1 5.0 —

    Topic 1 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Topic 6 DQ 2 5.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Participation (%) Points Percentile

    20.0 —

    Class Effective Start: Sep 12, 2019

    NUR-646E_Syllabus

    NUR-646E Nursing Education Seminar I

  • 7 Step Decision Making Model

    7 Step Decision Making Model

    Module 1 Written Assignment: 7 Step Model

    Create a possible ethical dilemma relating to your chosen field. For example:  You are a Medical Assistant and your supervising physician consistently asks you to perform procedures that you are not trained for.  Or, you are a Medical Biller and your supervisor has asked you to overbill certain procedures because the clinic that you work for is in financial trouble.  Using the 7 Step Decision Making Model, apply the facts of your dilemma. After you provide a summary of your situation, you will fill in this worksheet by answering the questions of the 7 Step Model to resolve your ethical situation. 7 Step Decision Making Model.

    Summary of the Situation:

    The Seven-Step Decision Model

    Determine the facts by asking the following questions.

    What do we need to know?

    ORDER A CUSTOM-WRITTEN, PLAGIARISM-FREE PAPER HERE

    Who is involved in the situation?

    Where does the ethical situation take place?

    When does it occur?

    Define the precise ethical issue.

    For example, is it a matter of fairness, justice, morality, or individual rights?

    III. Identify the major principles, rules, and values. 7 Step Decision Making Model

    For example, is this a matter of integrity, quality, respect for others, or profit?

    Specify the alternatives.

    List the major alternative courses of action, including those that represent some form of compromise. This may be a choice between simply doing or not doing something.

    Compare values and alternatives.

    Determine if there is one principle or value, or a combination of principles and values, that is so compelling that the proper alternative is clear.

    Assess the consequences.

    Identify short-term, long-term, positive, and negative consequences for the major alternatives. The short-term gain or loss is often overridden when long-term consequences are considered. This step often reveals an unanticipated result of major importance. 7 Step Decision Making Model.

    VII. Make a decision.

    The consequences are balanced against one’s primary principles or values. Always double-check your decision.

    7 Step Decision Making Model